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• How do you fix issues with the debugger for the Android plug-in for Eclipse not attaching?

  - by user279112

  I have been trying to program something for the Android mobile phone, using Eclipse and the Android plug-in for that IDE, and my debugger used to attach just fine. But then it has suddenly started having consistent issues attaching. I just get that message about how the process is waiting for the debugger attach, and then it just won't. What determines whether the attachment glitches so seems to have something to do with what the code is that I'm trying to debug, as it seems to be drastically more of an issue with some versions of my code than with others (on the same app). How do I fix this? Now before you answer, please understand that I have researched this issue already. I have found a couple of solutions that have worked with other people, but which do not work for me. One of which is setting the debuggable property in the main manifest file as true, and the other is going into Dev Tools and into some settings menu, and from there selecting the process and essentially saying to the fake phone, "Debug this process". Neither has really worked. Any other ideas? And just in case...I've run into one blasted technical issue like this after another trying to program for that stupid phone. And I'm not the only one who's having these issues; when I go online to research these issues, it is always very easy for me to find many people who have the same issues, and who are having to use the shottiest, sloppiest, most "ghetto" solutions to work around these issues. I know that many people have created good applications for that phone, but I don't see how I'm supposed to do that when the SDK and the plug-in just don't work half the time. Does anybody know how I may put all this trash behind me, once and for all? Thanks for your answers to either question!

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• Potential g++ template bug?

  - by Evan Teran

  I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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• Create a strongly typed view which inherites a class which is concrete

  - by Ashwani K

  Hello All: I am having one class called BaseClass which contains some logic applicable to whole web site. In order to create a strongly typed view we need to inherit the page from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage generic class. But In our case I have to Inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage to apply some common settings, but the BaseClass should be inherited from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< generic version. But I cannot inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< as it will change other class also. So I created one more class of type BaseClass< inheriting it from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< and copied the whole code of BaseClass in BaseClass<. But the code in BaseClass is controlled by other team so it will be changed frequently so my BaseClass< should be in sync with BaseClass. Please help me in eliminating the code duplication or any other approach to make strongly typed View. Thanks Ashwani

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• What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

  - by Blair Holloway

  In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

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• PHP Uploadprogress extension function always returning null, with no upload data.

  - by abhinavlal

  I am using php 5.3.2 with uploadprogress extension to get a progressbar during upload using zend framework. Even the demo provided with zend is not working. code in zend example - if (isset($_GET['uploadId'])) { set_include_path(realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../../../library') . PATH_SEPARATOR . get_include_path()); require_once 'Zend/ProgressBar.php'; require_once 'Zend/ProgressBar/Adapter/JsPull.php'; require_once 'Zend/Session/Namespace.php'; $data = uploadprogress_get_info($_GET['uploadId']); $bytesTotal = ($data === null ? 0 : $data['bytes_total']); $bytesUploaded = ($data === null ? 0 : $data['bytes_uploaded']); $adapter = new Zend_ProgressBar_Adapter_JsPull(); $progressBar = new Zend_ProgressBar($adapter, 0, $bytesTotal, 'uploadProgress'); if ($bytesTotal === $bytesUploaded) { $progressBar->finish(); } else { $progressBar->update($bytesUploaded); } } uploadprogress_get_info always returns null. I thought something is wrong with my code so i downloaded the working sample available at http://labs.liip.ch/uploadprogresssimple/index.php but even in that case in uploadprogress_get_info always return null. My uploadprogress config values uploadprogress support enabled Version 1.0.1 uploadprogress.file.contents_template /tmp/upload_contents_%s uploadprogress.file.filename_template /tmp/upt_%s.txt uploadprogress.get_contents 1 While googling around i found uploadprogress extension has some issue with Suhosin Patch < 0.9.26 but i am using Suhosin Patch 0.9.9.1

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• Intellisense for custom config section problem with namespaces

  - by Quick Joe Smith

  I have just rolled a custom configuration section, created an accompanying schema document for Intellisense and added it to the Web.config's Schemas property as per Michael Stum's answer to another similar question. Unfortunately, and possibly due to me creating the XSD by hand with limited knowledge, the Intellisense relies on an xmlns attribute pointing to my XSD file's namespace being present in the custom config element. However, when running the project I get an Unrecognized attribute 'xmlns'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive error. I could probably just modify my XSD file to define the xmlns attribute for that element, however I am wondering if this is just a bandaid fix to a larger problem. I must confess I don't have a very good understanding of XML namespaces so this might be an oppportunity to set me straight on a few things. Here is the attributes for my XSD file's root xs:schema element: <xs:schema id="awesomeConfig" targetNamespace="http://awesome.com/schemas" xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... </xs:schema> And on creating the element in the Web.config file, Visual Studio 2008 automatically appends: <awesomeConfig xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas"></awesomeConfig> So have I misunderstood the meaning of the xs:schema attributes at all, or is the proper solution as simple as it seems?

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• Get tag name and value of a given node using XMLReader, DOM, Xpath

  - by rossjha

  I need to query an xml document and then display specific tag values, e.g. forename, surname, group(dept), job_title. I'm using XMLReader as i may need to work with large XML files. I using DomXPath to filter the data, but i don't know how to retrieve the nodeName and value for each element. The code below only returns 'member' as the node name? Any help would be appreciated. <?php $reader = new XMLReader(); $reader->open('include/staff.xml'); while ($reader->read()){ switch($reader->nodeType){ case(XMLREADER::ELEMENT): if($reader->localName === 'staff'){ $node = $reader->expand(); $dom = new DomDocument(); $dom->formatOutput = true; $n = $dom->importNode($node, true); $dom->appendChild($n); $xp = new DomXpath($dom); $res = $xp->query("/staff/member[groups='HR']"); } } } echo $res->item(0)->nodeName; echo $res->item(0)->nodeValue; ?>

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• PHP, MySQL: mysql substitute for php in_array function

  - by Devner

  Hi all, Say if I have an array and I want to check if an element is a part of that array, I can go ahead and use in_array( needle, haystack ) to determine the results. I am trying to see the PHP equivalent of this for my purpose. Now you might have an instant answer for me and you might be tempted to say "Use IN". Yes, I can use IN, but that's not fetching the desired results. Let me explain with an example: I have a column called "pets" in DB table. For a record, it has a value: Cat, dog, Camel (Yes, the column data is a comma separated value). Consider that this row has an id of 1. Now I have a form where I can enter the value in the form input and use that value check against the value in the DB. So say I enter the following comma separated value in the form input: CAT, camel (yes, CAT is uppercase & intentional as some users tend to enter it that way). Now when I enter the above info in the form input and submit, I can collect the POST'ed info and use the following query: $search = $_POST['pets']; $sql = "SELECT id FROM table WHERE pets IN ('$search') "; The above query is not fetching me the row that already exists in the DB (remember the record which has Cat, dog, Camel as the value for the pets column?). I am trying to get the records to act as a superset and the values from the form input as subsets. So in this case I am expecting the id value to show up as the values exist in the column, but this is not happending. Now say if I enter just CAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. Now say if I enter just camel, cAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. How can I achieve the above? Thank you.

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• Is Google the only OpenID provider that requires "identifier_select"?

  - by Skrat

  I am developing an OpenID consumer in PHP and am using the fantastic LightOpenID library (http://gitorious.org/lightopenid). Basing my code off of that found in the example client script I have successfully created a consumer. However, I've run across a snag: Google requires the openid.identity and openid.claimed_id to be set to "http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select" (see here). If I do that it works but other providers (i.e. AOL) don't. Here are my questions: Is Google a corner case –– is it the only OpenID provider where identifier_select is required, contrary to the OpenID specs? Is there a shortcoming in the LightOpenID library? Is my understanding of how OpenID works incorrect? If Google is not the only provider that requires identifier_select are there a finite number of them which I'll just hardcode in, or is there someway to determine this through the OpenID spec? I'm new to the internals of OpenID so I wouldn't be surprised if this is a dumb question. I haven't been able to find any info on this subject after scouring the Internet.

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• Why doesn't gcc remove this check of a non-volatile variable?

  - by Thomas

  This question is mostly academic. I ask out of curiosity, not because this poses an actual problem for me. Consider the following incorrect C program. #include <signal.h> #include <stdio.h> static int running = 1; void handler(int u) { running = 0; } int main() { signal(SIGTERM, handler); while (running) ; printf("Bye!\n"); return 0; } This program is incorrect because the handler interrupts the program flow, so running can be modified at any time and should therefore be declared volatile. But let's say the programmer forgot that. gcc 4.3.3, with the -O3 flag, compiles the loop body (after one initial check of the running flag) down to the infinite loop .L7: jmp .L7 which was to be expected. Now we put something trivial inside the while loop, like: while (running) putchar('.'); And suddenly, gcc does not optimize the loop condition anymore! The loop body's assembly now looks like this (again at -O3): .L7: movq stdout(%rip), %rsi movl $46, %edi call _IO_putc movl running(%rip), %eax testl %eax, %eax jne .L7 We see that running is re-loaded from memory each time through the loop; it is not even cached in a register. Apparently gcc now thinks that the value of running could have changed. So why does gcc suddenly decide that it needs to re-check the value of running in this case?

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• Routing in Php and decorator pattern

  - by Joey Salac Hipolito

  I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

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• Android: changing drawable states of option menu items seems to have side-effects

  - by pjv

  In my onCreateOptionsMenu() I have basically the following: public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_INSERT, Menu.NONE, R.string.item_menu_insert).setShortcut('3', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); if(pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA) && pm.hasSystemFeature(PackageManager.FEATURE_CAMERA_AUTOFOCUS)){ menu.add(Menu.NONE, MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD, Menu.NONE, ((Collectionista.DEBUG)?"DEBUG Scan and add item":getString(R.string.item_menu_scan_add))).setShortcut('4', 'a').setIcon(android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add); } ... } And in onPrepareOptionsMenu among others the following: final boolean scanAvailable = ScanIntent.isInstalled(this); final MusicCDItemScanAddTask task = new MusicCDItemScanAddTask(this); menu.findItem(MENU_ITEM_SCAN_ADD).setEnabled(scanAvailable && (tasks == null || !existsTask(task))); As you see, two options items have the same drawable set (android.R.drawable.ic_menu_add). Now, if in onPrepareOptionsMenu the second menu item gets disabled, its label and icon become gray, but also the icon of the first menu item becomes gray, while the label of that fist menu item stays black and it remains clickable. What is causing this crosstalk between the two icons/drawables? Shouldn't the system handle things like mutate() in this case? I've included a screenshot:

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• Enabling/Disabling Aero from a Windows Service

  - by rgould

  I have some code to enable/disable the Windows Aero service in Vista, and I would like to run it in a Windows Service. The code works in a standalone application, but when I run it from a Service, nothing happens. No errors or exceptions are thrown. I realise that running code in a service is a different scope than running code in an application, but in this case, how would I enable/disable Aero from the service? Is this even possible? Here is the code I am working with: public static readonly uint DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION = 0; public static readonly uint DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION = 1; [DllImport("dwmapi.dll", EntryPoint="DwmEnableComposition")] protected static extern uint Win32DwmEnableComposition(uint uCompositionAction); public static bool EnableAero() { Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_ENABLECOMPOSITION); } Edit: It turns out that the DwmEnableComposition call is returning HRESULT 0x80070018, or ERROR_BAD_LENGTH. Seems like a strange error, since the code works when not running as a service. I also tried changing the entire thing to the following code, but got the same result. It sets the window station and desktop, and it seems to be correct, but the call to DwmEnableComposition results in the same error. I've not included the PInvoke declarations for brevity. protected override void OnStop() { IntPtr winStation = OpenWindowStation("winsta0", true, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (winStation == null || winStation.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetProcessWindowStation(winStation)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint thread = GetCurrentThreadId(); IntPtr hdesk = OpenInputDesktop(0, false, 0x10000000 /* GENERIC_ALL */); if (hdesk == null || hdesk.ToInt32() == 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } if (!SetThreadDesktop(hdesk)) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } uint result = Win32DwmEnableComposition(DWM_EC_DISABLECOMPOSITION); if (result != 0) { String err = new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message; } }

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• How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

  - by Etienne

  In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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• iPhone application update (using Core Data on Sqlite)

  - by owen

  I have an app which is using Core Data on Sqlite, Now I have a update which has some DB structure changes say adding a new table I know when an app get updated, it updates the app binary only, nothing on document directory will be changed. When the app gets updated and launchs at the first time and run [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; It will find the difference between the data model and DB structure in Sqlite and will throw an exception and quit. Error: "The model used to open the store is incompatible with the one used to create the store" So, can anyone here give me some idea how to update an app when there is a DB structure change? I think we can run a DB script to create that new table when it launchs the update at the first time. But if there are other changes like changing the type of some fields or deleting some fields, and we need to migrate the old data, this is really a headache. In this case, Is the only way to do is creating a new app? Is there anyone tried something similar like this?

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• Approach for fixing NoClassDefFoundError?

  - by DJC

  I'm seeing this question is getting asked a lot in many different contexts. Perhaps we can set some strategies for locating and fixing it? I'm noobish myself so all I can contribute are horror stories and questions, sorry... It seems this is thrown when a class is visible at compile time but not at run time... how can this happen? In my case I am developing an app that uses the Google APIs, in Eclipse, for the Android platform. I've configured the Project Properties / Java Build Path / Libraries to include the gdata .jars and all is well. When I execute in the emulator I get a force close and the logcat shows a NoClassDefFoundError on a simple new ContactsService("myApp"); I've also tried a new CalendarService("myApp") with the same results. Is it possible or desirable to statically bind at compile time to avoid the problem? How could dynamic binding of an add-on library work in the mobile environment anyway? Either it has to be bound into my .apk or else I need to "install" it? ... hmmm. Advice much appreciated.

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• Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

  - by Wayne

  Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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• Why does the Java Collections Framework offer two different ways to sort?

  - by dvanaria

  If I have a list of elements I would like to sort, Java offers two ways to go about this. For example, lets say I have a list of Movie objects and I’d like to sort them by title. One way I could do this is by calling the one-argument version of the static java.util.Collections.sort( ) method with my movie list as the single argument. So I would call Collections.sort(myMovieList). In order for this to work, the Movie class would have to be declared to implement the java.lang.Comparable interface, and the required method compareTo( ) would have to be implemented inside this class. Another way to sort is by calling the two-argument version of the static java.util.Collections.sort( ) method with the movie list and a java.util.Comparator object as it’s arguments. I would call Collections.sort(myMovieList, titleComparator). In this case, the Movie class wouldn’t implement the Comparable interface. Instead, inside the main class that builds and maintains the movie list itself, I would create an inner class that implements the java.util.Comparator interface, and implement the one required method compare( ). Then I'd create an instance of this class and call the two-argument version of sort( ). The benefit of this second method is you can create an unlimited number of these inner class Comparators, so you can sort a list of objects in different ways. In the example above, you could have another Comparator to sort by the year a movie was made, for example. My question is, why bother to learn both ways to sort in Java, when the two-argument version of Collections.sort( ) does everything the first one-argument version does, but with the added benefit of being able to sort the list’s elements based on several different criteria? It would be one less thing to have to keep in your mind while coding. You’d have one basic mechanism of sorting lists in Java to know.

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• Enforce strong type checking in C (type strictness for typedefs)

  - by quinmars

  Is there a way to enforce explicit cast for typedefs of the same type? I've to deal with utf8 and sometimes I get confused with the indices for the character count and the byte count. So it be nice to have some typedefs: typedef unsigned int char_idx_t; typedef unsigned int byte_idx_t; With the addition that you need an explicit cast between them: char_idx_t a = 0; byte_idx_t b; b = a; // compile warning b = (byte_idx_t) a; // ok I know that such a feature doesn't exist in C, but maybe you know a trick or a compiler extension (preferable gcc) that does that. EDIT: I still don't really like the Hungarian notation in general, I couldn't used it for this problem because of project coding conventions, but I used it now in another similar case, where also the types are the same and the meanings are very similar. And I have to admit: it helps. I never would go and declare every integer with a starting "i", but as in Joel's example for overlapping types, it can be life saving.

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• Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

  - by Josiah Kiehl

  I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

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• How do I make the following interaction with mySQL more efficient?

  - by Travis

  I've got an array that contains combinations of unique MySql IDs: For example: [ [1,10,11], [2,10], [3,10,12], [3,12,13,20], [4,12] ] In total there are a couple hundred different combinations of IDs. Some of these combinations are "valid" and some are not. For example, [1,10,11] may be a valid combination, whereas [3,10,12] may be invalid. Combinations are valid or invalid depending on how the data is arranged in the database. Currently I am using a SELECT statement to determine whether or not a specific combination of IDs is valid. It looks something like this: SELECT id1 FROM table WHERE id2 IN ($combination) GROUP BY id1 HAVING COUNT(distinct id2) = $number ...where $combination is one possible combination of IDs (eg 1,10,11) and $number is the number of IDs in that combination (in this case, 3). An invalid combination will return 0 rows. A valid combination will return 1 or more rows. However, to solve the entire set of possible combinations means looping a couple hundred SELECT statements, which I would rather not be doing. I am wondering: Are there any tricks for making this more efficient? Is it possible to submit the entire dataset to mySQL in one go, and have mySQL iterate through it? Any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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• CSS3 animations - how to make different animations to different elements on scroll

  - by DeanDeey

  I have a question about the doing CSS3 animations on scroll.. I found a code, that shows the DIV element after the user scrolls down: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { /* Every time the window is scrolled ... */ $(window).scroll( function(){ /* Check the location of each desired element */ $('.hideme').each( function(i){ var bottom_of_object = $(this).position().top + $(this).outerHeight(); var bottom_of_window = $(window).scrollTop() + $(window).height(); /* If the object is completely visible in the window, fade it it */ if( bottom_of_window > bottom_of_object ){ $(this).animate({'opacity':'1'},500); } }); }); }); </script> I'm building a site, which one will have about 5 different boxes, which one will be shown when the user scrolls down to each box. But my question is, how i make the animation inside those boxes. Foe example: in each box there is title, content and images. How do i make all the elements appear after each other, because with this code all the class elements are shown at once. But i would like that if user scrolls down, first the tittle appears, then the content and at the end the images. And then when user scrolls to the next box, the same process repeat's itself. I use some CSS3 delays, but in this case i don't know how long will user take to scroll down. thanks!

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• How to cache pages using background jobs ?

  - by Alexandre

  Definitions: resource = collection of database records, regeneration = processing these records and outputting the corresponding html Current flow: Receive client request Check for resource in cache If not in cache or cache expired, regenerate Return result The problem is that the regeneration step can tie up a single server process for 10-15 seconds. If a couple of users request the same resource, that could result in a couple of processes regenerating the exact same resource simultaneously, each taking up 10-15 seconds. Wouldn't it be preferrable to have the frontend signal some background process saying "Hey, regenerate this resource for me". But then what would it display to the user? "Rebuilding" is not acceptable. All resources would have to be in cache ahead of time. This could be a problem as the database would almost be duplicated on the filesystem (too big to fit in memory). Is there a way to avoid this? Not ideal, but it seems like the only way out. But then there's one more problem. How to keep the same two processes from requesting the regeneration of a resource at the same time? The background process could be regenerating the resource when a frontend asks for the regeneration of the same resource. I'm using PHP and the Zend Framework just in case someone wants to offer a platform-specific solution. Not that it matters though - I think this problem applies to any language/framework. Thanks!

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• What's your preferred pointer declaration style, and why?

  - by Owen

  I know this is about as bad as it gets for "religious" issues, as Jeff calls them. But I want to know why the people who disagree with me on this do so, and hear their justification for their horrific style. I googled for a while and couldn't find a style guide talking about this. So here's how I feel pointers (and references) should be declared: int* pointer = NULL; int& ref = *pointer; int*& pointer_ref = pointer; The asterisk or ampersand goes with the type, because it modifies the type of the variable being declared. EDIT: I hate to keep repeating the word, but when I say it modifies the type I'm speaking semantically. "int* something;" would translate into English as something like "I declare something, which is a pointer to an integer." The "pointer" goes along with the "integer" much more so than it does with the "something." In contrast, the other uses of the ampersand and asterisk, as address-of and dereferencing operators, act on a variable. Here are the other two styles (maybe there are more but I really hope not): int *ugly_but_common; int * uglier_but_fortunately_less_common; Why? Really, why? I can never think of a case where the second is appropriate, and the first only suitable perhaps with something like: int *hag, *beast; But come now... multiple variable declarations on one line is kind of ugly form in itself already.

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• Grails - Language prefix in url mappings

  - by Art79

  Hi there im having problem with language mappings. The way i want it to work is that language is encoded in the url like /appname/de/mycontroller/whatever If you go to /appname/mycontroller/action it should check your session and if there is no session pick language based on browser preference and redirect to the language prefixed site. If you have session then it will display english. English does not have en prefix (to make it harder). So i created mappings like this: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$lang/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store/$category" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ lang="en" constraints { } } "/store/$category" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/store" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/"(view:"/index") "500"(view:'/error') } } Its not fully working and langs are hardcoded just for now. I think i did something wrong. Some of the reverse mappings work but some dont add language. If i use link tag and pass params:[lang:'pl'] then it works but if i add params:[lang:'pl', page:2] then it does not. In the second case both lang and page number become parameters in the query string. What is worse they dont affect the locale so page shows in english. Can anyone please point me to the documentation what are the rules of reverse mappings or even better how to implement such language prefix in a good way ? THANKS

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