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  • Yet another Ant + JUnit classpath problem

    - by user337591
    Hi, I'm developing an Eclipse SWT application using Eclipse. There are also some JUnit 4 tests, which test some DAO's. But when I try to run the tests via an ant build, all of the tests fail, because the test classes aren't found. Google brought up about a million of people who all have the same problem, but none of their solutions seem to work for me -.- . These are the contents of my build.xml file: <property name="test.reports" value="./test/reports" /> <property name="classes" value="build" /> <path id="project.classpath"> <pathelement location="${classes}" /> </path> <target name="testreport"> <mkdir dir="${test.reports}" /> <junit fork="yes" printsummary="no" haltonfailure="no"> <batchtest fork="yes" todir="${test.reports}" > <fileset dir="${classes}"> <include name="**/Test*.class" /> </fileset> </batchtest> <formatter type="xml" /> <classpath refid="project.classpath" /> </junit> <junitreport todir="${test.reports}"> <fileset dir="${test.reports}"> <include name="TEST-*.xml" /> </fileset> <report todir="${test.reports}" /> </junitreport> </target> The test classes are in the build-directory together with the application classes, although they are in some subfolders according to their packages. Maybe this is important too: At first Ant complained that JUnit wasn't in its classpath, but since I put it there (with the eclipse configuration editor) it complains about JUnit being in its classpath twice. WARNING: multiple versions of ant detected in path for junit [junit] jar:file:C:/Users/as df/Documents/eclipse/plugins/org.apache.ant_1.7.1.v20090120-1145/lib/ant.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/Project.class [junit] and jar:file:/C:/Users/as%20df/Documents/eclipse/plugins/org.apache.ant_1.7.1.v20090120-1145/lib/ant.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/Project.class I've tried specifying each and every subdirectory, each and every class file, I've tried filesets and filelists, nothing seems to work. Thanks for your help, I've been sitting for hours on this thing now...

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • Calling 32 bit unmanaged dlls from C# randomly failing

    - by Bert
    Hi, I'm having an issue when calling 32 bit delphi dll's from c# web site. The code generally runs fine, but occasionally I get an error Unable to load DLL '': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). This issue persists until I recycle the app pool for the site, and then it works fine again. On the same server, there is also a web service that is calling the same set of dlls. This web service doesn't seem to have the same issue that the web site has. Both applications are using .net framework 3.5, separate app pools on IIS. Here is the code I'm using to wrap the dlls: public sealed class Mapper { static Mapper instance = null; [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] private static extern bool SetDllDirectory(string lpPathName); private Mapper() { SetDllDirectory(ConfigManager.Path); } public static Mapper Instance { get { if (instance == null) { instance = new Mapper(); } return instance; } } public int Foo(string bar, ref double val) { return Loader.Foo(bar, ref val); } } public static class Loader { [DllImport("some.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint = "foo")] public static extern int Foo(string bar, ref double val); } Then I call it like this: double val = 0.0; Mapper.Instance.Foo("bar", ref val); Any ideas as to why it would "randomly" Unable to load DLL '': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). The other problem is that I haven't been able to replicate the issue in the development environment. I thought that due to 2 applications calling the same dlls, that there could be some locks occurring. To replicate this, I created an app that spawned multiple threads and repeatedly called the 32bit dlls, and then used the web site to call these same dlls. I still couldn't replicate the issue. Some possible fixes that I can think of: Wrap the 32 bit dlls in web service (because the webservice doesn't seem to suffer from the same problem). But this may be worthless if it turns out that the web service also fails. Set up state server for the session state and periodically recycle the app pool for the site.This isn't fixing the problem, only avoiding it. Wrap the dll's in exe, and call that exe. Then I shouldn't get the same issue. But this also seems like a hacky solution. Implement the mapper class differently ? But how else should I be doing the call? The other draw back is that other applications are using this mapper, so I'd need to change there code too. Thanks

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  • Zero code coverage with cobertura 1.9.2 but tests are working

    - by eraonel
    I run the code coverage target: <junit fork="yes" dir="${basedir}" failureProperty="test.failed"> <!-- Note the classpath order: instrumented classes are before the original (uninstrumented) classes. This is important. --> <classpath path="${instrumented.dir}" /> <classpath path="${classes.dir}" /> <classpath refid="classpath" /> <!-- The instrumented classes reference classes used by the Cobertura runtime, so Cobertura and its dependencies must be on your classpath. --> <classpath refid="cobertura.classpath" /> <formatter type="xml" /> <!--<test name="${testcase}" todir="${reports.xml.dir}" if="testcase" />--> <batchtest fork="yes" todir="${reports.xml.dir}"> <fileset dir="${classes.dir}"> <include name="**/generated/AllTests.class" /> </fileset> </batchtest> </junit> <junitreport todir="${reports.xml.dir}"> <fileset dir="${reports.xml.dir}"> <include name="TEST-*.xml" /> </fileset> <report format="frames" todir="${reports.html.dir}" /> </junitreport> Then I get the following output ( when using fork="true"): java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:585) at net.sourceforge.cobertura.util.FileLocker.lock(FileLocker.java:124) at net.sourceforge.cobertura.coveragedata.ProjectData.saveGlobalProjectData(ProjectData.java:331) at net.sourceforge.cobertura.coveragedata.SaveTimer.run(SaveTimer.java:31) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) Caused by: java.io.IOException: No locks available at sun.nio.ch.FileChannelImpl.lock0(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.FileChannelImpl.lock(FileChannelImpl.java:784) at java.nio.channels.FileChannel.lock(FileChannel.java:865) ... 8 more --------------------------------------- Unable to get lock on /vobs/rnc/rrt/roam2/roamSs/RoamMao_swb/RoamMao_bldu/ant_build/cobertura.ser.lock: null This is known to happen on Linux kernel 2.6.20. Make sure cobertura.jar is in the root classpath of the jvm process running the instrumented code. If the instrumented code is running in a web server, this means cobertura.jar should be in the web server's lib directory. Don't put multiple copies of cobertura.jar in different WEB-INF/lib directories. Only one classloader should load cobertura. It should be the root classloader. I am using Ant 1.7.0 and cobertura 1.9.2. Any ideas why there is no coverage? Test run ok as I see in my target. I have tried to switch java versions ( 1.5.0_06 and 1.6.0_10) but no difference.

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  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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  • Consolidating coding styles: Funcs, private method, single method classes

    - by jdoig
    Hi all, We currently have 3 devs with, some, conflicting styles and I'm looking for a way to bring peace to the kingdom... The Coders: Foo 1: Likes to use Func's & Action's inside public methods. He uses actions to alias off lengthy method calls and Func's to perform simple tasks that can be expressed in 1 or 2 lines and will be used frequently through out the code Pros: The main body of his code is succinct and very readable, often with only one or 2 public methods per class and rarely any private methods. Cons: The start of methods contain blocks of lambda rich code that other developers don't enjoy reading; and, on occasion, can contain higher order functions that other dev's REALLY don't like reading. Foo 2: Likes to create a private method for (almost) everything the public method will have to do . Pros: Public methods remain small and readable (to all developers). Cons: Private methods are numerous. With private methods that call into other private methods, that call into... etc, etc. Making code hard to navigate. Foo 3: Likes to create a public class with a, single, public method for every, non-trivial, task that needs performing, then dependency inject them into other objects. Pros: Easily testable, easy to understand (one object, one responsibility). Cons: project gets littered by classes, opening multiple class files to understand what code does makes navigation awkward. It would be great to take the best of all these techniques... Foo-1 Has really nice, readable (almost dsl-like) code... for the most part, except for all the Action and Func lambda shenanigans bulked together at the start of a method. Foo-3 Has highly testable and extensible code that just feels a bit "belt-&-braces" for some solutions and has some code-navigation niggles (constantly hitting F12 in VS and opening 5 other .cs files to find out what a single method does). And Foo-2... Well I'm not sure I like anything about the one-huge .cs file with 2 public methods and 12 private ones, except for the fact it's easier for juniors to dig into. I admit I grossly over-simplified the explanations of those coding styles; but if any one knows of any patterns, practices or diplomatic-manoeuvres that can help unite our three developers (without just telling any of them to just "stop it!") that would be great. From a feasibility standpoint : Foo-1's style meets with the most resistance due to some developers finding lambda and/or Func's hard to read. Foo-2's style meets with a less resistance as it's just so easy to fall into. Foo-3's style requires the most forward thinking and is difficult to enforce when time is short. Any ideas on some coding styles or conventions that can make this work?

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  • Timer in a Windows service - not really working?

    - by marc_s
    I have a Windows NT Service in C# which basically wakes up every x seconds, checks to see if any mail notifications need to be sent out, and then goes back to sleep. It looks something like this (the Timer class is from the System.Threading namespace): public partial class MyService : ServiceBase { private Timer _timer; private int _timeIntervalBetweenRuns = 10000; public MyService() { InitializeComponent(); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { // when NT Service starts - create timer to wake up every 10 seconds _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, Timeout.Infinite); } protected override void OnStop() { // on stop - stop timer by freeing it _timer = null; } private void OnTimer(object state) { // when the timer fires, e.g. when 10 seconds are over // stop the timer from firing again by freeing it _timer = null; // check for mail and sent out notifications, if required - works just fine MailHandler handler = new MailHandler(); handler.CheckAndSendMail(); // once done, re-enable the timer by creating it from scratch _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns); } } Sending the mail and all works just fine, and the service also wakes up every 10 seconds (in reality, this is a setting from a config file - simplified for this example). However, at times, the service seems to wake up too quickly.... 2010-04-09 22:50:16.390 2010-04-09 22:50:26.460 2010-04-09 22:50:36.483 2010-04-09 22:50:46.500 2010-04-09 22:50:46.537 ** why again after just 37 milliseconds...... ?? 2010-04-09 22:50:56.507 Works fine to 22:50:45.500 - why does it log another entry just 37 milliseconds later?? Here, it seems it's totally out of whack.... seems to wake up twice or even three times every time 10 seconds are over.... 2010-04-09 22:51:16.527 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 Any ideas why?? It's not a huge problem, but I'm concerned it might start to put too much load on the server, if the interval I configure (10 seconds, 30 seconds - whatever) seems to be ignored more and more, the longer the service runs. Have I missed something very fundamental in my service code?? Am I ending up with multiple timers, or something?? I can't seem to really figure it out..... have I picked the wrong timer (System.Threading.Timer) ? There's at least 3 Timer classes in .NET - why?? :-)

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  • B-trees, databases, sequential inputs, and speed.

    - by IanC
    I know from experience that b-trees have awful performance when data is added to them sequentially (regardless of the direction). However, when data is added randomly, best performance is obtained. This is easy to demonstrate with the likes of an RB-Tree. Sequential writes cause a maximum number of tree balances to be performed. I know very few databases use binary trees, but rather used n-order balanced trees. I logically assume they suffer a similar fate to binary trees when it comes to sequential inputs. This sparked my curiosity. If this is so, then one could deduce that writing sequential IDs (such as in IDENTITY(1,1)) would cause multiple re-balances of the tree to occur. I have seen many posts argue against GUIDs as "these will cause random writes". I never use GUIDs, but it struck me that this "bad" point was in fact a good point. So I decided to test it. Here is my code: SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[T1]( [ID] [int] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [T1_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC) ) GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[T2]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [T2_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC) ) GO declare @i int, @t1 datetime, @t2 datetime, @t3 datetime, @c char(300) set @t1 = GETDATE() set @i = 1 while @i < 2000 begin insert into T2 values (NEWID(), @c) set @i = @i + 1 end set @t2 = GETDATE() WAITFOR delay '0:0:10' set @t3 = GETDATE() set @i = 1 while @i < 2000 begin insert into T1 values (@i, @c) set @i = @i + 1 end select DATEDIFF(ms, @t1, @t2) AS [Int], DATEDIFF(ms, @t3, getdate()) AS [GUID] drop table T1 drop table T2 Note that I am not subtracting any time for the creation of the GUID nor for the considerably extra size of the row. The results on my machine were as follows: Int: 17,340 ms GUID: 6,746 ms This means that in this test, random inserts of 16 bytes was almost 3 times faster than sequential inserts of 4 bytes. Would anyone like to comment on this? Ps. I get that this isn't a question. It's an invite to discussion, and that is relevant to learning optimum programming.

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  • How to set and get the id for the items in the spinner in Android

    - by Haresh Chaudhary
    I have a problem in my project that i am displaying a activity which would contain the details of the project which is previously added in Project Management System.. Now the fields in it are like: Fields of the Activity Name Of Project: ABC(EditText) Name Of Developer : ________(Spinner) Deadline : ________(Date Picker) Created On : _______(TextView) . . Now, the Spinner contains the Names of all developers working in the Company..I have used the ArrayAdapter with a array having the names of all the developers which is fetched from the database.. The problem is that when i update the Name Of Developer field, i get Only the Name of the Developer which is not enough to update the data as their can be multiple developers with the same name in the Company..So now I require the id of the developers to update it.. How to store that id of the developers with the Spinner so that i can achieve this.. Please help me to sort this out. Actually what i want to do like is as that we do in html:: <select> <option id="1">Developer1</option> <option id="2">Developer2</option> <option id="3">Developer2</option> <option id="4">Developer2</option> </select> where the id attached would be the database id....I want to imitate this in our android.... This the code that i have used to store the names in the array:: String alldevelopers = null; try { ArrayList<NameValuePair> postP = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(); alldevelopers = CustomHttpClient.executeHttpPost( "/fetchdevelopers.php", postP); String respcl = alldevelopers.toString(); alldevelopersParser dev = new alldevelopersParser(); ow = dev.parseByDOM(respcl); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } String developers[] = new String[ow.length]; //dev is a class object for (int n = 0; n < ow.length; n++) { developers[n] = ow.developer[n][2]; } This is the Spinner that would spin the array.. final Spinner devl = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.towner); devl.setOnItemSelectedListener(managetasks.this); ArrayAdapter<String> b = new ArrayAdapter<String>getApplicationContext(), android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item,developers); b.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_dropdown_item_1line); devl.setAdapter(b);

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  • Disable button after submit

    - by Chris Philpotts
    I'm trying to disable a button when a user submits a payment form and the code to post the form is causing a double post in firefox. This problem does not occur when the code is removed, and does not occur in any browser other than firefox. Any idea how to prevent the double post here? System.Text.StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function') { "); sb.Append("if (Page_ClientValidate() == false) { return false; }} "); sb.Append("this.value = 'Please wait...';"); sb.Append("this.disabled = true;"); sb.Append(Page.GetPostBackEventReference(btnSubmit )); sb.Append(";"); btnSubmit.Attributes.Add("onclick", sb.ToString()); it's the sb.Append(Page.GetPostBackEventReference(btnSubmit )) line that's causing the issue Thanks EDIT: Here's the c# of the button: <asp:Button ID="cmdSubmit" runat="server" Text="Submit" /> here's the html This code posts twice (and disables the submit button and verifies input): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="if (typeof(Page_ClientValidate) == 'function') { if (Page_ClientValidate() == false) { return false; }} this.value = 'Please wait...';this.disabled = true;document.getElementById('ctl00_MainContent_cmdBack').disabled = true;__doPostBack('ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit','');" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts twice (but doesn’t disable the submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="__doPostBack('ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit','');" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts once (but doesn’t verify the user input and doesn’t disable the submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code posts once (but doesn’t disable submit button): <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> This code doesn’t post at all: <input type="submit" name="ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit" value="Submit" onclick="this.disabled = true;WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;ctl00$MainContent$cmdSubmit&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="ctl00_MainContent_cmdSubmit" /> Obviously it’s the disabling of the submit button that’s posing the problem. Do you have any ideas how we can disable the submit to avoid multiple clicking?

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  • Shortening jQuery Code by Replacing Variable

    - by Jerry
    I have a form with a bunch of dropdown options that I'm dressing up by allowing the option to be selected by clicking links and (in the future, images) instead of using the actual dropdown. There are a lot of dropdowns and most all will repeat the same basic idea, and some will literally repeat just with different variables. Here's the HTML for one of those. <tr class="box1"> <td> <select id="cimy_uef_7"> <option value="Boy">Boy</option> <option value="Girl">Girl</option> </select> </td> </tr> Then the corresponding fancier links to click that will select the corresponding option in the dropdown. <div id="genderBox1"> <div class="gender"><a class="boy" href="">Boy</a></div> <div class="gender"><a class="girl" href="">Girl</a></div> </div> So, when you click the link "Boy" it will select the corresponding dropdown value "Boy" There are going to be multiple Box#, so I can just repeat the jQuery each time with the new variables, but there's surely a shorter way. Here's the jQuery that makes it work. //Box1 Gender var Gender1 = $('select#cimy_uef_7'); var Boy1 = $("#genderBox1 .gender a.boy"); var Girl1 = $("#genderBox1 .gender a.girl"); //On Page Load - Check Gender Box 1 Selection and addClass to corresponding div a if ( $(Gender1).val() == "Boy" ) { $(Boy1).addClass("selected"); } else { $(Boy1).removeClass("selected"); } if ( $(Gender1).val() == "Girl" ) { $(Girl1).addClass("selected"); } else { $(Girl1).removeClass("selected"); } //On Click - Change Gender Box 1 select based on image click $(Boy1).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $(this).addClass("selected"); $(Gender1).val("Boy"); $(Girl1).removeClass("selected"); }); $(Girl1).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $(this).addClass("selected"); $(Gender1).val("Girl"); $(Boy1).removeClass("selected"); }); My thought for shortening it was to just have a list of variables for each box and cycle through the numbers- 1,2,3,4 and have the jQuery grab the same # for each variable, but I can't figure out a way to do it. Let me know if there's anything else I can provide to make the question better. This is my best idea for shortening this code, as I'm still very much a beginner at jQuery, but I'm positive there are much better ideas out there, so feel free to recommend a better path if you see it :)

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  • VBA Excel - Workbook_SheetChange

    - by user2947014
    Hopefully this question hasn't already been asked, I tried searching for an answer and couldn't find anything. This is probably a simple question, but I am writing my first macro in excel and am having a problem that I can't find out a solution to. I wrote a couple of macros that basically sum up columns dynamically (so that the number of rows can change and the formula moves down automatically) based on a value in another column of the same row, and I call those macros from the event Workbook_SheetChange. The problem I'm having is, I change a cell's value from my macro to display the result of the sum, and this then calls Workbook_SheetChange again, which I do not want. Right now it works, but I can trace it and see that Workbook_SheetChange is being called multiple times. This is preventing me from adding other cell changes to the macros, because then it results in an infinite loop. I want the macros to run every time a change is made to the sheet, but I don't see any way around allowing the macros to change a cell's value, so I don't know what to do. I will paste my code below, in case it is helpful. Private Sub Workbook_SheetChange(ByVal Sh As Object, ByVal Target As Range) Dim Row As Long Dim Col As Long Row = Target.Row Col = Target.Column If Col <> 7 Then Range("G" & Row).Select Selection.Formula = "=IF(F" & Row & "=""Win"",E" & Row & ",IF(F" & Row & "=""Loss"",-D" & Row & ",0))" Target.Select End If Call SumRiskColumn End Sub Private Sub Workbook_SheetCalculate(ByVal Sh As Object) Call SumOutcomeColumn End Sub Sub SumOutcomeColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Cells(N + 1, "G").Formula = "=SUM(G2:G" & N & ")" End Sub Sub SumRiskColumn() Dim N As Long N = Cells(Rows.Count, "A").End(xlUp).Row Dim CurrTotalRisk As Long CurrTotalRisk = 0 For i = 2 To N If IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 6)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 1)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 2)) And Not IsEmpty(ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 3)) Then CurrTotalRisk = CurrTotalRisk + ActiveSheet.Cells(i, 4).Value End If Next i Cells(N + 1, "D").Value = CurrTotalRisk End Sub Thank you for any help you can give me! I really appreciate it.

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  • Calculating rotation and translation matrices between two odometry positions for monocular linear triangulation

    - by user1298891
    Recently I've been trying to implement a system to identify and triangulate the 3D position of an object in a robotic system. The general outline of the process goes as follows: Identify the object using SURF matching, from a set of "training" images to the actual live feed from the camera Move/rotate the robot a certain amount Identify the object using SURF again in this new view Now I have: a set of corresponding 2D points (same object from the two different views), two odometry locations (position + orientation), and camera intrinsics (focal length, principal point, etc.) since it's been calibrated beforehand, so I should be able to create the 2 projection matrices and triangulate using a basic linear triangulation method as in Hartley & Zissermann's book Multiple View Geometry, pg. 312. Solve the AX = 0 equation for each of the corresponding 2D points, then take the average In practice, the triangulation only works when there's almost no change in rotation; if the robot even rotates a slight bit while moving (due to e.g. wheel slippage) then the estimate is way off. This also applies for simulation. Since I can only post two hyperlinks, here's a link to a page with images from the simulation (on the map, the red square is simulated robot position and orientation, and the yellow square is estimated position of the object using linear triangulation.) So you can see that the estimate is thrown way off even by a little rotation, as in Position 2 on that page (that was 15 degrees; if I rotate it any more then the estimate is completely off the map), even in a simulated environment where a perfect calibration matrix is known. In a real environment when I actually move around with the robot, it's worse. There aren't any problems with obtaining point correspondences, nor with actually solving the AX = 0 equation once I compute the A matrix, so I figure it probably has to do with how I'm setting up the two camera projection matrices, specifically how I'm calculating the translation and rotation matrices from the position/orientation info I have relative to the world frame. How I'm doing that right now is: Rotation matrix is composed by creating a 1x3 matrix [0, (change in orientation angle), 0] and then converting that to a 3x3 one using OpenCV's Rodrigues function Translation matrix is composed by rotating the two points (start angle) degrees and then subtracting the final position from the initial position, in order to get the robot's straight and lateral movement relative to its starting orientation Which results in the first projection matrix being K [I | 0] and the second being K [R | T], with R and T calculated as described above. Is there anything I'm doing really wrong here? Or could it possibly be some other problem? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Variable lenght arguments in log4cxx LOG4CXX_ macros

    - by Horacio
    I am using log4cxx in a big C++ project but I really don't like how log4cxx handles multiple variables when logging: LOG4CXX_DEBUG(logger, "test " << var1 << " and " << var3 " and .....) I prefer using printf like variable length arguments: LOG4CXX_DEBUG(logger, "test %d and %d", var1, var3) So I implemented this small wrapper on top of log4cxx #include <string.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdarg.h> #include <log4cxx/logger.h> #include "log4cxx/basicconfigurator.h" const char * log_format(const char *fmt, ...); #define MYLOG_TRACE(logger, fmt, ...) LOG4CXX_TRACE(logger, log_format(fmt, ## __VA_ARGS__)) #define MYLOG_DEBUG(logger, fmt, ...) LOG4CXX_DEBUG(logger, log_format(fmt, ## __VA_ARGS__)) #define MYLOG_INFO(logger, fmt, ...) LOG4CXX_INFO(logger, log_format(fmt, ## __VA_ARGS__)) #define MYLOG_WARN(logger, fmt, ...) LOG4CXX_WARN(logger, log_format(fmt, ## __VA_ARGS__)) #define MYLOG_ERROR(logger, fmt, ...) LOG4CXX_ERROR(logger, log_format(fmt, ## __VA_ARGS__)) #define MYLOG_FATAL(logger, fmt, ...) LOG4CXX_FATAL(logger, log_format(fmt, ## __VA_ARGS__)) static log4cxx::LoggerPtr logger(log4cxx::Logger::getRootLogger()); int main(int argc, char **argv) { log4cxx::BasicConfigurator::configure(); MYLOG_INFO(logger, "Start "); MYLOG_WARN(logger, log_format("In running this in %d threads safe?", 1000)); MYLOG_INFO(logger, "End "); return 0; } const char *log_format(const char *fmt, ...) { va_list va; static char formatted[1024]; va_start(va, fmt); vsprintf(formatted, 1024, fmt, va); va_end(va); return formatted; } And this works perfectly but I know using that static variable (formatted) can become problematic if I start using threads and each thread logging to the same place. I am no expert in log4cxx so I was wondering if the LOG4CXX macros are handling concurrent thread access automatically? or do I have to implement some sort of locking around the log_format method? something that I wan't to avoid due to performance implications. Also I would like to ask why if I replace the vsprintf inside the log_format method with vsnprintf (that is more secure) then I get nothing printed? To compile and test this program (in Ubuntu) use : g++ -o loggertest loggertest.cpp -llog4cxx

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  • Merge Mutliple Excel Workbooks

    - by IRHM
    I wonder whether someone may be able to help me please. I'm trying to use the code below to allow the user to select multiple Excel Workbooks, amalgamating the data into one 'Summary' sheet. Sub Merge() Dim DestWB As Workbook, WB As Workbook, WS As Worksheet, SourceSheet As String Set DestWB = ActiveWorkbook SourceSheet = "Input" startrow = 7 FileNames = Application.GetOpenFilename( _ filefilter:="Excel Files (*.xls*),*.xls*", _ Title:="Select the workbooks to merge.", MultiSelect:=True) If IsArray(FileNames) = False Then If FileNames = False Then Exit Sub End If End If For n = LBound(FileNames) To UBound(FileNames) Set WB = Workbooks.Open(Filename:=FileNames(n), ReadOnly:=True) For Each WS In WB.Worksheets If WS.Name = SourceSheet Then With WS If .UsedRange.Cells.Count > 1 Then dr = DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row + 1 lastrow = .Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row For j = lastrow To startrow Step -1 Select Case .Range("E" & j).Value Case "Manager", "Lead", "Technical", "Analyst" 'do nothing Case Else .Rows(j).EntireRow.Delete End Select Next lastrow = .Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row If lastrow >= startrow Then .Range("B" & startrow & ":AD" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "B").PasteSpecial xlValues .Range("AF" & startrow & ":AQ" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "AF").PasteSpecial xlValues .Range("AS" & startrow & ":AS" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "AS").PasteSpecial xlValues End If End If End With Exit For End If Next WS WB.Close savechanges:=False Next n End Sub The code works fine except for one issue which I've been trying to solve for the last few weeks. The following line of code looks in column E of the Source file, and if any of the entries match the values shown in the code it copies that row of data to paste into the Destination file. If Range("E" & j) <> "Manager" And Range("E" & j) <> "Lead" And Range("E" & j) <> "Technical" And Range("E" & j) <> "Analyst" Then Rows(j).Delete The problem I have is that if none of these values are found in the Source file, I receive the following error: Run time error '1004': Delete method of range class failed and in Debug mode it highlights this part of the line as the source of the error, but I've no idea why. Rows(j).Delete I just wondered whether someone may be able to look at this please and let me know where I'm going wrong, or perhaps even suggest a more efficient process of allowing the user to merge the workbooks. Many thanks and kind regards

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  • Discovering a functional algorithm from a mutable one

    - by Garrett Rowe
    This isn't necessarily a Scala question, it's a design question that has to do with avoiding mutable state, functional thinking and that sort. It just happens that I'm using Scala. Given this set of requirements: Input comes from an essentially infinite stream of random numbers between 1 and 10 Final output is either SUCCEED or FAIL There can be multiple objects 'listening' to the stream at any particular time, and they can begin listening at different times so they all may have a different concept of the 'first' number; therefore listeners to the stream need to be decoupled from the stream itself. Pseudocode: if (first number == 1) SUCCEED else if (first number >= 9) FAIL else { first = first number rest = rest of stream for each (n in rest) { if (n == 1) FAIL else if (n == first) SUCCEED else continue } } Here is a possible mutable implementation: sealed trait Result case object Fail extends Result case object Succeed extends Result case object NoResult extends Result class StreamListener { private var target: Option[Int] = None def evaluate(n: Int): Result = target match { case None => if (n == 1) Succeed else if (n >= 9) Fail else { target = Some(n) NoResult } case Some(t) => if (n == t) Succeed else if (n == 1) Fail else NoResult } } This will work but smells to me. StreamListener.evaluate is not referentially transparent. And the use of the NoResult token just doesn't feel right. It does have the advantage though of being clear and easy to use/code. Besides there has to be a functional solution to this right? I've come up with 2 other possible options: Having evaluate return a (possibly new) StreamListener, but this means I would have to make Result a subtype of StreamListener which doesn't feel right. Letting evaluate take a Stream[Int] as a parameter and letting the StreamListener be in charge of consuming as much of the Stream as it needs to determine failure or success. The problem I see with this approach is that the class that registers the listeners should query each listener after each number is generated and take appropriate action immediately upon failure or success. With this approach, I don't see how that could happen since each listener is forcing evaluation of the Stream until it completes evaluation. There is no concept here of a single number generation. Is there any standard scala/fp idiom I'm overlooking here?

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  • Simaltaneous connections with PHP and SOAP?

    - by Dov
    I'm new to using SOAP and understanding the utmost basics of it. I create a client resource/connection, I then run some queries in a loop and I'm done. The issue I am having is when I increase the iterations of the loop, ie: from 100 to 1000, it seems to run out of memory and drops an internal server error. How could I possibly run either a) multiple simaltaneous connections or b) create a connection, 100 iterations, close connection, create connection.. etc. "a)" looks to be the better option but I have no clue as to how to get it up and running whilst keeping memory (I assume opening and closing connections) at a minimum. Thanks in advance! index.php <?php // set loops to 0 $loops = 0; // connection credentials and settings $location = 'https://theconsole.com/'; $wsdl = $location.'?wsdl'; $username = 'user'; $password = 'pass'; // include the console and client classes include "class_console.php"; include "class_client.php"; // create a client resource / connection $client = new Client($location, $wsdl, $username, $password); while ($loops <= 100) { $dostuff; } ?> class_console.php <?php class Console { // the connection resource private $connection = NULL; /** * When this object is instantiated a connection will be made to the console */ public function __construct($location, $wsdl, $username, $password, $proxyHost = NULL, $proxyPort = NULL) { if(is_null($proxyHost) || is_null($proxyPort)) $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password)); else $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password, 'proxy_host' => $proxyHost, 'proxy_port' => $proxyPort)); $connection->__setLocation($location); $this->connection = $connection; return $this->connection; } /** * Will print any type of data to screen, where supported by print_r * * @param $var - The data to print to screen * @return $this->connection - The connection resource **/ public function screen($var) { print '<pre>'; print_r($var); print '</pre>'; return $this->connection; } /** * Returns a server / connection resource * * @return $this->connection - The connection resource */ public function srv() { return $this->connection; } } ?>

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • Insane CPU usage in QT 5.0

    - by GravityScore
    I'm having trouble using the QT framework, particularly with the paintEvent of QWidget. I have a QWidget set up, and am overriding the paintEvent of it. I need to render a bunch of rectangles (grid system), 51 by 19, leading to 969 rectangles being drawn. This is done in a for loop. Then I also need to draw an image on each on of these grids. The QWidget is added to a QMainWindow, which is shown. This works nicely, but it's using up 47% of CPU per window open! And I want to allow the user to open multiple windows like this, likey having 3-4 open at a time, which puts the CPU close to 150%. Why does this happen? Here is the paintEvent contents. The JNI calls don't cause the CPU usage, commenting them out doesn't lower it, but commenting out the p.fillRect and Renderer::renderString (which draws the image) lowers the CPU to about 5%. // Background QPainter p(this); p.fillRect(0, 0, this->width(), this->height(), QBrush(QColor(0, 0, 0))); // Lines for (int y = 0; y < Global::terminalHeight; y++) { // Line and color method ID jmethodID lineid = Manager::jenv->GetMethodID(this->javaClass, "getLine", "(I)Ljava/lang/String;"); error(); jmethodID colorid = Manager::jenv->GetMethodID(this->javaClass, "getColorLine", "(I)Ljava/lang/String;"); error(); // Values jstring jl = (jstring) Manager::jenv->CallObjectMethod(this->javaObject, lineid, jint(y)); error(); jstring cjl = (jstring) Manager::jenv->CallObjectMethod(this->javaObject, colorid, jint(y)); error(); // Convert to C values const char *l = Manager::jenv->GetStringUTFChars(jl, 0); const char *cl = Manager::jenv->GetStringUTFChars(cjl, 0); QString line = QString(l); QString color = QString(cl); // Render line for (int x = 0; x < Global::terminalWidth; x++) { QColor bg = Renderer::colorForHex(color.mid(x + color.length() / 2, 1)); // Cell location on widget int cellx = x * Global::cellWidth + Global::xoffset; int celly = y * Global::cellHeight + Global::yoffset; // Background p.fillRect(cellx, celly, Global::cellWidth, Global::cellHeight, QBrush(bg)); // String // Renders the image to the grid Renderer::renderString(p, tc, text, cellx, celly); } // Release Manager::jenv->ReleaseStringUTFChars(jl, l); Manager::jenv->ReleaseStringUTFChars(cjl, cl); }

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  • polymorphism, inheritance in c# - base class calling overridden method?

    - by Andrew Johns
    This code doesn't work, but hopefully you'll get what I'm trying to achieve here. I've got a Money class, which I've taken from http://www.noticeablydifferent.com/CodeSamples/Money.aspx, and extended it a little to include currency conversion. The implementation for the actual conversion rate could be different in each project, so I decided to move the actual method for retrieving a conversion rate (GetCurrencyConversionRate) into a derived class, but the ConvertTo method contains code that would work for any implementation assuming the derived class has overriden GetCurrencyConversionRate so it made sense to me to keep it in the parent class? So what I'm trying to do is get an instance of SubMoney, and be able to call the .ConvertTo() method, which would in turn use the overriden GetCurrencyConversionRate, and return a new instance of SubMoney. The problem is, I'm not really understanding some concepts of polymorphism and inheritance yet, so not quite sure what I'm trying to do is even possible in the way I think it is, as what is currently happening is that I end up with an Exception where it has used the base GetCurrencyConversionRate method instead of the derived one. Something tells me I need to move the ConvertTo method down to the derived class, but this seems like I'll be duplicating code in multiple implementations, so surely there's a better way? public class Money { public CurrencyConversionRate { get { return GetCurrencyConversionRate(_regionInfo.ISOCurrencySymbol); } } public static decimal GetCurrencyConversionRate(string isoCurrencySymbol) { throw new Exception("Must override this method if you wish to use it."); } public Money ConvertTo(string cultureName) { // convert to base USD first by dividing current amount by it's exchange rate. Money someMoney = this; decimal conversionRate = this.CurrencyConversionRate; decimal convertedUSDAmount = Money.Divide(someMoney, conversionRate).Amount; // now convert to new currency CultureInfo cultureInfo = new CultureInfo(cultureName); RegionInfo regionInfo = new RegionInfo(cultureInfo.LCID); conversionRate = GetCurrencyConversionRate(regionInfo.ISOCurrencySymbol); decimal convertedAmount = convertedUSDAmount * conversionRate; Money convertedMoney = new Money(convertedAmount, cultureName); return convertedMoney; } } public class SubMoney { public SubMoney(decimal amount, string cultureName) : base(amount, cultureName) {} public static new decimal GetCurrencyConversionRate(string isoCurrencySymbol) { // This would get the conversion rate from some web or database source decimal result = new Decimal(2); return result; } }

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  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

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  • What is a proper way to store site-level global variables in a SharePoint site?

    - by ccomet
    One thing that has driven me nuts about SharePoint2007 is the apparent inability to have defineable settings that apply specifically to a site or site collection itself, and not the content. I mean, you have some pre-defined settings like the Site Logo, the Site Name, and various other things, but there doesn't appear to be anywhere to add new kinds of settings. The application I am working on needs to be able to create multiple kinds of "project site collections" that all follow a basic template, but have certain additional settings that apply specifically to that site collection and that one alone. In addition to the standard site name we also need to define the Project Number, the Project Name, and the Client Name. And given the requests of some of our clients, we also reach a point where we have to have configurable settings that alter how some of the workflows work, like whether files are marked with Letters or Numbers. Our current solution, which I'm hesitant about, has been to store an XML file on the SharePoint server. This file contains one node for each site collection, identified by the URL of the root site. Inside the node are all of the elements that need to be defined for that site collection. When we need them, we have to access the XML file (which will always require SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to access files right on the server) every time to load it and retrieve the data. There are a lot of automated processes which will have to do this, and I'm hesitant about the stability of this method when we reach hundreds of sites with thousands of files running tens of thousands of workflows, all wanting to access this file. Maybe they're unfounded worries, but I'd rather worry than risk everything breaking in a couple years. I was looking into the SPWeb object and found the AllProperties hashtable. It looks like just the kind of thing which might work, but I don't know how safe it is to be modifying this. I read through both MSDN and the WSS SDK but found nothing that clarified on adding completely new properties into AllProperties. Is it safe to use AllProperties for this kind of thing? Or is there yet another feature that I am missing, which could handle the concept of global variables at the site collection or site scope?

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  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

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  • If array is thread safe, what the issue with this function?

    - by Ajay Sharma
    I am totally lost with the things that is happening with my code.It make me to think & get clear with Array's thread Safe concept. Is NSMutableArray OR NSMutableDictionary Thread Safe ? While my code is under execution, the values for the MainArray get's changes although, that has been added to Array. Please try to execute this code, onyour system its very much easy.I am not able to get out of this Trap. It is the function where it is returning Array. What I am Looking to do is : -(Array) (Main Array) --(Dictionary) with Key Value (Multiple Dictionary in Main Array) ----- Above dictionary has 9 Arrays in it. This is the structure I am developing for Array.But even before #define TILE_ROWS 3 #define TILE_COLUMNS 3 #define TILE_COUNT (TILE_ROWS * TILE_COLUMNS) -(NSArray *)FillDataInArray:(int)counter { NSMutableArray *temprecord = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for(int i = 0; i <counter;i++) { if([temprecord count]<=TILE_COUNT) { NSMutableDictionary *d1 = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]init]; [d1 setValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d/2011",i+1] forKey:@"serial_data"]; [d1 setValue:@"Friday 13 Sep 12:00 AM" forKey:@"date_data"]; [d1 setValue:@"Description Details " forKey:@"details_data"]; [d1 setValue:@"Subject Line" forKey:@"subject_data"]; [temprecord addObject:d1]; d1= nil; [d1 release]; if([temprecord count]==TILE_COUNT) { NSMutableDictionary *holderKey = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:temprecord,[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[casesListArray count]+1],nil]; [self.casesListArray addObject:holderKey]; [holderKey release]; holderKey =nil; [temprecord removeAllObjects]; } } else { [temprecord removeAllObjects]; NSMutableDictionary *d1 = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]init]; [d1 setValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d/2011",i+1] forKey:@"serial_data"]; [d1 setValue:@"Friday 13 Sep 12:00 AM" forKey:@"date_data"]; [d1 setValue:@"Description Details " forKey:@"details_data"]; [d1 setValue:@"Subject Line" forKey:@"subject_data"]; [temprecord addObject:d1]; d1= nil; [d1 release]; } } return temprecord; [temprecord release]; } What is the problem with this Code ? Every time there are 9 records in Array, it just replaces the whole Array value instead of just for specific key Value.

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  • Flatten date range memberships retaining only the highest priority membership (TRANSACT-SQL)

    - by shadowranger
    Problem statement: A table contains an item_id, a category_id and a date range (begin_date and end_date). No item may be in more than one category on any given date (in general; during daily rebuilding it can be in an invalid state temporarily). By default, all items are added (and re-added if removed) to a category (derived from outside data) automatically on a daily basis, and their membership in that category matches the lifespan of the item (items have their own begin and end date, and usually spend their entire lives in the same category, which is why this matches). For items in category X, it is occasionally desirable to override the default category by adding them to category Y. Membership in category Y could entirely replace membership in category X (that is, the begin and end dates for membership in category Y would match the begin and end dates of the item itself), or it could override it for an arbitrary period of time (at the beginning, middle or end the item's lifespan, possibly overriding for short periods at multiple times). Membership in category Y is not renewed automatically and additions to that category is done by manual data entry. Every day, when category X is rebuilt, we get an overlap, where any item in category Y will now be in category X as well (which is forbidden, as noted previously). Goal: After each repopulation of category X (which is done in a rather complicated and fragile manner, and ideally would be left alone), I'm trying to find an efficient means of writing a stored procedure that: Identifies the overlaps Changes existing entries, adds new ones where necessary (such as in the case where an item starts in category X, switches to category Y, then eventually switches back to category X before ending), or removes entries (when an item is in category Y for its entire life) such that every item remains in category Y (and only Y) where specified, while category X membership is maintained when not overridden by category Y. Does not affect memberships of categories A, B, C, Z, etc., which do not have override categories and are built separately, by completely different rules. Note: It can be assumed that X membership covers the entire lifespan of the item before this procedure is called, so it is unnecessary to query any data outside this table. Bonus credit: If for some reason there are two adjacent or overlapping memberships in for the same item in category Y, stitching them together into a single entry is appreciated, but not necessary. Example: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20090628 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 X 20080201 20080731 2 Y 20080201 20080731 Should become: item_id category_id begin_date end_date 1 X 20080101 20081231 1 Y 20090101 20090131 1 X 20090201 20090531 1 Y 20090601 20090628 2 Y 20080201 20080731 If it matters, this needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2008

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