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  • How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

    - by hornairs
    I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Stop NSXMLParser Instance from Causing _NSAutoreleaseNoPool

    - by PF1
    Hi Everyone: In my iPhone application, I have an instance of NSXMLParser that is set to a custom delegate to read the XML. This is then moved into its own thread so it can update the data in the background. However, ever since I have done this, it has been giving me a lot of _NSAutoreleaseNoPool warnings in the console. I have tried to add a NSAutoreleasePool to each of my delegate classes, however, this hasn't seemed to solve the problem. I have included my method of creating the NSXMLParser in case that is at fault. NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:@"http://www.mywebsite.com/xmlsource.xml"]; NSXMLParser *xmlParser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; CustomXMLParser *parser = [[CustomXMLParser alloc] init]; parser.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; parser = [parser initXMLParser]; [xmlParser setDelegate:parser]; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(parse) toTarget:xmlParser withObject:nil]; If anyone has any ideas to get rid of this problem, I would really appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • wordpress php > div issue

    - by Philip Bateman
    Thanks in advance for you help Ive been doing this as a lovejob for friends and now im getting quotes of several hundred dollars for minor homepage variation and I'm not sure if its valid. I'm not a programmer myself, just trying hard :) Via the CafePress press75 theme, I'm trying to go from 1 / 2 / 3 column home layout, to 1-2 merged and 3, push the 2nd column data to the right and have the 1st column span as a 16:9 gallery (nextgengallery plugin installed). Is this really a complex thing from a coding perspective? The current guy talking to me is saying its going to cost $700 or 800 AUD to alter, which is rough when the template cost $85.. From this http://shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/shocolatecurrent.jpg to this 'url+Shocolatelooklikethis.jpg' I was able to get the sidebar removed by taking out ‘‘ near the bottom of home.css.. Just can’t get the middle data to flow over it? This would be ideal as a result, as the system puts the latest selected blog post on the homepage, so if we can get rid of the sidebar div and have the text appear where it was, that would be ideal. Removing the sidebar from the bottom of home.php and setting the thumbnail width to say 450 gives me the result im after EXCEPT the text doesn’t fill where the sidebar is, it wraps underneath. Reference 'shocolate.com.au.previewdns.com' for current site Thank you!!! Phil (Melbourne)

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  • MemoryFailPoint fires to early in WinXP 64

    - by msedi
    Hello, I have created a volume class (called VoxelVolume) with a self-organizing memory management, since the GC in C# didn't provide a good mechanism for managing contents of the volume for mapping, unmapping and remapping. Although I could have used the mechanisms of virtual memory, the problem is that the files are often too large to fit into the page file and I don't want to force the users to increase the pagefile size. Currently this system is working quite well and there is no problem in lacking resources and OutOfMemoryExceptions since the InsufficientMemoryException using the MemoryFailPoint works quite well. This was all testes on a 32bit WinXP system with 2GB of main memory. Running the same mechanism on 64bit system with 32GB of main memory also works well, but when the application runs the MemoryFailPoint suddenly throws an exception although 24GB of main memory are still free. Another point is when the MemoryFailPoint has fired once, it fires everytime and there is no chance to get rid of it. What I have read so far, that there is a small object and a large object heap (SOH and LOH). But only for the SOH the GC takes real care of and I can free the SOH from unused objects by applying GC.Collect() and GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers. The MemoryFailPoint is obviously the only way to get a little bit of control for the LOH, but since there is enough memory left on the system I see no reason why the MemoryFilePoint should fire. Is there any experience around here using the MemoryFailPoint? Thank you for your help Martin

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  • QT NOOB: Add action handler for multiple objects of same type.

    - by what
    I have a simple QT application with 10 radio buttons with names radio_1 through radio_10. It is a ui called Selector, and is part of a class called TimeSelector In my header file for this design, i have this: //! [1] class TimeSelector : public QWidget { Q_OBJECT public: TimeSelector(QWidget *parent = 0); private slots: //void on_inputSpinBox1_valueChanged(int value); //void on_inputSpinBox2_valueChanged(int value); private: Ui::Selector ui; }; //! [1] the commented out void_on_inputSpinBox1_valueChanged(int value) is from the tutorial for the simple calculator. I know i can do: void on_radio_1_valueChanged(int value); but I would need 10 functions. I want to be able to make one function that works for everything, and lets me pass in maybe a name of the radio button that called it, or a reference to the radio button so i can work with it and determine who it was. I am very new to QT but this seems like it should be very basic and doable, thanks.

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  • how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

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  • Do I need to Salt and Hash a randomly generated token?

    - by wag2639
    I'm using Adam Griffiths's Authentication Library for CodeIgniter and I'm tweaking the usermodel. I came across a generate function that he uses to generate tokens. His preferred approach is to reference a value from random.org but I considered that superfluous. I'm using his fall back approach of randomly generating a 20 character long string: $length = 20; $characters = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ'; $token = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $length; $i++) { $token .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } He then hashes this token using a salt (I'm combing code from different functions) sha1($this->CI->config->item('encryption_key').$str); I was wondering if theres any reason to to run the token through the salted hash? I've read that simply randomly generating strings was a naive way of making random passwords but is the sh1 hash and salt necessary? Note: I got my encryption_key from https://www.grc.com/passwords.htm (63 random alpha-numeric)

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  • Eclipse BIRT - Unnecessary inline style with external CSS when rendering HTML

    - by Etienne
    Hello! I am designing a report using external CSS with BIRT 2.5. When BIRT renders the html report, it creates copies of each external style to inline styles (name style_x) in the resulting html. The report.design contains: <list-property name="cssStyleSheets"> <structure> <property name="fileName">… mycss.css</property> <property name="externalCssURI"> http://.../mycss.css </property> </structure> </list-property> The resulting html contains: <style type="text/css"> .style_0 {…} .style_1 {…} …. </style> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://.../mycss.css"></link> For each reference of my styles, the rendered html elements use both styles usually like this: <div class="style_x myclass" …. > …. </div> Is there any way to get rid of the useless inline styles when rendering html?

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  • Compilation problem in the standard x86_64 libraries

    - by user350282
    Hi everyone, I am having trouble compiling a program I have written. I have two different files with the same includes but only one generates the following error when compiled with g++ /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.4.1/../../../../lib/crt1.o: In function `_start': /build/buildd/eglibc-2.10.1/csu/../sysdeps/x86_64/elf/start.S:109: undefined reference to `main' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status The files I am including in my header are as follows: #include <google/sparse_hash_map> using google::sparse_hash_map; #include <ext/hash_map> #include <math.h> #include <iostream> #include <queue> #include <vector> #include <stack> using std::priority_queue; using std::stack; using std::vector; using __gnu_cxx::hash_map; using __gnu_cxx::hash; using namespace std; Searching the internet for those two lines hasn't resulted in anything to help me. I would be very grateful for any advice. Thank you

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  • Is it legal to take sealed .NET framework class source and extend it?

    - by Giedrius
    To be short, I'm giving very specific example, but I'm interested in general situation. There is a FtpWebRequest class in .NET framework and it is missing some of new FTP operations, like MFCT. It is ok in a sense that this operation is still in draft mode, but it is not ok in a sense, that FtpWebRequest is sealed and there's no other way (at least I don't see it) to extend it with this new operation. Easiest way to do it would be take FtpWebRequest class source from .NET reference sources and extend it, in such way will be kept all the consistence in naming, implementation, etc. Question is how much legal it is? I won't sell this class as a product, I can publish my changes on web - nothing to hide here. If it is not legal, can I take this class source from mono and include in native .net project? Did you had similar case and how you solved it? Update: as long as extension method is offered, I'm pasting source from .NET framework which should show that extension methods are not the solution. So there's a property Method, where you can pass FTP command: public override string Method { get { return m_MethodInfo.Method; } set { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) { throw new ArgumentException(SR.GetString(SR.net_ftp_invalid_method_name), "value"); } if (InUse) { throw new InvalidOperationException(SR.GetString(SR.net_reqsubmitted)); } try { m_MethodInfo = FtpMethodInfo.GetMethodInfo(value); } catch (ArgumentException) { throw new ArgumentException(SR.GetString(SR.net_ftp_unsupported_method), "value"); } } } As you can see there FtpMethodInfo.GetMethodInfo(value) call in setter, which basically validates value against internal enum static array. Update 2: Checked mono implementation and it is not exact replica of native code + it does not implement some of the things.

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  • Python refuses text.replace() in one environment

    - by gx
    Hi fellow programmers, I've been mocking about with the following bit of dirty support-code for a pylons app, which works fine in a python-shell, a separate python file, or when running in paster. Now, we've put the application on-line through mod_wsgi and apache and this specific piece of code stopped working completely. First off, the code itself: def fixStyle(self, text): t = text.replace('<p>', '<p style="%s">' % (STYLEDEF,)) t = t.replace('class="wide"', 'style="width: 125px; %s"' % (DEFSTYLE,)) t = t.replace('<td>', '<td style="%s">' % (STYLEDEF,)) t = t.replace('<a ', '<a style="%s" ' % (LINKSTYLE,)) return t It seems pretty straightforward, and to be honest, it is. So what happens when I put a piece of text in it, for example: <table><tr><td>Test!</td></tr></table> The output should be: <table><tr><td style="stuff-from-styledef">Test!</td></tr></table> and it is, on most systems. When we put it through the app on Apache/mod_wsgi though, the following happens: <table><tr><td>Test!</td></tr></table> You guessed it. I'm currently at a loss and have no idea where to go next. Googling doesn't really work out, so I'm hoping on you guys to help out and perhaps point out a fundamental issue with using whatever-is-causing-this. If anything is missing I'll edit it in.

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  • Why doesn't the SplitView iPhone template have a nib file for the RootView?

    - by Dr Dork
    I'm diving into iPad development and am learning a lot quickly, but everywhere I look, I have questions. After creating a new SplitView app in Xcode using the template, it generates the AppDelegate class, RootViewController class, and DetailViewController class. Along with that, it creates a .xib files for MainWinow.xib and DetailView.xib. How do these five files work together? Why is there a nib file for the DetailView, but not the RootView? When I double click on the MainWindow.xib file, Interface Builder launches without a "View" window, why? Below is the code for didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method inside the AppDelegate class. Why are we adding the splitViewController as a subview? (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the split view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:splitViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I still have a lot to learn, so I apologize if this question is absurd in any way. I'm going to continue researching these questions right now!

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  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

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  • Will a Ph. D. in Computer Science help?

    - by Francisco Garcia
    I am close to my 30s and still learning about programming and software engineering. Like most people who like their profession I truly believe that I should aim to improve and keep updated. One of the things I do is reading technical papers from professional publications (IEEE and ACM) but I admit there are very good bloggers out there too. Lately I started to think (should I say realize?) that Ph. D people actually are expected to expand constantly their knowledge, but little is expected from lower classes once they know enough This made me think that maybe having a Ph. D will help to have more... respect? but I also believe that I am already getting old for that. Futhermore I see many master and doctor programs that does not seem to add any value over hard experience and self learning. I belive that a degree in computer science, althought not necessary, can lay out a good base for programming work. However: What can a Ph. D. degree give you that you cannot learn on your own? (if you are not into something VERY specific and want to work in a non academic environment)

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How is an AppDelegate instanciated?

    - by pwny
    I have an iOS application for which I want to create a ViewController programmatically. I started an empty XCode project and modified the main method so it looks like this int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; int retVal = UIApplicationMain(argc, argv, nil, @"MyAppDelegate_iPad"); [pool release]; return retVal; } The app is a Universal Application, MyAppDelegate_iPad is a subclass of MyAppDelegate, which is a subclass of NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate>. My problem is that the applicationDidFinishLoading method I've overridden in MyAppDelegate_iPad is never called (break point on the first line never hits). The method looks like this -(void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; if(!window) { [self release]; return; } window.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; rootController = [[MyViewController alloc] init]; [window addSubview:rootController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [window layoutSubviews]; } I removed the line to link to a nib file from my plist file (I used to get the default "My Universal app on iPad" white screen) and now all that is displayed is a black screen. applicationDidFinishLoading is still not being called. Am I doing something wrong? How should I properly create my AppDelegate instance?

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  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

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  • Designing a chain of states

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to model a kind of FSM(Finite State Machine). I have a sequence of states (let's say, from StateA to StateZ). This sequence is called a Chain and is implemented internally as a List. I will add states by the order I want them to run. My purpose is to be able to make a sequence of actions in my computer (for example, mouse clicks). (I know this has been done a zillion times). So a state is defined as a: boolean Precondition() <- Checks to see if for this state, some condition is true. For example, if I want to click in the Record button of a program, in this method I would check if the program's process is running or not. If it is, go to the next state in the chain list, otherwise, go to what was defined as the fail state (generally is the first state of them all). IState GetNextState() <- Returns the next state to evaluate. If Precondition() was sucessful, it should yield the next state in the chain otherwise it should yield the fail state. Run() Simply checks the Precondition() and sets the internal data so GetNextState() works as expected. So, a naive approach to this would be something like this: Chain chain = new Chain(); //chain.AddState(new State(Precondition, FailState, NextState) <- Method structure chain.AddState(new State(new WinampIsOpenCondition(), null, new <problem here, I want to referr to a state that still wasn't defined!>); The big problem is that I want to make a reference to a State that at this point still wasn't defined. I could circumvent the problem by using strings when refrering to states and using an internal hashtable, but isn't there a clearer alternative? I could just pass only the pre-condition and failure states in the constructor, having the chain just before execution put in each state the correct next state in a public property but that seems kind of awkward.

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  • do the Python libraries have a natural dependence on the global namespace?

    - by msw
    I first ran into this when trying to determine the relative performance of two generators: t = timeit.repeat('g.get()', setup='g = my_generator()') So I dug into the timeit module and found that the setup and statement are evaluated with their own private, initially empty namespaces so naturally the binding of g never becomes accessible to the g.get() statement. The obvious solution is to wrap them into a class, thus adding to the global namespace. I bumped into this again when attempting, in another project, to use the multiprocessing module to divide a task among workers. I even bundled everything nicely into a class but unfortunately the call pool.apply_async(runmc, arg) fails with a PicklingError because buried inside the work object that runmc instantiates is (effectively) an assignment: self.predicate = lambda x, y: x > y so the whole object can't be (understandably) pickled and whereas: def foo(x, y): return x > y pickle.dumps(foo) is fine, the sequence bar = lambda x, y: x > y yields True from callable(bar) and from type(bar), but it Can't pickle <function <lambda> at 0xb759b764>: it's not found as __main__.<lambda>. I've given only code fragments because I can easily fix these cases by merely pulling them out into module or object level defs. The bug here appears to be in my understanding of the semantics of namespace use in general. If the nature of the language requires that I create more def statements I'll happily do so; I fear that I'm missing an essential concept though. Why is there such a strong reliance on the global namespace? Or, what am I failing to understand? Namespaces are one honking great idea -- let's do more of those!

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  • Instrumenting a string

    - by George Polevoy
    Somewhere in C++ era i have crafted a library, which enabled string representation of the computation history. Having a math expression like: TScalar Compute(TScalar a, TScalar b, TScalar c) { return ( a + b ) * c; } I could render it's string representation: r = Compute(VerbalScalar("a", 1), VerbalScalar("b", 2), VerbalScalar("c", 3)); Assert.AreEqual(9, r.Value); Assert.AreEqual("(a+b)*c==(1+2)*3", r.History ); C++ operator overloading allowed for substitution of a simple type with a complex self-tracking entity with an internal tree representation of everything happening with the objects. Now i would like to have the same possibility for NET strings, only instead of variable names i would like to see a stack traces of all the places in code which affected a string. And i want it to work with existing code, and existing compiled assemblies. Also i want all this to hook into visual studio debugger, so i could set a breakpoint, and see everything that happened with a string. Which technology would allow this kind of things? I know it sound like an utopia, but I think visual studio code coverage tools actually do the same kind of job while instrumenting the assemblies.

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  • Is this overly clever or unsafe?

    - by Liberalkid
    I was working on some code recently and decided to work on my operator overloading in c++, because I've never really implemented it before. So I overloaded the comparison operators for my matrix class using a compare function that returned 0 if LHS was less than RHS, 1 if LHS was greater than RHS and 2 if they were equal. Then I exploited the properties of logical not in c++ on integers, to get all of my compares in one line: inline bool Matrix::operator<(Matrix &RHS){ return ! (compare(*this,RHS)); } inline bool Matrix::operator>(Matrix &RHS){ return ! (compare((*this),RHS)-1); } inline bool Matrix::operator>=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS); } inline bool Matrix::operator<=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS)-1; } inline bool Matrix::operator!=(Matrix &RHS){ return compare((*this),RHS)-2; } inline bool Matrix::operator==(Matrix &RHS){ return !(compare((*this),RHS)-2); } Obviously I should be passing RHS as a const, I'm just probably not going to use this matrix class again and I didn't feel like writing another function that wasn't a reference to get the array index values solely for the comparator operation.

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  • How to check a bool setting in my iphone app

    - by dusk
    I have a setting in Root.plist with Key = 'latestNews' of type PSToggleSwitchSpecifier and DefaultValue as a boolean that is checked. If I understand that correctly, it should = YES when I pull it in to my code. I'm trying to check that value and set an int var to pass it to my php script. What is happening is that my boolean is either nil or NO and then my int var = 0. What am I doing wrong? int latestFlag; NSUserDefaults *prefs = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL latestNews = [prefs boolForKey:@"latestNews"]; if (latestNews) latestFlag = 1; else latestFlag = 0; NSString *urlstr = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"http://www.mysite.com/folder/iphone-test.php?latest=%d", latestFlag]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlstr]; //these are auto-released NSString *ans = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSArray *listItems = [ans componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; self.listData = listItems; [urlstr release]; [url release];

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  • Why does the JSF action tag handler in JSP invoke rendering immediately after creation?

    - by Pentius
    Dear fellows, I read the article "Improving JSF by Dumping JSP" from Hans Bergsten. There I read the following: The JSP container processes the page and invokes the JSF action tag handlers as they are encountered. A JSF tag handler looks for the JSF component it represents in the component tree. If it can't find the component, it creates it and adds it to the component tree. It then asks the component to render itself. and furthermore On the first request, the action creates its component and asks it to render itself. I understand that the immediate rendering after the creation of the component is the problem here (The reference to the input component can't be resolved in the example). That's one point, why JSF doesn't fit with JSP. But it reads as if the action tag handler itself would ask the component to render. Or is it JSP that triggers the rendering directly after the action tag handler created the component. If it is the action tag handler, I don't understand, why this is the fault of JSP. What is different here than from JSF intended? Thanks for your help, I need this for my thesis.

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  • Contrary to Python 3.1 Docs, hash(obj) != id(obj). So which is correct?

    - by Don O'Donnell
    The following is from the Python v3.1.2 documentation: From The Python Language Reference Section 3.3.1 Basic Customization: object.__hash__(self) ... User-defined classes have __eq__() and __hash__() methods by default; with them, all objects compare unequal (except with themselves) and x.__hash__() returns id(x). From The Glossary: hashable ... Objects which are instances of user-defined classes are hashable by default; they all compare unequal, and their hash value is their id(). This is true up through version 2.6.5: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79096, Mar 19 2010 21:48:26) ... ... >>> class C(object): pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11335856 >>> hash(c) 11335856 But in version 3.1.2: Python 3.1.2 (r312:79149, Mar 21 2010, 00:41:52) ... ... >>> class C: pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11893680 >>> hash(c) 743355 So which is it? Should I report a documentation bug or a program bug? And if it's a documentation bug, and the default hash() value for a user class instance is no longer the same as the id() value, then it would be interesting to know what it is or how it is calculated, and why it was changed in version 3.

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