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  • uploading images with the help of arrays and fetch errors

    - by bonny
    i use a script to upload a couple of images to a directory. the code works great in case of just one picture will be uploaded. if i like to upload two images or more and have an extension that is not accepted, the script will upload the one with the extension that is allowed to upload and shows the errormessage for the one who is not accepted. but the upload takes place. that's my first problem. second problem will be: in case of an errormessage i would like to display a message in which it is said, which of the images will be not allowed. i do not know how to fetch this one that has an unaccepted ending into a variable that i can echo to the errormessage. here is the code i use: if(!empty($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'])){ $allowed_extension = array('jpg', 'jpeg', 'png', 'bmp', 'tiff', 'gif'); foreach($_FILES['image']['name'] as $key => $array_value){ $file_name = $_FILES['image']['name'][$key]; $file_size = $_FILES['image']['size'][$key]; $file_tmp = $_FILES['image']['tmp_name'][$key]; $file_extension = strtolower(end(explode('.', $file_name))); if (in_array($file_extension, $allowed_extension) === false){ $errors[] = 'its an unaccepted format in picture $variable_that_count'; continue; } if ($file_size > 2097152){ $errors[] = 'reached maxsize of 2MB per file in picture $variable_that_count'; } if (count($errors) == 0){ $path = "a/b/c/"; $uploadfile = $path."/".basename($_FILES['image']['name'][$key]); if (move_uploaded_file($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'][$key], $uploadfile)){ echo "success."; } } } } hope it will be clear what i like to approach. if there is someone who could help out i really would appreciate. thanks a lot.

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  • EventAggregator, is it thread-safe?

    - by pfaz
    Is this thread-safe? The EventAggregator in Prism is a very simple class with only one method. I was surprised when I noticed that there was no lock around the null check and creation of a new type to add to the private _events collection. If two threads called GetEvent simultaneously for the same type (before it exists in _events) it looks like this would result in two entries in the collection. /// <summary> /// Gets the single instance of the event managed by this EventAggregator. Multiple calls to this method with the same <typeparamref name="TEventType"/> returns the same event instance. /// </summary> /// <typeparam name="TEventType">The type of event to get. This must inherit from <see cref="EventBase"/>.</typeparam> /// <returns>A singleton instance of an event object of type <typeparamref name="TEventType"/>.</returns> public TEventType GetEvent<TEventType>() where TEventType : EventBase { TEventType eventInstance = _events.FirstOrDefault(evt => evt.GetType() == typeof(TEventType)) as TEventType; if (eventInstance == null) { eventInstance = Activator.CreateInstance<TEventType>(); _events.Add(eventInstance); } return eventInstance; }

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  • Documentation style: how do you differentiate variable names from the rest of the text within a comm

    - by Alix
    Hi, This is a quite superfluous and uninteresting question, I'm afraid, but I always wonder about this. When you're commenting code with inline comments (as opposed to comments that will appear in the generated documentation) and the name of a variable appears in the comment, how do you differentiate it from normal text? E.g.: // Try to parse type. parsedType = tryParse(type); In the comment, "type" is the name of the variable. Do you mark it in any way to signify that it's a symbol and not just part of the comment's text? I've seen things like this: // Try to parse "type". // Try to parse 'type'. // Try to parse *type*. // Try to parse <type>. // Try to parse [type]. And also: // Try to parse variable type. (I don't think the last one is very helpful; it's a bit confusing; you could think "variable" is an adjective there) Do you have any preference? I find that I need to use some kind of marker; otherwise the comments are sometimes ambiguous, or at least force you to reread them when you realise a particular word in the comment was actually the name of a variable. (In comments that will appear in the documentation I use the appropriate tags for the generator, of course: @code, <code></code>, etc) Thanks!

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  • Post valuse and upload Image to php server in android

    - by lawat
    I am trying to upload image from android phone to php server with additional values,the method is post my php file look like this if($_POST['val1']){ if($_POST['val2']){ if($_FILE['image']){ ...... } } }else{ echo "Value not found"; } I am doing is URL url=new URL("http://www/......../myfile.php"); HttpURLConnection con=(HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); con.setDoInput(true); con.setDoOutput(true); con.setUseCaches(false); con.setRequestMethod("POST");//Enable http POST con.setRequestProperty("Connection", "Keep-Alive"); con.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "multipart/form-data;boundary="+"****"); connection.setRequestProperty("uploaded_file", imagefilePath); DataOutputStream ostream = new DataOutputStream( con.getOutputStream()); String res=("Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"val1\""+val1+"****"+ "Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"val2\""+val2+"****" "Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"image\";filename=\"" + imagefilePath +"\""+"****"); outputStream.writeBytes(res); my actual problem is values are not posting so first if condition get false and else section is executed that is it give value not found please help me

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  • Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

    - by dan.codes
    I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

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  • Problem with reading and writing to binary file in C++

    - by Reem
    I need to make a file that contains "name" which is a string -array of char- and "data" which is array of bytes -array of char in C++- but the first problem I faced is how to separate the "name" from the "data"? newline character could work in this case (assuming that I don't have "\n" in the name) but I could have special characters in the "data" part so there's no way to know when it ends so I'm putting an int value in the file before the data which has the size of the "data"! I tried to do this with code as follow: if((fp = fopen("file.bin","wb")) == NULL) { return false; } char buffer[] = "first data\n"; fwrite( buffer ,1,sizeof(buffer),fp ); int number[1]; number[0]=10; fwrite( number ,1,1, fp ); char data[] = "1234567890"; fwrite( data , 1, number[0], fp ); fclose(fp); but I didn't know if the "int" part was right, so I tried many other codes including this one: char buffer[] = "first data\n"; fwrite( buffer ,1,sizeof(buffer),fp ); int size=10; fwrite( &size ,sizeof size,1, fp ); char data[] = "1234567890"; fwrite( data , 1, number[0], fp ); I see 4 "NULL" characters in the file when I open it instead of seeing an integer. Is that normal? The other problem I'm facing is reading that again from the file! The code I tried to read didn't work at all :( I tried it with "fread" but I'm not sure if I should use "fseek" with it or it just read the other character after it. Forgive me but I'm a beginner :(

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  • How can I qualify an autowired property with a variable from a config file using annotations?

    - by jiggy
    My specific problem is that I have configured two beans that implement the same interface and I have a third bean that has a property of that interface's type. I inject the property using a config property. So, assuming RemoteDataSource and LocalDataSource implement IDataSource and dao1 has a property of type IDataSource, my XML config might look like this: <bean id="datasource1" class="com.foo.RemoteDataSource"> <property name="url">${url}</property> </bean> <bean id="datasource2" class="com.foo.LocalDataSource"> <property name="path">${filepath}</property> </bean> <bean id="dao1" class="com.foo.MyDAO"> <property name="dataSource">${datasource}</property> </bean> With url, filepath and datasource being defined in an included properties file. We are now making a push for annotation-driven configuration and I'm not sure how to annotate my dao to put the data source configured in the property file. I want to do something like this, but it is evidently not allowed: @Autowired @Qualifier("${datasource}") public void setDataSource(IDataSource datasource) {...}

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  • Grails one-to-many mapping with joinTable

    - by intargc
    I have two domain-classes. One is a "Partner" the other is a "Customer". A customer can be a part of a Partner and a Partner can have 1 or more Customers: class Customer { Integer id String name static hasOne = [partner:Partner] static mapping = { partner joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'partner_id',key:'customer_id'] } } class Partner { Integer id static hasMany = [customers:Customer] static mapping = { customers joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'customer_id',key:'partner_id'] } } However, whenever I try to see if a customer is a part of a partner, like this: def customers = Customer.list() customers.each { if (it.partner) { println "Partner!" } } I get the following error: org.springframework.dao.InvalidDataAccessResourceUsageException: could not execute query; SQL [select this_.customer_id as customer1_162_0_, this_.company as company162_0_, this_.display_name as display3_162_0_, this_.parent_customer_id as parent4_162_0_, this_.partner_id as partner5_162_0_, this_.server_id as server6_162_0_, this_.status as status162_0_, this_.vertical_market as vertical8_162_0_ from Customer this_]; nested exception is org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not execute query It looks as if Grails is thinking partner_id is a part of the Customer query, and it's not... It is in the PartnerMap table, which is supposed to find the customer_id, then get the Partner from the corresponding partner_id. Anyone have any clue what I'm doing wrong? Edit: I forgot to mention I'm doing this with legacy database tables. So I have a Partner, Customer and PartnerMap table. PartnerMap has simply a customer_id and partner_id field.

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  • Checking if a function has C-linkage at compile-time

    - by scjohnno
    Is there any way to check if a given function is declared with C-linkage (that is, with extern "C") at compile-time? I am developing a plugin system. Each plugin can supply factory functions to the plugin-loading code. However, this has to be done via name (and subsequent use of GetProcAddress or dlsym). This requires that the functions be declared with C-linkage so as to prevent name-mangling. It would be nice to be able to throw a compiler error if the referred-to function is declared with C++-linkage (as opposed to finding out at runtime when a function with that name does not exist). Here's a simplified example of what I mean: extern "C" void my_func() { } void my_other_func() { } // Replace this struct with one that actually works template<typename T> struct is_c_linkage { static const bool value = true; }; template<typename T> void assertCLinkage(T *func) { static_assert(is_c_linkage<T>::value, "Supplied function does not have C-linkage"); } int main() { assertCLinkage(my_func); // Should compile assertCLinkage(my_other_func); // Should NOT compile } Thanks.

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  • If Key Value pair exists in multidimensional array.. How to?

    - by Daniel White
    I have a codeigniter shopping cart going and its "cart" array is the following: Array ( [a87ff679a2f3e71d9181a67b7542122c] => Array ( [rowid] => a87ff679a2f3e71d9181a67b7542122c [id] => 4 [qty] => 1 [price] => 12.95 [name] => Maroon Choir Stole [image] => 2353463627maroon_3.jpg [custprod] => 0 [subtotal] => 12.95 ) [8f14e45fceea167a5a36dedd4bea2543] => Array ( [rowid] => 8f14e45fceea167a5a36dedd4bea2543 [id] => 7 [qty] => 1 [price] => 12.95 [name] => Shiny Red Choir Stole [image] => 2899638984red_vstole_1.jpg [custprod] => 0 [subtotal] => 12.95 ) [eccbc87e4b5ce2fe28308fd9f2a7baf3] => Array ( [rowid] => eccbc87e4b5ce2fe28308fd9f2a7baf3 [id] => 3 [qty] => 1 [price] => 14.95 [name] => Royal Blue Choir Stole [image] => 1270984005royal_vstole.jpg [custprod] => 1 [subtotal] => 14.95 ) ) My goal is to loop through this multidimensional array some how and if ANY product with the key value pair "custprod == 1" exists, then my checkout page will display one thing, and if no custom products are in the cart it displays another thing. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Preloading data without messing up association when data is loaded the 2nd time.

    - by denniss
    This is how my model looks like User belongs_to :computer Computer has_many :user Users are created when people register for an account on the web site but computers are pre-loaded data that I create in seeds.rb/some .rake file. All is fine and good when the app is first launched and people start registering and get associated with the right computer_id. However, suppose I want to add another computer to the list Computer.destroy_all Computer.create({:name => "Akane"}) Computer.create({:name => "Yoda"}) Computer.create({:name => "Mojito"}) #newly added running the rakefile the second time around will mess up the associations because computer_id in the User table refer to the old id in Computer table. Since I have run the script above, the id keeps incrementing without any regard to the association that user has to it. Question: Is there a better way for me to pre-load data without screwing up my association? I want to be able to add new Computer without having to destroy the user's table. Destroying the computer table is fine with me and rebuilding it again but the old association that the existing users have must stay intact.

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  • How to access web.config connection string in C#?

    - by salvationishere
    I have a 32-bit XP running VS 2008 and I am trying to decrypt my connection string from my web.config file in my C# ASPX file. Even though there are no errors returned, my current connection string doesn't display contents of my selected AdventureWorks stored procedure. I entered it: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC>Aspnet_regiis.exe -pe "connectionStrings" -app "/AddFileToSQL2" Then it said "Succeeded". And my web.config section looks like: <connectionStrings> <add name="Master" connectionString="server=MSSQLSERVER;database=Master; Integrated Security=SSPI" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString2" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Persist Security Info=true; " providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> And my C# code behind looks like: string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AdventureWorksConnectionString2"].ConnectionString; Is there something wrong with the connection string in the web.config or C# code behind file?

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  • Problem with multiple checkbox

    - by Pushpendra
    I am using a checkbox that has the name selectedids[], and I am trying to select all checkbox with the JavaScript but the code is not working. However, when I change the name of checkbox to selectedids it works but I can't do so because I need all the ids that are selected on the POSTED page. The checkbox is as follow. foreach($rows as $row) { <input type="checkbox" name="selectedids[]" value="<?php echo $row['id']; ?>" class="checkbox" /> ........ ........ } And the Java-script function is as follow function SetAllCheckBoxes(CheckValue) { var CheckValue=true; if(!document.forms['main']) return; var objCheckBoxes = document.forms['main'].elements['selectedids[]']; if(!objCheckBoxes) return; var countCheckBoxes = objCheckBoxes.length; if(!countCheckBoxes) objCheckBoxes.checked = CheckValue; else // set the check value for all check boxes for(var i = 0; i < countCheckBoxes; i++) objCheckBoxes[i].checked = CheckValue; } Please help me. Thanks in advance..

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  • C++ AI Design Question

    - by disney
    Hi, I am currently writing a bot for a MMORPG. Though, currently I am stuck at trying to figure out how to nicely implement this. The design problem is related to casting the character spells in the correct order. Here is a simple example to what I need to archieve. It's not related to casting them, but doing it in the correct order. I would know how simply cast them randomly, by checking which skill has not yet been casted, but in right order as being shown in the GUI, not really. note: the skill amount may differ, it's not always 3, maximum 10 though. Charactername < foobar has 3 skills. Skill 1: Name ( random1 ) cooldown ( 1000 ms ) cast duration ( 500 ms ) Skill 2: Name ( random2 ) cooldown ( 1500 ms ) cast duration ( 700 ms ) Skill 3: Name ( random3 ) cooldown ( 2000 ms ) cast duration ( 900 ms ) I don't really know how I could implement this, if anyone has some thoughts, feel free to share. I do know that most of the people don't like the idea of cheating in games, I don't like it either, nor I am actually playing the game, but its an interesting field for me. Thank you.

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  • How can I identify an element from a list within another list

    - by Alex
    I have been trying to make a block of code that finds the index of the largest bid for each item. Then I was going to use the index as a way to identify the person who paid that much moneys name. However no matter what i try I can't link the person and what they have gained from the auction together. Here is the code I have been writing: It has to be able to work with any information inputted def sealedBids(): n = int(input('\nHow many people are in the group? ')) z = 0 g = [] s = [] b = [] f = [] w = []#goes by number of items q = [] while z < n: b.append([]) z = z + 1 z = 0 while z < n: g.append(input('Enter a bidders name: ')) z = z + 1 z = 0 i = int(input('How many items are being bid on?')) while z < i: s.append(input('Enter the name of an item: ')) w.append(z) z = z + 1 z = 0 for j in range(n):#specifies which persons bids your taking for k in range(i):#specifies which item is being bid on b[j].append(int(input('How much money has {0} bid on the {1}? '.format(g[j], s[k])))) print(' ') for j in range(n):#calculates fair share f.append(sum(b[j])/n) for j in range(i):#identifies which quantity of money was the largest for each item for k in range(n): if w[j] < b[k][j]: w[j] = b[k][j] q.append(k) any advice is much appreciated.

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  • How to create a reference tables for collection classes using fluent nhibernate

    - by Akk
    How can i create a 3 table schema from the following model classes. public class Product { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public IList<Photo> Photos {get; set;} } public class Photo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Path {get; set;} } I want to create the following table structure in the database: Product ------- Id Name ProductPhotos ------------- ProductId (FK Products.Id) PhotoId (FK Photos.Id) Photos ------ Id Path How i can express the above Database Schema using Fluent NHibernate? I could only manage the following the Mapping but this does not get me the 3rd Photo ref table. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Table("Products"); HasMany(x => x.Photos).Table("ProductPhotos").KeyColumn("ProductId"); } }

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  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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  • Java program will read from database, but not write to it

    - by ck1221
    I have a Java program that successfully connects to a mysql database that is hosted on godaddy's server. I can read from that db with out issue, however, when I try to write to it with INSERT or UPDATE for example, the query does not execute. I am using the 'admin' account that I set up through godaddy, I realize this is not the root account. I have checked and verified that the connection is not read only, and have logged out of phpmyadmin while the query ran. I'm not sure what else I can try or if anyone has experienced this issue. Maybe a setting to the connection I have failed to set? Or maybe its not possible since the db is hosted on godaddy's servers? Any help is great! Thanks. Here is some relevant code: Connection to db: Connection con; public DBconnection(String url, String user, String pass) { try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); con = DriverManager.getConnection (url,user,pass); if(!con.isClosed()) System.out.println("connecton open"); } catch (InstantiationException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IllegalAccessException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (ClassNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} } Send Query: public ResultSet executeQuery(String query) { ResultSet rs = null; try { Statement stmt = (Statement) con.createStatement(); rs = stmt.executeQuery(query); //while(rs.next()) //System.out.println(rs.getString("ticket_num")); } catch (SQLException e) {} return rs; } Insert Query (works in phpmyadmin): conn.executeQuery("INSERT INTO tickets VALUES(55555,'12/01/2012','me','reports','test','','','0','Nope')");

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  • Importing package as a submodule

    - by wecac
    Hi, I have a package 3rd party open source package "foo"; that is in beta phase and I want to tweak it to my requirements. So I don't want to get it installed in /usr/local/lib/python or anywhere in current sys.path as I can't make frequent changes in top level packages. foo/ __init__.py fmod1.py import foo.mod2 fmod2.py pass I want to install the the package "foo" as a sub package of my namespace say "team.my_pkg". So that the "fullname" of the package becomes "team.my_pkg.foo" without changing the code in inner modules that refer "team.my_pkg.foo" as "foo". team/ __init__.py my_pkg/ __init__.py foo/ fmod1.py import foo.mod2 fmod2.py pass One way to do this is to do this in team.my_pkg.init.py: import os.path import sys sys.path.append(os.path.dirname(__file__)) But I think it is very unsafe. I hope there is some way that only fmod1.py and fmod2.py can call "foo" by its short name everything else should use its complete name "team.my_pkg.foo" I mean this should fail outside team/my_pkg/foo: import team.my_pkg import foo But this should succeed outside team/my_pkg/foo: import team.my_pkg.foo

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  • Getting Response From Jquery JSON

    - by Howdy_McGee
    I'm having trouble getting a response from my php jquery / json / ajax. I keep combining all these different tutorials together but I still can't seem to pull it all together since no one tutorial follow what I'm trying to do. Right now I'm trying to pass two arrays (since there's no easy way to pass associative arrays) to my jquery ajax function and just alert it out. Here's my code: PHP $names = array('john doe', 'jane doe'); $ids = array('123', '223'); $data['names'] = $names; $data['ids'] = $ids; echo json_encode($data); Jquery function getList(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'test.php', data: "", complete: function(data){ var test = jQuery.parseJSON(data); alert(test.names[0]); alert("here"); } }, "json"); } getList(); In my html file all I'm really calling is my javascript file for debugging purposes. I know i'm returning an object but I'm getting an error with null values in my names section, and i'm not sure why. What am I missing? My PHP file returns {"names":["john doe","jane doe"],"ids":["123","223"]} It seems to be just ending here Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property '0' of undefined so my sub0 is killing me.

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  • JavaScript, jQuery, XML - if statement not executing for unknown reason

    - by Jack Roscoe
    Hi, I have a 'for' loop which extracts data from an XML document and adds it into some JavaScript objects, each time the loop executes I want it to run a certain function depending on the value of the attribute 'typ' which is being retrieved from the xml. Currently, the data from the XML is successfully being parsed, which is proven by the first 'alert' you can see which produces the correct value. However, neither of the 'alert' lines in the 'if' statement lower down are being executed and as a result I cannot test the 'ctyp3' function which is supposed to be called. Where have I gone wrong? for (j=0; j<arrayIds.length; j++) { $(xml).find("C[ID='" + arrayIds[j] + "']").each(function(){ // pass values questions[j] = { typ: $(this).attr('typ'), width: $(this).find("I").attr('wid'), height: $(this).find("I").attr('hei'), x: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), y: $(this).find("I").attr('x'), baC: $(this).find("I").attr('baC'), boC: $(this).find("I").attr('boC'), boW: $(this).find("I").attr('boW') } alert($(this).attr('typ')); if ($(this).attr('typ') == '3') { ctyp3(x,y,width,height,baC); alert('pass'); } else { // Add here alert('fail'); } }); }

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  • Javascript (using jQuery) in a large Project... organization, passing data, private method, etc.

    - by gaoshan88
    I'm working on a large project that is organized like so: Multiple javascript files are included as needed and most code is wrapped in anonymous functions... // wutang.js //Included Files Go Here // Public stuff var MethodMan; // Private stuff (function() { var someVar1; MethodMan = function(){...}; var APrivateMethod = function(){...}; $(function(){ //jquery page load stuff here $('#meh').click(APrivateMethod); }); })(); I'm wondering about a few things here. Assuming that there are a number of these files included on a page, what has access to what and what is the best way to pass data between the files? For example, I assume that MethodMan() can be accessed by anything on any included page. It is public, yes? var someVar1 is only accessible to the methods inside that particular anonymous function and nowhere else, yes? Also true of var APrivateMethod(), yes? What if I want APrivateMethod() to make something available to some other method in a different anonymous wrapped method in a different included page. What's the best way to pass data between these private, anonymous functions on different included pages? Do I simply have to make whatever I want to use between them public? How about if I want to minimize global variables? What about the following: var PootyTang = function(){ someVar1 = $('#someid').text(); //some stuff }; and in another included file used by that same page I have: var TangyPoot = function(){ someVar1 = $('#someid').text(); //some completely different stuff }; What's the best way to share the value of someVar1 across these anonymous (they are wrapped as the first example) functions?

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  • Can I have two names for the same variable?

    - by Roman
    The short version of the question: I do: x = y. Then I change x, and y is unchanged. What I want is to "bind" x and y in such a way that I change y whenever I change x. The extended version (with some details): I wrote a class ("first" class) which generates objects of another class ("second" class). In more details, every object of the second class has a name as a unique identifier. I call a static method of the first class with a name of the object from the second class. The first class checks if such an object was already generated (if it is present in the static HashMap of the first class). If it is already there, it is returned. If it is not yet there, it is created, added to the HashMap and returned. And then I have the following problem. At some stage of my program, I take an object with a specific name from the HashMap of the first class. I do something with this object (for example change values of some fields). But the object in the HashMap does not see these changes! So, in fact, I do not "take" an object from the HashMap, I "create a copy" of this object and this is what I would like to avoid.

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  • [jQuery] What would be the best way to perform a basic CRUD using AJAX

    - by rasouza
    I'm having trouble to make a simple CRUD in my site. I have a table of registries <table> <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a **href="<?php echo $this->baseUrl(); ?>/history/delete/id/<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>"** class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> which I would like to perform a simple delete in these rows using AJAX (preferenciably with jQuery). The question is: do I have to create a function in JS and add onmouseclick event in the HTML? is there a more consistent way for doing this, like adding $('.delete').click() directly in the js file? If so, how do I pass the row ID for the ajax function? What I really want is to know how to pass the row ID to $.ajax() jQuery function through a clean! way

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  • EF 4.0 Guid or Int as A primary Key

    - by bigb
    I am Implementing custom ASPNetMembership using EF 4.0 Is there any reason why i should use Guid as a primary key in User tables? As far as i know Int as a PK on SQL Server more performanced than strings. And Int is easier to iterate. Also, for security purpose if i need to pass this it id somewhere in url i may encrypt it somehow and pass it like a strings with no probs. But if i want to use auto generated Guid on SQL Server side using EF 4.0 i need to do this trick http://leedumond.com/blog/using-a-guid-as-an-entitykey-in-entity-framework-4/ I can't see any cases why i should use Guid as PK, may be only one if system going to have millions ans millions users, but also, theoretically, Guid could be duplicated sometime isn't so? Anyway Int32 size is 2,147.483.647 it is pretty much even for very-very big system, but if this number is still not enough I may go with Int64, in that cases I may have 9,223.372.036.854.775.807 rows. Pretty much huh? From another hand, M$ using Guids as PK in their ASPNetMembership implementation. [aspnetdb].[aspnet_Users] - PK UserId Type uniqueidentifier, should be some reasons/explanation why the did it?! May be some one has any ideas/experience about that?

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