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  • binding nested json object value to a form field

    - by Jack
    I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

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  • How can "today's date" be varied for unit testing purposes?

    - by ck
    I use VS2008 targetting .NET 2.0 Framework, and, just in case, no I can't change this :) I have a DateCalculator class. Its method GetNextExpirationDate attempts to determine the next expiration, internally using DateTime.Today as a baseline date. As I was writing unit tests, I realized that I wanted to test GetNextExpirationDate for different 'today' dates. What's the best way to do this? Here are some alternatives I've considered: Expose a property/overloaded method with argument baselineDate and only use it from the unit test. In actual client code, disregard the property/overloaded method in favour of the method that defaults baselineDate to DateTime.Today. I'm reluctant to do this as it makes the public interface of the DateCalculator class awkward. Create a protected field called baselineDate that is internally set to DateTime.Today. When testing, derive a DateCalculatorForTesting from DateCalculator and set baslineDate via the constructor. It keeps the public interface clean, but still isn't great - baselineDate was made protected and a derived class is required, both solely for testing. Use extension methods. I tried this after adding the ExtensionAttribute, then realized it wouldn't work because extension methods can't access private/protected variables. I initially thought this was really quite an elegant solution. :( I'd be interested in hearing what others think.

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  • Filter of Data in Gridview logical error please using asp.net

    - by RajuBabli Abbasi
    I wanted to filter the Data in asp.net but my Data is not filtering i have some logical error So please help me for this case i will be very thanks full to those who will help me please consider my code and replay me with code if you can so please i am waiting for your replay thanks again my asp.cs file is protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { DisplayStudentInformation(); } } private void DisplayStudentInformation() { string filter = "%" + filterTextBox.Text + "%"; if (filter == String.Empty) filter = "%"; try { using (SqlDataReader reader = DAC.GetCompanyInformation(filter)) {//reader.Read(); StudentGridView.DataSource = reader; StudentGridView.DataBind(); } } catch (SqlException ex) { StatusLabel.Text = ex.Message; } } my .aspx file is asp:Table ID="Tabel" runat ="server" asp:TableRow asp:TableCell asp:Label ID="filterLabel" runat ="server" Text ="Company Name Filter:" AssociatedControlID="filterTextBox" /asp:TableCell asp:TableCell asp:TextBox ID="filterTextBox" runat="server" MaxLength ="50" /asp:TableCell asp:TableCell asp:Button ID="refreshButton" runat ="server" Text ="Filter" CausesValidation="false" / /asp:TableCell /asp:TableRow /asp:Table My DAC file is public static SqlDataReader GetCompanyInformation(string filter) { SqlDataReader reader; string sql = "SELECT * FROM Student WHERE LastName LIKE @prmLastName "; using(SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand (sql,ConnectionManager.GetConnection())) {//In ExecuteReader we pass the CommandBehavior as singleResult because we need the Single result and also passing the close connection when Datais retriev // command.Parameters.Add("@prmLastName", SqlDbType.VarChar, 25).Value = filter; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@prmLastName", filter); reader = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SingleResult | CommandBehavior.CloseConnection); } return reader; } Note:- When i don't use the If(!Ispostback) Condition and simply pass the DisplayStudentInformation(); method in my page load then Data can be filter but with If(!IspostBack ) condition which is also important for updating the data and for other purpose . Data can be filter . Se aim of the expert is that Filter the Data in a gridview using condition of IF(!IspostBack ) means without the removing is post back condition Filter the Data . I have been ask other about this question but no body solve this so please help me i will be very thanks full to you all ok

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  • How do I make the following interaction with mySQL more efficient?

    - by Travis
    I've got an array that contains combinations of unique MySql IDs: For example: [ [1,10,11], [2,10], [3,10,12], [3,12,13,20], [4,12] ] In total there are a couple hundred different combinations of IDs. Some of these combinations are "valid" and some are not. For example, [1,10,11] may be a valid combination, whereas [3,10,12] may be invalid. Combinations are valid or invalid depending on how the data is arranged in the database. Currently I am using a SELECT statement to determine whether or not a specific combination of IDs is valid. It looks something like this: SELECT id1 FROM table WHERE id2 IN ($combination) GROUP BY id1 HAVING COUNT(distinct id2) = $number ...where $combination is one possible combination of IDs (eg 1,10,11) and $number is the number of IDs in that combination (in this case, 3). An invalid combination will return 0 rows. A valid combination will return 1 or more rows. However, to solve the entire set of possible combinations means looping a couple hundred SELECT statements, which I would rather not be doing. I am wondering: Are there any tricks for making this more efficient? Is it possible to submit the entire dataset to mySQL in one go, and have mySQL iterate through it? Any suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Enforce strong type checking in C (type strictness for typedefs)

    - by quinmars
    Is there a way to enforce explicit cast for typedefs of the same type? I've to deal with utf8 and sometimes I get confused with the indices for the character count and the byte count. So it be nice to have some typedefs: typedef unsigned int char_idx_t; typedef unsigned int byte_idx_t; With the addition that you need an explicit cast between them: char_idx_t a = 0; byte_idx_t b; b = a; // compile warning b = (byte_idx_t) a; // ok I know that such a feature doesn't exist in C, but maybe you know a trick or a compiler extension (preferable gcc) that does that. EDIT: I still don't really like the Hungarian notation in general, I couldn't used it for this problem because of project coding conventions, but I used it now in another similar case, where also the types are the same and the meanings are very similar. And I have to admit: it helps. I never would go and declare every integer with a starting "i", but as in Joel's example for overlapping types, it can be life saving.

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  • What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

    - by Tom
    Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

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  • UpdateModel not working consistently for me if a ddl gets hidden by jQuery

    - by awrigley
    Hi My jQuery code hides a ddl under certain circumstances. When this is the case, after submitting the form, using the UpdateModel doesn't seem to work consistently. My code in the controller: // POST: /IllnessDetail/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) { IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { IllnessDetail sick = idr.GetLatestIllnessDetailByUsername(User.Identity.Name); UpdateModel(sick); idr.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Current", "IllnessDetail"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(mfv.IllnessDetail.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill)); } I have only just started with MVC, and working under a deadline, so am still hazy as to how UpdateModel works. Debugging seems to reveal that the correct value is passed in to the action method: public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) And the correct value is put into sick in the following line: IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); However, when all is said, done and returned to the client, what displays is the value of: sick.IdInfectiousAgent instead of the value of: ill.IdInfectiousAgent The only reason I can think of is that the ddlInfectiousAgent has been hidden by jQuery. Or am I barking up the wrong lamp post? Andrew

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  • AVAudioPlayer problem regarding song overlaping in iPhone

    - by riteshkumar1905
    I have using AVAudioPlayer in my app but the problem is that when i play the song from list it will played while before stopping the song i am again goes to song list then select another song then both song will start playing simultaneously so please tell me the code which will terminate my first song. i am using avTouchContoller & avTouchViewController in my app. so i am enclosing the code for song which is written in avController.m & avTouchViewController.m as follow for single song avtouchController.m switch (flag) { case 1: //[self stop]; fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Aarti Keeje" ofType:@"aac"]]; self._player = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:fileURL error:nil]; //self._player=newplayer; //[newplayer release]; if (self._player) { _fileName.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%@ (%d ch.)", [[self._player.url relativePath] lastPathComponent], self._player.numberOfChannels, nil]; [self updateViewForPlayerInfo]; [self updateViewForPlayerState]; } [fileURL release]; break;

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  • Save PyML.classifiers.multi.OneAgainstRest(SVM()) object?

    - by Michael Aaron Safyan
    I'm using PYML to construct a multiclass linear support vector machine (SVM). After training the SVM, I would like to be able to save the classifier, so that on subsequent runs I can use the classifier right away without retraining. Unfortunately, the .save() function is not implemented for that classifier, and attempting to pickle it (both with standard pickle and cPickle) yield the following error message: pickle.PicklingError: Can't pickle : it's not found as __builtin__.PySwigObject Does anyone know of a way around this or of an alternative library without this problem? Thanks. Edit/Update I am now training and attempting to save the classifier with the following code: mc = multi.OneAgainstRest(SVM()); mc.train(dataset_pyml,saveSpace=False); for i, classifier in enumerate(mc.classifiers): filename=os.path.join(prefix,labels[i]+".svm"); classifier.save(filename); Notice that I am now saving with the PyML save mechanism rather than with pickling, and that I have passed "saveSpace=False" to the training function. However, I am still gettting an error: ValueError: in order to save a dataset you need to train as: s.train(data, saveSpace = False) However, I am passing saveSpace=False... so, how do I save the classifier(s)? P.S. The project I am using this in is pyimgattr, in case you would like a complete testable example... the program is run with "./pyimgattr.py train"... that will get you this error. Also, a note on version information: [michaelsafyan@codemage /Volumes/Storage/classes/cse559/pyimgattr]$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Feb 11 2010, 00:51:29) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. import PyML print PyML.__version__ 0.7.0

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  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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  • Create a strongly typed view which inherites a class which is concrete

    - by Ashwani K
    Hello All: I am having one class called BaseClass which contains some logic applicable to whole web site. In order to create a strongly typed view we need to inherit the page from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage generic class. But In our case I have to Inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage to apply some common settings, but the BaseClass should be inherited from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< generic version. But I cannot inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< as it will change other class also. So I created one more class of type BaseClass< inheriting it from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< and copied the whole code of BaseClass in BaseClass<. But the code in BaseClass is controlled by other team so it will be changed frequently so my BaseClass< should be in sync with BaseClass. Please help me in eliminating the code duplication or any other approach to make strongly typed View. Thanks Ashwani

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  • Is there a way to trace through only project source in Delphi?

    - by Justin
    I'm using Delphi 2010 and I'm wondering if there's a way to trace through code which is in the project without tracing through calls to included VCLs. For example - you put in a breakpoint and then use Shift+F7 to trace through line-by-line. Now you run into a call to some lengthy procedure in a VCL - in my case it's often a Measurement Studio or other component that draws the doodads for a bunch of I/O, OPC, or other bits. At any rate, what happens is that the debugger hops out of the active source file, opens the component source, and traces through that line by line. Often this is hundreds or thousands of lines of code I don't care about - I just want to have it execute and return to the next source line in MY project. Obviously you can do this by setting breakpoints around every instance of an external call, but often there are too many to make this practical - I'd be spending an hour setting a hundred breakpoints every time I wanted to step through a section of code. Is there a setting or a tool somewhere that can do this? Allow one to trace through code within the project while silently executing code which is external to the project? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow!

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  • User Control not loading based on location

    - by mwright
    I have an ASP.net MVC solution that uses nested master pages to load content. On the first Master page I load a header, then have the Content Placeholder, and then load a footer. This master page is referenced by another master page which adds some additional information based on the user being logged in or not. When I load a page that references these master pages, the header loads, but the footer does not. If I move the footer up above the Content Place Holder it loads into the page. Any ideas why this might be the case? The code for the master page that contains the footer is as follows: <%@ Master Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewMasterPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /> </title> </head> <body> <div class="header"> <% Html.RenderPartial("Header"); %> </div> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <div class="footer"> <% Html.RenderPartial("Footer"); %> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Select * from 'many to many' SQL relationship

    - by Rampant Creative Group
    I'm still learning SQL and my brain is having a hard time with this one. Say I have 3 tables: teams players and teams_players as my link table All I want to do is run a query to get each team and the players on them. I tried this: SELECT * FROM teams INNER JOIN teams_players ON teams.id = teams_players.team_id INNER JOIN players ON teams_players.player_id = players.id But it returned a separate row for each player on each team. Is JOIN the right way to do it or should I be doing something else? ----------------------------------------- Edit Ok, so from what I'm hearing, this isn't necessarily a bad way to do it. I'll just have to group the data by team while I'm doing my loop. I have not yet tried the modified SQL statements provided, but I will today and get back to you. To answer the question about structure - I guess I wasn't thinking about the returned row structure which is part of what lead to my confusion. In this particular case, each team is limited to 4 players (or less) so I guess the structure that would be helpful to me is something like the following: teams.id, teams.name, players.id, players.name, players.id, players.name, players.id, players.name, players.id, players.name, 1 Team ABC 1 Jim 2 Bob 3 Ned 4 Roy 2 Team XYZ 2 Bob 3 Ned 5 Ralph 6 Tom

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  • How to use IsKeyboardFocusWithin and IsSelected together?

    - by jpsstavares
    I have a style defined for my ListBoxItems with a trigger to set a background color when IsSelected is True: <Style x:Key="StepItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="SnapsToDevicePixels" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Border Name="Border" Padding="0" SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <ContentPresenter /> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Background" Value="#40a0f5ff"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> This style maintains the selected item even when the ListBox and ListBoxItem loses focus, which in my case is an absolute must. The problem is that I also want the ListBoxItem to be selected when one of its TextBox's child gets focused. To achieve this I add a trigger that sets IsSelected to true when IsKeyboardFocusWithin is true: <Trigger Property="IsKeyboardFocusWithin" Value="True"> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="True" /> </Trigger> When I add this trigger the Item is selected when the focus is on a child TextBox, but the first behaviour disappears. Now when I click outside the ListBox, the item is de-selected. How can I keep both behaviours?

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  • IE event callback object JavaScript

    - by Randy Hall
    I may be WAY off on my terminology, so please feel free to correct me. Perhaps this is why I cannot seem to find anything relevant. No libraries, please. I have an event handler, which invokes a callback function. Fancy, right? In IE<9 the this object in the handler is the window. I don't know why, or how to access the correct object. if (document.addEventListener){ element.addEventListener(event, callback, false); } else { element.attachEvent('on' +event, callback); } This part DOES WORK. This part doesn't: function callback(event){ console.log(this); } this in IE is returning [object Window], whereas it returns the element that called the callback function in every other browser. This is cut down significantly from my full script, but this should be everything that's relevant. EDIT This link provided by @metadings How to reference the caller object ("this") using attachEvent is very close. However, there are still two issues. 1) I need to get both the event object and the DOM element calling this function. 2) This event is handled delegation style: there may be child DOM elements firing the event, meaning event.target is not necessarily (and in my case, not typically) the element with the listener.

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  • PHP, MySQL: mysql substitute for php in_array function

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Say if I have an array and I want to check if an element is a part of that array, I can go ahead and use in_array( needle, haystack ) to determine the results. I am trying to see the PHP equivalent of this for my purpose. Now you might have an instant answer for me and you might be tempted to say "Use IN". Yes, I can use IN, but that's not fetching the desired results. Let me explain with an example: I have a column called "pets" in DB table. For a record, it has a value: Cat, dog, Camel (Yes, the column data is a comma separated value). Consider that this row has an id of 1. Now I have a form where I can enter the value in the form input and use that value check against the value in the DB. So say I enter the following comma separated value in the form input: CAT, camel (yes, CAT is uppercase & intentional as some users tend to enter it that way). Now when I enter the above info in the form input and submit, I can collect the POST'ed info and use the following query: $search = $_POST['pets']; $sql = "SELECT id FROM table WHERE pets IN ('$search') "; The above query is not fetching me the row that already exists in the DB (remember the record which has Cat, dog, Camel as the value for the pets column?). I am trying to get the records to act as a superset and the values from the form input as subsets. So in this case I am expecting the id value to show up as the values exist in the column, but this is not happending. Now say if I enter just CAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. Now say if I enter just camel, cAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. How can I achieve the above? Thank you.

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  • Inner join and outer join options in Entity Framework 4.0

    - by bigb
    I am using EF 4.0 and I need to implement query with one inner join and with N outer joins I started to implement this using different approaches but get into trouble at some point. Here is two examples how I started of doing this using ObjectQuery<'T' and Linq to Entity 1)Using ObjectQuery<'T' I implement flexible outer join but I don't know how to perform inner join with entity Rules in that case (by default Include("Rules") doing outer join, but i need to inner join by Id). public static IEnumerable<Race> GetRace(List<string> includes, DateTime date) { IRepository repository = new Repository(new BEntities()); ObjectQuery<Race> result = (ObjectQuery<Race>)repository.AsQueryable<Race>(); //perform outer joins with related entities if (includes != null) foreach (string include in includes) result = result.Include(include); //here i need inner join insteard of default outer join result = result.Include("Rules"); return result.ToList(); } 2)Using Linq To Entity I need to have kind of outer join(somethin like in GetRace()) where i may pass a List with entities to include) and also i need to perform correct inner join with entity Rules public static IEnumerable<Race> GetRace2(List<string> includes, DateTime date) { IRepository repository = new Repository(new BEntities()); IEnumerable<Race> result = from o in repository.AsQueryable<Race>() from b in o.RaceBetRules select new { o }); //I need here: // 1. to perform the same way inner joins with related entities like with ObjectQuery above //here i getting List<AnonymousType> which i cant cast to //IEnumerable<Race> when i did try to cast like //(IEnumerable<Race>)result.ToList(); i did get error: //Unable to cast object of type //'System.Collections.Generic.List`1[<>f__AnonymousType0`1[BetsTipster.Entity.Tip.Types.Race]]' //to type //'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[BetsTipster.Entity.Tip.Types.Race]'. return result.ToList(); } May be someone have some ideas about that.

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  • Algorithm to produce Cartesian product of arrays in depth-first order

    - by Yuri Gadow
    I'm looking for an example of how, in Ruby, a C like language, or pseudo code, to create the Cartesian product of a variable number of arrays of integers, each of differing length, and step through the results in a particular order: So given, [1,2,3],[1,2,3],[1,2,3]: [1, 1, 1] [2, 1, 1] [1, 2, 1] [1, 1, 2] [2, 2, 1] [1, 2, 2] [2, 1, 2] [2, 2, 2] [3, 1, 1] [1, 3, 1] etc. Instead of the typical result I've seen (including the example I give below): [1, 1, 1] [2, 1, 1] [3, 1, 1] [1, 2, 1] [2, 2, 1] [3, 2, 1] [1, 3, 1] [2, 3, 1] etc. The problem with this example is that the third position isn't explored at all until all combinations of of the first two are tried. In the code that uses this, that means even though the right answer is generally (the much larger equivalent of) 1,1,2 it will examine a few million possibilities instead of just a few thousand before finding it. I'm dealing with result sets of one million to hundreds of millions, so generating them and then sorting isn't doable here and would defeat the reason for ordering them in the first example, which is to find the correct answer sooner and so break out of the cartesian product generation earlier. Just in case it helps clarify any of the above, here's how I do this now (this has correct results and right performance, but not the order I want, i.e., it creates results as in the second listing above): def cartesian(a_of_a) a_of_a_len = a_of_a.size result = Array.new(a_of_a_len) j, k, a2, a2_len = nil, nil, nil, nil i = 0 while 1 do j, k = i, 0 while k < a_of_a_len a2 = a_of_a[k] a2_len = a2.size result[k] = a2[j % a2_len] j /= a2_len k += 1 end return if j > 0 yield result i += 1 end end UPDATE: I didn't make it very clear that I'm after a solution where all the combinations of 1,2 are examined before 3 is added in, then all 3 and 1, then all 3, 2 and 1, then all 3,2. In other words, explore all earlier combinations "horizontally" before "vertically." The precise order in which those possibilities are explored, i.e., 1,1,2 or 2,1,1, doesn't matter, just that all 2 and 1 are explored before mixing in 3 and so on.

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  • LINQ to XML Query Help

    - by cw
    Hello, I am trying to get a "diff" of 2 xml documents and end up with a list of Elements that are different. Below is the XML, I was wondering if anyone can assist. In the case below, I want the list to contain the "file2.xml" element and the "file3.xml" element because they are both different or new than the first xml document. Thanks in advance! <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <versioninfo> <files> <file version="1.0">file1.xml</file> <file version="1.0">file2.xml</file> </files> </versioninfo> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <versioninfo> <files> <file version="1.0">file1.xml</file> <file version="1.1">file2.xml</file> <file version="1.0">file3.xml</file> </files> </versioninfo>

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  • can I disable the "(Type e to repeat macro)" message in emacs?

    - by lindes
    Hi there, So, I've finally made the plunge, and have gotten to the state where I'm quite happy to have switched from vi and vim to emacs... I've been putting stuff in my .emacs file, learning how to evaluate things (not to mention becoming familiar with movement commands), etc. etc. etc. And now I have a problem with a require line in my .emacs file (a require statement*), which bombs out when I launch emacs (and generally fails to work). So, this lead me to the following situation: In the process of trying to debug the above situation, one of the steps I did was to open the file I was trying to require, and evaluate it bit by bit, using C-M-f and C-x C-e (and later just M-x eval-buffer), which all worked fine. But along the way of the section-by-section, I got tired of typing all those, and so I recorded a keyboard macro... C-x ( C-M-f C-x C-e C-x ) and then C-x e... which gave me a message in the minibuffer (I think I'm using the right name), saying (Type e to repeat macro). Which meant I could no longer see the resultant value of the evaluation of each section of code... which, while not critical in this case, I was liking having. Which leads me to the actual question: Is there a way to disable that message, and/or to cause the minibuffer to show multiple lines at once? I know about the *Messages* buffer, and that could have helped, I'm just wondering if there's a way to either disable that message, or otherwise make it coexist with other messages. Any suggestions? Thanks! lindes * - the problem at hand, which is not really my question, is that (require 'ruby-mode/ruby-mode) fails, even though emacs is definitely and successfully (per system call tracing) opening and reading the ruby-mode.el file. I presume this is because the provide line says just 'ruby-mode. I've found a solution for this, but if anyone can point me to any "best practices", I'd appreciate it.

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  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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  • How to call a service operation at a REST style WCF endpoint uri?

    - by Dieter Domanski
    Hi, is it possible to call a service operation at a wcf endpoint uri with a self hosted service? I want to call some default service operation when the client enters the endpoint uri of the service. In the following sample these uris correctly call the declared operations (SayHello, SayHi): - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hello - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hi But the uri - http://localhost:4711/clerk does not call the declared SayWelcome operation. Instead it leads to the well known 'Metadata publishing disabled' page. Enabling mex does not help, in this case the mex page is shown at the endpoint uri. private void StartSampleServiceHost() { ServiceHost serviceHost = new ServiceHost(typeof(Clerk), new Uri( "http://localhost:4711/clerk/")); ServiceEndpoint endpoint = serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IClerk), new WebHttpBinding(), ""); endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); serviceHost.Open(); } [ServiceContract] public interface IClerk { [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "")] Stream SayWelcome(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hello/")] Stream SayHello(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hi/")] Stream SayHi(); } public class Clerk : IClerk { public Stream SayWelcome() { return Say("welcome"); } public Stream SayHello() { return Say("hello"); } public Stream SayHi() { return Say("hi"); } private Stream Say(string what) { string page = @"<html><body>" + what + "</body></html>"; return new MemoryStream(Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(page)); } } Is there any way to disable the mex handling and to enable a declared operation instead? Thanks in advance, Dieter

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