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• Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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• MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

  - by Ryan

  So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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• Disable ARC with Xcode 5

  - by user2187565

  First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

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• What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

  - by Lord Torgamus

  Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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• MySQL " identify storage engine statement"

  - by sammysmall

  This IS NOT a Homework question! While building my current student database project I realized that I may want to identify comprehensive information about a database design in the future. More-so if I am fortunate enough to get a job in this field and were handed a database project how could I break down certain elements for identification... In all of my previous designs I have been using MySQL Community Server (GPL) 5.1.42, I thought (duh) that I was using the MyISAM based on most of my text-book instruction and MySQL 5.0 Reference Manual :: 13 Storage Engines :: 13.1 The MyISAM Storage Engine I determined that this was in fact incorrect for this version and the use of "SHOW ENGINES" at the console... No problem, figured out why they have "versions" the need to pay attention to what version is being used, and the need for a means to determine what I am about to mess up "if" I do not pay attention to detail... Q1. Specifically what statement will identify the version used by someone elses initial database creation? (since I created my own databases I know what version I used) Q2. Specifically what statement will identify the storage engine that the developer used when creating the database. (I specified a particular database in my collection then tried SHOW Engine, did not work, then tried to just get the metadata from one table in that database: mysql SELECT duck_cust, table_type, engine - FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.tables - WHERE table_schema = 'tp' - ORDER BY table_type ASC, table_name DESC; as this was not really what I wanted (and did not work) I am looking for some direction from the pros... Q3. (If you really have the inclination to continue helping) If I were to access a database from an earlier/later "version" are there backward/forward compatibility issues for maintaining/updating data between versions? Please and Thank you in advance for your time and efforts! sammysmall

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• Custom UITableView headerView disappears after memory warning

  - by psychotik

  I have a UITableViewController. I create a custom headerView for it's tableView in the loadView method like so: (void)loadView { [super loadView]; UIView* containerView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height * 2 )]; containerView.tag = 'cont'; containerView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleLeftMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleRightMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleTopMargin; UIButton* button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(padding, height, width, height); ... //configure UIButton and events UIImageView* imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"] highlightedImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"highlight.png"]]; imageView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height ); ... //configure UIImageView [containerView addSubview:button]; [containerView addSubview:imageView]; self.tableView.tableHeaderView = containerView; [imageView release]; [containerView release]; } None of the other methods (viewDidLoad/Unload, etc) are overloaded. This controller is hosted in a tab. When I switch to another tab and simulate a memory warning, and then come back to this tab, my UITableView is missing my custon header. All the rows/section are visible as I would expect. Putting a BP in the loadView code above, I see it being invoked when I switch back to the tab after the memory warning, and yet I can't actually see the header. Any ideas about what I'm missing here? EDIT: This happens on the device and the simulator. On the device, I just let a memory warning occur by opening a bunch of different apps while mine is in the background.

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• How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

  - by Ankur

  I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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• How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

  - by Jesse Beder

  I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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• ASP.NET Web Application: use 1 or multiple virtual directories

  - by tster

  I am working on a (largish) internal web application which has multiple modules (security, execution, features, reports, etc.). All the pages in the app share navigation, CSS, JS, controls, etc. I want to make a single "Web Application" project, which includes all the pages for the app, then references various projects which will have the database and business logic in them. However, some of the people on the project want to have separate projects for the pages of each module. To make this more clear, this is what I'm advocating to be the projects. /WebInterface* /SecurityLib /ExecutionLib etc... And here is what they are advocating: /SecurityInterface* /SecutiryLib /ExecutionInterface* /ExecutionLib etc... *project will be published to a virtual directory of IIS Basically What I'm looking for is the advantages of both approaches. Here is what I can think of so far: Single Virtual Directory Pros Modules can share a single MasterPage Modules can share UserControls (this will be common) Links to other modules are within the same Virtual directory, and thus don't need to be fully qualified. Less chance of having incompatible module versions together. Multiple Virtual Directories Pros Can publish a new version of a single module without disrupting other modules Module is more compartmentalized. Less likely that changes will break other modules. I don't buy those arguments though. First, using load balanced servers (which we will have) we should be able to publish new versions of the project with zero downtime assuming there are no breaking database changes. Second, If something "breaks" another module, then there is either an improper dependency or the break will show up eventually in the other module, when the developers copy over the latest version of the UserControl, MasterPage or dll. As a point of reference, there are about 10 developers on the project for about 50% of their time. The initial development will be about 9 months.

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• Convert a Dynamic[] construct to a numerical list

  - by Leo Alekseyev

  I have been trying to put together something that allows me to extract points from a ListPlot in order to use them in further computations. My current approach is to select points with a Locator[]. This works fine for displaying points, but I cannot figure out how to extract numerical values from a construct with head Dynamic[]. Below is a self-contained example. By dragging the gray locator, you should be able to select points (indicated by the pink locator and stored in q, a list of two elements). This is the second line below the plot. Now I would like to pass q[[2]] to a function, or perhaps simply display it. However, Mathematica treats q as a single entity with head Dynamic, and thus taking the second part is impossible (hence the error message). Can anyone shed light on how to convert q into a regular list? EuclideanDistanceMod[p1_List, p2_List, fac_: {1, 1}] /; Length[p1] == Length[p2] := Plus @@ (fac.MapThread[Abs[#1 - #2]^2 &, {p1, p2}]) // Sqrt; test1 = {{1.`, 6.340196001221532`}, {1.`, 13.78779876355869`}, {1.045`, 6.2634018978377295`}, {1.045`, 13.754947081416544`}, {1.09`, 6.178367702583522`}, {1.09`, 13.72055251752498`}, {1.135`, 1.8183153704413153`}, {1.135`, 6.082497198000075`}, {1.135`, 13.684582525399742`}, {1.18`, 1.6809452373465104`}, {1.18`, 5.971583107298081`}, {1.18`, 13.646996905469383`}, {1.225`, 1.9480537697339537`}, {1.225`, 5.838386922625636`}, {1.225`, 13.607746407088161`}, {1.27`, 2.1183174369679234`}, {1.27`, 5.669799095595362`}, {1.27`, 13.566771130126131`}, {1.315`, 2.2572975468163463`}, {1.315`, 5.444014254828522`}, {1.315`, 13.523998701347882`}, {1.36`, 2.380307009155079`}, {1.36`, 5.153024664297602`}, {1.36`, 13.479342200528283`}, {1.405`, 2.4941312539733285`}, {1.405`, 4.861423833512566`}, {1.405`, 13.432697814928654`}, {1.45`, 2.6028066447609426`}, {1.45`, 4.619367407525507`}, {1.45`, 13.383942212133244`}}; DynamicModule[{p = {1.2, 10}, q = {1.3, 11}}, q := Dynamic@ First@test1[[ Ordering[{#, EuclideanDistanceMod[p, #, {1, .1}]} & /@ test1, 1, #1[[2]] < #2[[2]] &]]]; Grid[{{Show[{ListPlot[test1, Frame -> True, ImageSize -> 300], Graphics@Locator[Dynamic[p]], Graphics@ Locator[q, Appearance -> {Small}, Background -> Pink]}]}, {Dynamic@p}, {q},{q[[2]]}}]]

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• how to share a variable between two threads

  - by prmatta

  I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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• NSTableView don't display data

  - by Tomas Svoboda

  HI, I have data in NSMutableArray and I want to display it in NSTableView, but only the number of cols has changed. This use of NSTableView is based on tutorial: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5teN5pMf-rs FinalImageBrowser is IBOutlet to NSTableView @implementation AppController NSMutableArray *listData; - (void)awakeFromNib { [FinalImageBrowser setDataSource:self]; } - (IBAction)StartReconstruction:(id)sender { NSMutableArray *ArrayOfFinals = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; //Array of list with final images NSString *FinalPicture; NSString *PicNum; int FromLine = [TextFieldFrom intValue]; //read number of start line int ToLine = [TextFieldTo intValue]; //read number of finish line int RecLine; for (RecLine = FromLine; RecLine < ToLine; RecLine++) //reconstruct from line to line { Start(RecLine); //start reconstruction //Create path of final image FinalPicture = @"FIN/final"; PicNum = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%d", RecLine]; FinalPicture = [FinalPicture stringByAppendingString:PicNum]; FinalPicture = [FinalPicture stringByAppendingString:@".bmp"]; [ArrayOfFinals addObject:FinalPicture]; // add path to array } listData = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [listData autorelease]; [listData addObjectsFromArray:ArrayOfFinals]; [FinalImageBrowser reloadData]; NSBeep(); //make some noise NSImage *fin = [[NSImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:FinalPicture]; [FinalImage setImage:fin]; } - (int)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)tv { return [listData count]; } - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)tv objectValueFromTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(int)row { return (NSString *)[listData objectAtIndex:row]; } @end when the StartReconstruction end the number of cols have changed right, but they're empty. When I debug app, items in listData is rigth. Thanks

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• What is your personal approach/take on commenting?

  - by Trae

  Duplicate What are your hard rules about commenting? A Developer I work with had some things to say about commenting that were interesting to me (see below). What is your personal approach/take on commenting? "I don't add comments to code unless its a simple heading or there's a platform-bug or a necessary work-around that isn't obvious. Code can change and comments may become misleading. Code should be self-documenting in its use of descriptive names and its logical organization - and its solutions should be the cleanest/simplest way to perform a given task. If a programmer can't tell what a program does by only reading the code, then he's not ready to alter it. Commenting tends to be a crutch for writing something complex or non-obvious - my goal is to always write clean and simple code." "I think there a few camps when it comes to commenting, the enterprisey-type who think they're writing an API and some grand code-library that will be used for generations to come, the craftsman-like programmer that thinks code says what it does clearer than a comment could, and novices that write verbose/unclear code so as to need to leave notes to themselves as to why they did something."

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• Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

  - by CL4NCY

  Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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• CGGradient Not Displaying Correctly on iPad 1 and 2

  - by daveMac

  I have been experimenting with creating my own gradients for the UI in my iOS app. I first used a CAGradientLayer but I was disappointed with the "stepped" look so I have been trying out CGGradient. enter code here I am having an issue with the Gradient displaying correctly. I have three iPads—one for each generation. The gradient looks right on the iPad 3 but not on the iPad 1 or 2. This is really strange. I was going to take a screenshot and post the two differences but even more strange, the screenshot look the same (and yes, the brightness is the same on both). The colors seem really washed out on the older iPads. I know the iPad 3 is a retina display, but I think it must be something more than that. Here is the code I am using: - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef currentContext = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGGradientRef skyGradient; CGColorSpaceRef rgbColorspace; size_t num_locations = 3; CGFloat locations[3] = { 0.0, .5, 1.0 }; CGFloat components[12] = { .106, .73, .93333, 1., 0.0, 0.0 , 1.0, 1., .106, .73, .93333, 1. }; rgbColorspace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); skyGradient = CGGradientCreateWithColorComponents(rgbColorspace, components, locations, num_locations); CGRect currentBounds = self.bounds; CGPoint topLeft = CGPointMake(0.0f, 0.0f); CGPoint bottomRight = CGPointMake(CGRectGetMaxX(currentBounds), CGRectGetMaxY(currentBounds)); CGContextDrawLinearGradient(currentContext, skyGradient, topLeft, bottomRight, 0); CGGradientRelease(skyGradient); CGColorSpaceRelease(rgbColorspace); }

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• Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

  - by goober

  Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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• ASP.NET MVC (VB) error when publishing to test server

  - by Colin

  I have an ASP.NET MVC project that works fine on my local machine (no build errors, server errors or anything). However, when I publish the project to a test server, I get an "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error on a For Each I have in my view. I have a function within a model that returns a DataRowCollection. I'm calling that function in my controller and passing the DataRowCollection to my View, which then iterates over the rows and displays the necessary information: In the Controller I have: Function Index() As ActionResult Dim MyModel As New Model ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") = MyModel.GetDataRowCollection() Return View() End Function And then in the View, which is throwing the error: <%@ Page Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="indexTitle" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> My Page Title </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="indexContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% For Each MyDataRow In ViewData("MyDataRowCollection") ' do stuff with each MyDataRow Next %> I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC so I'm sure there might be a better way to do what I'm doing (I'd be happy to hear if there is), but my main concern is why this works fine on my local machine but throws an error on the For Each on the test server? Please let me know if I can clarify any of the above, and thanks in advance for any information.

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• .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

  - by mathee

  Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

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• sqlite3 DELETE problem "Library Routine Called Out Of Sequence"

  - by Michael Bordelon

  Here is my second stupid Noob problem. I am trying to do a simple Delete and I keep blowing up on the prepare step. I already have other Deletes, Inserts, Updates and Selects working. I am sure it is something simple. I appreciate your help. + (void)flushTodaysWorkouts { sqlite3_stmt *statement = nil; //open the database if (sqlite3_open([[BIUtility getDBPath] UTF8String], &database) != SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_close(database); NSAssert(0, @"Failed to opendatabase"); } NSArray *woList = [self todaysScheduledWorkouts]; for (Workout *wo in woList) { NSInteger woID = wo.woInstanceID; if(statement == nil) { const char *sql = "DELETE FROM IWORKOUT WHERE WOINSTANCEID = ?"; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &statement, NULL) != SQLITE_OK) NSAssert1(0, @"Error while creating delete statement. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(database)); } //When binding parameters, index starts from 1 and not zero. sqlite3_bind_int(statement, 1, woID); if (SQLITE_DONE != sqlite3_step(statement)) NSAssert1(0, @"Error while deleting. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(database)); sqlite3_finalize(statement); } if(database) sqlite3_close(database); }

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• Zend Framework Form Element Validators - validate a field even if not required

  - by Jeremy Hicks

  Is there a way to get a validator to fire even if the form element isn't required? I have a form where I want to validate the contents of a texbox (make sure not empty) if the value of another form element, which is a couple of radio buttons, has a specific value selected. Right now I'm doing this by overriding the isValid() function of my form class and it works great. However, I'd like to move this to either its on validator or use the Callback validator. Here's what I have so far, but it never seems to get called unless I change the field to setRequired(true) which I don't want to do at all times, only if the value of the other form element is set to a specific value. // In my form class's init function $budget = new Zend_Form_Element_Radio('budget'); $budget->setLabel('Budget') ->setRequired(true) ->setMultiOptions($options); $budgetAmount = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('budget_amount'); $budgetAmount->setLabel('Budget Amount') ->setRequired(false) ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator(new App_Validate_BudgetAmount()); //Here is my custom validator (incomplete) but just testing to see if it even gets called. class App_Validate_BudgetAmount extends Zend_Validate_Abstract { const STRING_EMPTY = 'stringEmpty'; protected $_messageTemplates = array( self::STRING_EMPTY => 'please provide a budget amount' ); public function isValid($value) { echo 'validating...'; var_dump($value); return true; } }

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• Can't unwrap Optional.None tableviewcell

  - by Mathew Padley

  I've a table view that has a custom table view cell in it. My problem is that when i try and assign a value to a variable in the custom table view cell I get the stated error. Now, I think its because the said variable is not initialised, but its got me completely stumped. This is the custom table cell: import Foundation import UIKit class LocationGeographyTableViewCell: UITableViewCell { //@IBOutlet var Map : MKMapView; @IBOutlet var AddressLine1 : UILabel; @IBOutlet var AddressLine2 : UILabel; @IBOutlet var County : UILabel; @IBOutlet var Postcode : UILabel; @IBOutlet var Telephone : UILabel; var location = VisitedLocation(); func Build(location:VisitedLocation) -> Void { self.location = location; AddressLine1.text = "test"; } } My cell for row at index path is: override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, cellForRowAtIndexPath indexPath: NSIndexPath!) -> UITableViewCell! { var addressCell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier("ContactDetail") as? LocationGeographyTableViewCell; if !addressCell { addressCell = LocationGeographyTableViewCell(style: UITableViewCellStyle.Value1, reuseIdentifier: "ContactDetail"); } addressCell!.Build(Location); return addressCell; } As I say I'm completely baffled, the Build function calls the correct function in the tableviewcell. Any help will be gratefully appreciated. Ta

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• Fluent NHibernate - How to map the foreign key column as a property

  - by Steve

  I am sure this is a straightforward question but consider the following: I have a reference between company and sector as follows: public class Company { public Guid ID { get; set; } public Sector Sector { get; set; } public Guid SectorID { get; set; } } public class Sector { public Guid ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Ok. What I want is the SectorID of the Company object to be populated after I go: (new Company()).Sector = new Sector() { Name="asdf" } and do a flush. The mapping I am using kindly creates an additional column in the database called Sector_Id in the Company table, but this is not available as a property on Company. I want the SectorID property to be filled. The mapping i am currently using in the CompanyMap is References(c = c.Sector).Cascade.All(); Does anyone have any ideas?

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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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