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  • Update a tableView with a plist took from another table

    - by Pheel
    Background: I have a tab bar application, which has a tableView as the "heart" of the app. It loads data from a plist and, through a button that checks if there are any updates on the remote plist file, updates the local plist with the remote contents. Then, i have another tableView, that should display only those plist items that have a bool value set to YES. Now i want to add a button to the second table that reloads the plist took from the first table. Expected: When i update the local plist from the first table and when i press the button on the second table, the 2nd table is supposed to update and show the cells with that bool value set to YES. (Note: I set YES as default to some items on plist). What happens: The first table updates its content from remote. The second table shows the old items with the value set to YES. When i press the button to refresh data, it reads the plist fine (by logging it, it has the same contents of the first table -only those set to YES-),but it doesn't update data even if i have [self.tableView reloadData];. When i close the app and open it again, the second table is filled with the right items. :\ Code i'm using: //Reading Plist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *plistPath = [[documentPaths lastObject] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPlist.plist"]; NSFileManager *fMgr = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; if (![fMgr fileExistsAtPath:plistPath]) { plistPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myPlist" ofType:@"plist"]; } NSMutableArray *returnArr = [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:plistPath]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"isFav == YES"]; for (NSDictionary *sect in returnArr) { NSArray *arr = [sect objectForKey:@"Rows"]; [sect setValue:[arr filteredArrayUsingPredicate:predicate] forKey:@"Rows"]; } [self.tableView reloadData]; } //Refresh data button - (void) refreshTable:(id)sender { NSLog(@"plist read"); [self readPlist]; NSLog(@"refreshed plist:%@",[self readPlist]); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Does anyone know why the table is not updating?

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  • How to fix this java.lang.LinkageError?

    - by Péter Török
    I am trying to configure a custom layout class to Log4J as described in my previous post. The class uses java.util.regex.Matcher to identify potential credit card numbers in log messages. It works perfectly in unit tests (I can also programmatically configure a logger to use it and produce the expected output). However when I try to deploy it with our app in JBoss, I get the following error: --- MBEANS THAT ARE THE ROOT CAUSE OF THE PROBLEM --- ObjectName: jboss.web.deployment:war=MyWebApp-2010_02-SNAPSHOT.war,id=476602902 State: FAILED Reason: java.lang.LinkageError: java/util/regex/Matcher I couldn't even find any info on this form of the error - typically LinkageError seems to show up with a "loader constrain violation" message, like in here. Technical details: we use JBoss 4.2, Java 5, Log4J 1.2.12. We deploy our app in an .ear, which contains (among others) the above mentioned .war file, and the custom layout class in a separate jar file. We override the default settings in jboss-log4J.xml with our own log4j.properties located in a different folder, which is added to the classpath at startup, and is provided via Carbon. I can only guess: are two different Matcher class versions loaded from somewhere, or is Matcher loaded by two different classloaders when it is used from the jar and the war? What does this error message mean, and how can I fix it?

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  • conditional selection of decimal-format in xslt

    - by Jose L Martinez-Avial
    Hi all, I'm trying to modify the decimal-format of a stylesheet based on certain information of an XML. More exaclty, I've a XML like this <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <REPORT> <LANGUAGE>2</LANGUAGE> <MYVALUE>123456.78</MYVALUE> </REPORT> I'm trying to define the decimal format as european if the language is 2, and default otherwse. So I've created the following template <xsl:template match="REPORT"> <xsl:if test="$language=2"> <xsl:decimal-format decimal-separator=',' grouping-separator='.' /> </xsl:if> <xsl:value-of select ="format-number(MYVALUE,'###.###,00')"/> </xsl:template> So it shows the number in european format or in standard format. But I'm getting the following error xsl:decimal-format is not allowed in this position in the stylesheet! If I try to put the decimal-format outside the template, then I get the message that the xsl:if is not allowed in this position in the sthylsheet. How can I change the decimal-format based in the XML? Thanks Jose

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  • grails scaffolding broken

    - by damian
    Grails scaffoldin does not work in my grails application. When I go from the main page to the specific controller page it output something like this: Error 500: Servlet: default URI: /myapp/myDomain/list Exception Message: Tag [sortableColumn] is missing required attribute [title] or [titleKey] at /webTestDummyDomain/list:25 Caused by: Error processing GroovyPageView: Tag [sortableColumn] is missing required attribute [title] or [titleKey] at /myDomain/list:25 Class: /myDomain/list At Line: [25] Code Snippet: Code snippet empty. If I try to create a new app scaffold works perfectly. Additional data: Application Status * App version: 0.1 * Grails version: 1.2.2 * JVM version: 1.6.0_20 * Controllers: 11 * Domains: 10 * Services: 19 * Tag Libraries: 26 Installed Plugins * i18n - 1.2.2 * filters - 1.2.2 * logging - 1.2.2 * core - 1.2.2 * tomcat - 1.2.2 * webtest - 2.0.4 * functionalTest - 1.2.7 * yui - 2.7.0.1 * rest - 0.3 * jquery - 1.4.2.1 * bubbling - 2.1.2 * urlMappings - 1.2.2 * groovyPages - 1.2.2 * servlets - 1.2.2 * dataSource - 1.2.2 * controllers - 1.2.2 * codecs - 1.2.2 * jqueryUi - 1.8-SNAPSHOT * grailsUi - 1.2-SNAPSHOT * domainClass - 1.2.2 * mimeTypes - 1.2.2 * scaffolding - 1.2.2 * converters - 1.2.2 * hibernate - 1.2.2 * validation - 1.2.2 * services - 1.2.2 Can you give me any pointer?

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  • submit remote form with prototype

    - by badnaam
    I have a remote form like this and a checkbox in it. When I select or deselect the checkbox I would like to 1 - set the value of a hidden field 2 - ajax submit this form to its designated url. I tried $('search_form').onsubmit(), but I get an error saying onsubmit is not a function. Using prototype. Whats the best way to do this? <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/searches/search_set?stype=1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;" method="post" id="new_search" class="new_search" action="/searches/search_set?stype=1"><div style="margin: 0pt; padding: 0pt; display: inline;"><input type="hidden" value="3TWSyMsZXI0nltz7zHAxuj1KX=" name="authenticity_token"></div> <a onclick="setSubmit(this);" href="#" class="submit-link-button fg-button ui-state-default fg-button-icon-left ui-corner-all" id="search_submit"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-search"></span>'Search'</a> </div> <input type="checkbox" value="Energy" onclick="refreshResults(this);" name="search[conditions][article_tag][0]" id="search_conditions_article_tag_0">

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  • Auto-resolving a hostname in WCF Metadata Publishing

    - by Mike C
    I am running a self-hosted WCF service. In the service configuration, I am using localhost in my BaseAddresses that I hook my endpoints to. When trying to connect to an endpoint using the WCF test client, I have no problem connecting to the endpoint and getting the metadata using the machine's name. The problem that I run into is that the client that is generated from metadata uses localhost in the endpoint URLs it wants to connect to. I'm assuming that this is because localhost is the endpoint URL published by metadata. As a result, any calls to the methods on the service will fail since localhost on the calling machine isn't running the service. What I would like to figure out is if it is possible for the service metadata to publish the proper URL to a client depending on the client who is calling it. For example, if I was requesting the service metadata from a machine on the same network as the server the endpoint should be net.tcp://MYSERVER:1234/MyEndpoint. If I was requesting it from a machine outside the network, the URL should be net.tcp://MYSERVER.mydomain.com:1234/MyEndpoint. And obviously if the client was on the same machine, THEN the URL could be net.tcp://localhost:1234/MyEndpoint. Is this just a flaw in the default IMetadataExchange contract? Is there some reason the metadata needs to publish the information in a non-contextual way? Is there another way I should be configuring my BaseAddresses in order to get the functionality I want? Thanks, Mike

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  • How to not specify ruleset name when reading from config file?

    - by user102533
    When I read rules from a configuration file, I do something like this: IConfigurationSource configurationSource = new FileConfigurationSource("myvalidation.config"); var validator = ValidationFactory.CreateValidator<Salary>(configurationSource); The config file looks like this: <ruleset name="Default"> <properties> <property name="Address"> <validator lowerBound="10" lowerBoundType="Inclusive" upperBound="15" upperBoundType="Inclusive" negated="false" messageTemplate="" messageTemplateResourceName="" messageTemplateResourceType="" tag="" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.StringLengthValidator, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation, Version=4.1.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="String Length Validator" /> </property> </properties> </ruleset> My question is - is there a way to not specify the ruleset name? It's not required for me to specify a ruleset name if I am using the attribute approach and I can validate using: ValidationResults results = Validation.Validate(salary); Now when reading from config files, I have to specify the ruleset name. There is no overload of the CreateValidator method that accepts the configuration source without specifying the ruleset name. Also, the xml in the config file requires a name attribute for ruleset

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  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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  • Rails performance tests "rake test:benchmark" and "rake test:profile" give me errors

    - by go minimal
    I'm trying to run a blank default performance test with Ruby 1.9 and Rails 2.3.5 and I just can't get it to work! What am I missing here??? rails testapp cd testapp script/generate scaffold User name:string rake db:migrate rake test:benchmark - /usr/local/bin/ruby19 -I"lib:test" "/usr/local/lib/ruby19/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/performance/browsing_test.rb" -- --benchmark Loaded suite /usr/local/lib/ruby19/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake/rake_test_loader Started /usr/local/lib/ruby19/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:105:in `rescue in const_missing': uninitialized constant BrowsingTest::STARTED (NameError) from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:94:in `const_missing' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/testing/performance.rb:38:in `run' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:415:in `block (2 levels) in run_test_suites' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:409:in `each' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:409:in `block in run_test_suites' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:408:in `each' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:408:in `run_test_suites' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:388:in `run' from /usr/local/lib/ruby19/1.9.1/minitest/unit.rb:329:in `block in autorun' rake aborted! Command failed with status (1): [/usr/local/bin/ruby19 -I"lib:test" "/usr/l...]

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • ASP.NET RadioButton messing with the name (groupname)

    - by Hojou
    I got a templated control (a repeater) listing some text and other markup. Each item has a radiobutton associated with it, making it possible for the user to select ONE of the items created by the repeater. The repeater writes the radiobutton setting its id and name generated with the default asp.net naming convention making each radiobutton a full 'group'. This means all radiobuttons are independant on each other, which again unfortunately means i can select all radiobuttons at the same time. The radiobutton has the clever attribute 'groupname' used to set a common name so they get grouped together and thus should be dependant (so i can only select one at a time). The problem is - this doesn't work - the repeater makes sure the id and thus the name (which controls the grouping) are different. Since i use a repeater (could have been a listview or any other templated databound control) i can't use the RadioButtonList. So where does that leave me? I know i've had this problem before and solved it. I know almost every asp.net programmer must have had it too, so why can't i google and find a solid solution to the problem? I came across solutions to enforce the grouping by javascript (ugly!) or even to handle the radiobuttons as non-server controls, forcing me to do a Request.Form[name] to read the status. I also tried experimenting with overriding the name attribute on the PreRender event - unfortunately the owning page and masterpage again overrides this name to reflect the full id/name so i end up with the same wrong result. If you have no better solution than i posted, you are still very welcome to post your thoughts - atleast i'll know that my friend 'jack' is right about how messed up 'asp.net' is sometimes ;)

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  • SerializationException with custom GenericIdentiy?

    - by MunkiPhD
    I'm trying to implement my own GenericIdentity implementation but keep receiving the following error when it attempts to load the views (I'm using asp.net MVC): System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled by user code Message="Type is not resolved for member 'OpenIDExtendedIdentity,Training.Web, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Source="WebDev.WebHost" I've ended up with the following class: [Serializable] public class OpenIDExtendedIdentity : GenericIdentity { private string _nickName; private int _userId; public OpenIDExtendedIdentity(String name, string nickName, int userId) : base(name, "OpenID") { _nickName = nickName; _userId = userId; } public string NickName { get { return _nickName; } } public int UserID { get { return _userId; } } } In my Global.asax I read a cookie's serialized value into a memory stream and then use that to create my OpenIDExtendedIdentity object. I ended up with this attempt at a solution after countless tries of various sorts. It works correctly up until the point where it attempts to render the views. What I'm essentially attempting to achieve is the ability to do the following (While using the default Role manager from asp.net): User.Identity.UserID User.Identity.NickName ... etc. I've listed some of the sources I've read in my attempt to get this resolved. Some people have reported a Cassini error, but it seems like others have had success implementing this type of custom functionality - thus a boggling of my mind. http://forums.asp.net/p/32497/161775.aspx http://ondotnet.com/pub/a/dotnet/2004/02/02/effectiveformsauth.html http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/netfxremoting/thread/e6767ae2-dfbf-445b-9139-93735f1a0f72

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  • Virtual properties duplicated during serialization when XmlElement attribute used

    - by Laramie
    The Goal: XML serialize an object that contains a list of objects of that and its derived types. The resulting XML should not use the xsi:type attribute to describe the type, to wit the names of the serialized XML elements would be an assigned name specific to the derived type, not always that of the base class, which is the default behavior. The Attempt: After exploring IXmlSerializable and IXmlSerializable with eerie XmlSchemaProvider methods and voodoo reflection to return specialized schemas and an XmlQualifiedName over the course of days, I found I was able to use the simple [XmlElement] attribute to accomplish the goal... almost. The Problem: Overridden properties appear twice when serializing. The exception reads "The XML element 'overriddenProperty' from namespace '' is already present in the current scope. Use XML attributes to specify another XML name or namespace for the element." I attempted using a *Specified property (see code), but it didn't work. Sample Code: Class Declaration using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlInclude(typeof(DerivedClass))] public class BaseClass { public BaseClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public virtual string Virtual { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public bool VirtualSpecified { get { return (this is BaseClass); } set { } } [XmlElement(ElementName = "B", Type = typeof(BaseClass), IsNullable = false)] [XmlElement(ElementName = "D", Type = typeof(DerivedClass), IsNullable = false)] public List<BaseClass> Children { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public DerivedClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public override string Virtual { get { return "always return spackle"; } set { } } } Driver: BaseClass baseClass = new BaseClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; BaseClass baseClass2 = new BaseClass(){}; DerivedClass derivedClass1 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; DerivedClass derivedClass2 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass1); baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass2); derivedClass1.Children.Add(baseClass2); I've been wrestling with this on and off for weeks and can't find the answer anywhere.

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  • Retrieving Json via HTML request from Jboss server

    - by Seth Solomon
    I am running into a java.net.SocketException: Unexpected end of file from server when I am trying to query some JSON from my JBoss server. I am hoping someone can spot where I am going wrong. Or does anyone have any suggestions of a better way to pull this JSON from my Jboss server? try{ URL u = new URL("http://localhost:9990/management/subsystem/datasources/data-source/MySQLDS/statistics?read-resource&include-runtime=true&recursive=true"); HttpURLConnection c = (HttpURLConnection) u.openConnection(); String encoded = Base64.encode(("username"+":"+"password").getBytes()); c.setRequestMethod("POST"); c.setRequestProperty("Authorization", "Basic "+encoded); c.setRequestProperty("Content-Type","application/json"); c.setUseCaches(false); c.setAllowUserInteraction(false); c.setConnectTimeout(5000); c.setReadTimeout(5000); c.connect(); int status = c.getResponseCode(); // throws the exception here switch (status) { case 200: case 201: BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(c.getInputStream())); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line+"\n"); } br.close(); System.out.println(sb.toString()); break; default: System.out.println(status); break; } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); }

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  • Debugging JSR 168 Portlet with spring, eclipse & pluto.

    - by mikep
    I am trying to set up a development environment to test Spring Portlet MVC for development of JSR 168 conforming portlets. I have the latest STS installed, which included Spring 2.5 and Eclipse (Catalina). This has been my environment to develop with Spring MVC, and that works fine using Apache as a local server for debugging. I found some instructions on the Pluto portal site on using Pluto as a remote debugging host for portlets. I have implemented those instructions. I am sending Eclipse into debug mode by right clicking on one of the JSPs and going into "debug as". My problem is that when I log into Pluto, it is not sending me into debug mode. I am seeing the default Pluto page as opposed to my portlet. My portlet has not been installed onto Pluto, and the instructions do not seem to require the portlet to be installed. To help, I have a screen shot at http://www.ceruleaninc.ca/pluto%5Fproblem.jpg, showing the following: Eclipse showing the remote debugging to localhost:8000 Tomcat showing the "Listening for transport dt_socket at address: 8000 The Catalina.bat jpda start command The Pluto Portal screen after log in Thanks much! I would welcome any advice on approaches to debugging portlets. I am not tied to pluto. There does seem to be a lack of detailed instructions on this topic.

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  • Serializing a part of object graph

    - by Felix
    Hi all, I have a problem regarding Java custom serialization. I have a graph of objects and want to configure where to stop when I serialize a root object from client to server. Let's make it a bit concrete, clear by giving a sample scenario. I have Classes of type Company Employee (abstract) Manager extends Employee Secretary extends Employee Analyst extends Employee Project Here are the relations: Company(1)---(n)Employee Manager(1)---(n)Project Analyst(1)---(n)Project Imagine, I'm on the client side and I want to create a new company, assign it 10 employees (new or some existing) and send this new company to the server. What I expect in this scenario is to serialize the company and all bounding employees to the server side, because I'll save the relations on the database. So far no problem, since the default Java serialization mechanism serializes the whole object graph, excluding the field which are static or transient. My goal is about the following scenario. Imagine, I loaded a company and its 1000 employees from the server to the client side. Now I only want to rename the company's name (or some other field, that directly belongs to the company) and update this record. This time, I want to send only the company object to the server side and not the whole list of employees (I just update the name, the employees are in this use case irrelevant). My aim also includes the configurability of saying, transfer the company AND the employees but not the Project-Relations, you must stop there. Do you know any possibility of achieving this in a generic way, without implementing the writeObject, readObject for every single Entity-Object? What would be your suggestions? I would really appreciate your answers. I'm open to any ideas and am ready to answer your questions in case something is not clear.

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  • show UIAlertView when In app purchase is in progress

    - by edie
    Hi... I've added an UIAlertView that has UIActivityIndicatior as a subview on my application. This alertView only show when the purchase is in progress. I've put my alert view in this way in my StoreObserver: - (void)paymentQueue:(SKPaymentQueue *)queue updatedTransactions:(NSArray *)transactions { for (SKPaymentTransaction *transaction in transactions) { switch (transaction.transactionState) { case SKPaymentTransactionStatePurchasing: [self stillPurchasing]; // this creates an alertView and shows break; case SKPaymentTransactionStatePurchased: [self completeTransaction:transaction]; break; case SKPaymentTransactionStateFailed: [self failedTransaction:transaction]; break; case SKPaymentTransactionStateRestored: [self restoreTransaction:transaction]; break; default: break; } } } - (void) stillPurchasing { UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc]initWithTitle: @"In App Purchase" message: @"Processing your purchase..." delegate: nil cancelButtonTitle: nil otherButtonTitles: nil]; self.alertView = alert; [alert release]; UIActivityIndicatorView *ind = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc]initWithActivityIndicatorStyle: UIActivityIndicatorViewStyleWhiteLarge]; self.indicator = ind; [ind release]; [self.indicator startAnimating]; [self.alertView addSubview: self.indicator]; [self.alertView show]; } When I tap my the buy button this UIAlertView shows together with my UIActivityIndicator.. But when the transaction completes the alertView still on the top of the view and the Indicator was the only one that was removed. My question was how should I release the alertView? Or where/When should I release it. I've added these command to release my alertView and Indicator on these cases: case SKPaymentTransactionStatePurchased: case SKPaymentTransactionStateFailed: case SKPaymentTransactionStateRestored: [self.indicator stopAnimating]; [self.indicator removeFromSuperview]; [self.alertView release]; [self.indicator release]; I've only added the alertView to show that the purchasing was still in progress. Any suggestion to create any feedback to users will be thankful for me.. Thanks

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  • Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

    - by BlueRaja
    Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

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  • Matplotlib PDF export uses wrong font

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I want to generate high-quality diagrams for a presentation. I’m using Python’s matplotlib to generate the graphics. Unfortunately, the PDF export seems to ignore my font settings. I tried setting the font both by passing a FontProperties object to the text drawing functions and by setting the option globally. For the record, here is a MWE to reproduce the problem: import scipy import matplotlib matplotlib.use('cairo') import matplotlib.pylab as pylab import matplotlib.font_manager as fm data = scipy.arange(5) for font in ['Helvetica', 'Gill Sans']: fig = pylab.figure() ax = fig.add_subplot(111) ax.bar(data, data) ax.set_xticks(data) ax.set_xticklabels(data, fontproperties = fm.FontProperties(family = font)) pylab.savefig('foo-%s.pdf' % font) In both cases, the produced output is identical and uses Helvetica (and yes, I do have both fonts installed). Just to be sure, the following doesn’t help either: matplotlib.rc('font', family = 'Gill Sans') Finally, if I replace the backend, instead using the native viewer: matplotlib.use('MacOSX') I do get the correct font displayed – but only in the viewer GUI. The PDF output is once again wrong. To be sure – I can set other fonts – but only other classes of font families: I can set serif fonts or fantasy or monospace. But all sans-serif fonts seem to default to Helvetica.

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  • iPhone developer cert not associating with Provisioning Profiles

    - by baudot
    I'm seeing the dreaded "Code Sign error: The identity 'iPhone Developer' doesn't match any valid certificate/private key pair in the default keychain" error. Strange, as it used to work. Not sure what changed. A few of the symptoms I've noticed beyond this: In the project info, for Code Signing Identity, instead of saying "iPhone Developer: My Name Here", it only says "iPhone Developer", followed by a list of grayed out Provisioning Profiles with the error message "profile doesn't match any valid certificate/private key pair in the keychain." In the organizer, if I click the "Developer Profile" sidebar entry, it shows one entry in the "Identities" pane, "iPhone Distribution: My Name Here". However, no profiles show in the Provisioning Profiles pane. In the organizer, if I click the "Provisioning Profiles" sidebar entry, for each of the profiles there it reports "A valid signing identity matching this profile could not be found in your keychain." I've tried a handful of the usual folk cures for this ailment, without success so far, such as: Cleared my old keypairs and expired developer identity cert out of the keychain. Deleted my old developer profile, created a new one, and regenerated the provisioning profile after. Reconfirmed: The App ID on the provisioning portal for this app is a pure wildcard ID. (The "Bundle Identifier" in the info.plist is just the appname, no reversed domain prefix.) Restored my iPhone. Overstalled the latest version of Xcode.

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  • Hazelcast Distributed Executor Service KeyOwner

    - by János Veres
    I have problem understanding the concept of Hazelcast Distributed Execution. It is said to be able to perform the execution on the owner instance of a specific key. From Documentation: <T> Future<T> submitToKeyOwner(Callable<T> task, Object key) Submits task to owner of the specified key and returns a Future representing that task. Parameters: task - task key - key Returns: a Future representing pending completion of the task I believe that I'm not alone to have a cluster built with multiple maps which might actually use the same key for different purposes, holding different objects (e.g. something along the following setup): IMap<String, ObjectTypeA> firstMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("firstMap"); IMap<String, ObjectTypeA_AppendixClass> secondMap = HazelcastInstance.getMap("secondMap"); To me it seems quite confusing what documentation says about the owner of a key. My real frustration is that I don't know WHICH - in which map - key does it refer to? The documentation also gives a "demo" of this approach: import com.hazelcast.core.Member; import com.hazelcast.core.Hazelcast; import com.hazelcast.core.IExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Callable; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.Set; import com.hazelcast.config.Config; public void echoOnTheMemberOwningTheKey(String input, Object key) throws Exception { Callable<String> task = new Echo(input); HazelcastInstance hz = Hazelcast.newHazelcastInstance(); IExecutorService executorService = hz.getExecutorService("default"); Future<String> future = executorService.submitToKeyOwner(task, key); String echoResult = future.get(); } Here's a link to the documentation site: Hazelcast MultiHTML Documentation 3.0 - Distributed Execution Did any of you guys figure out in the past what key does it want?

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  • SQL Server: Clutering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means i want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But i can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. i could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic i want for a candidate cluster key. So i cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, i use what i already have. What i'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • WPF Collapsed Grid not Styling

    - by Eric
    So, I have a grid inside a listbox. The purpose is that when the listboxitem is selected, I want the grid to show, having the selected item expand to show more detail information. I set up a style trigger for this and it works great, except for one thing: the labels and textblocks styles are unapplied on the grid. I'm assuming this has something to do with the default state of the listboxitem being collapsed, so wpf skips the styles, I was hoping it would put them on when selected fired, but it doesn't. If I use Style="{StaticResource Mystyle}" on each label/textblock, it styles fine, it just seems to not be doing the inherited style magic like it does with visible grids elsewhere in the app. See code below, the labels don't show up bolded or anything when the grid appears. <Style TargetType="{x:Type Grid}" x:Key="ListBoxItemCollapseGrid"> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource= { RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Collapsed" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> <Style.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Setter Property="FontWeight" Value="Bold" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="{StaticResource BaseText}" /> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="3,0,0,0" /> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TextBlock}"> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="{StaticResource BaseText}" /> </Style> </Style.Resources> </Style>

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  • Flex AS3: ComboBox set visible to false doesn't hide

    - by jolierouge
    I have a combobox in a view that receives information about application state changes, and then is supposed to show or hide it's children based on the whole application state. It receives state change messages, it traces the correct values, it does what it's supposed to do, however, it just doesn't seem to work. Essentially, all it needs to do is hide a combobox during one state, and show it again during another state. Here is the code: public function updateState(event:* = null):void { trace("Project Panel Updating State"); switch(ApplicationData.getSelf().currentState) { case 'login': this.visible = false; break; case 'grid': this.visible = true; listProjects.includeInLayout = false; listProjects.visible = false; trace("ListProjects: " + listProjects.visible); listLang.visible = true; break; default: break; } } Here is the MXML: <mx:HBox> <mx:Button id="btnLoad" x="422" y="84" label="Load" enabled="true" click="loadProject();"/> <mx:ComboBox id="listProjects" x="652" y="85" editable="true" change="listChange()" color="#050CA8" fontFamily="Arial" /> <mx:Label x="480" y="86" text="Language:" id="label3" fontFamily="Arial" /> <mx:ComboBox id="listLang" x="537" y="84" editable="true" dataProvider="{langList}" color="#050CA8" fontFamily="Arial" width="107" change="listLangChange(event)"/> <mx:CheckBox x="830" y="84" label="Languages in English" id="langCheckbox" click='toggleLang()'/> </mx:HBox>

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  • Switch statement usage - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a thread function on Process B that contains a switch to perform certain operations based on the results of an event sent from Process A, these are stored as two elements in an array. I set the first element to the event which signals when Process A has data to send and I have the second element set to the event which indicates when Process A has closed. I have began to implement the functionality for the switch statement but I'm not getting the results as I expect. Consider the following: // //Thread function DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { for(i = 0; i < 2; i++) { ghEvents[i] = OpenEvent(EVENT_ALL_ACCESS, FALSE, TEXT("Global\\ProducerEvents")); if(ghEvents[i] == NULL) { getlasterror = GetLastError(); } } dwProducerEventResult = WaitForMultipleObjects( 2, ghEvents, FALSE, INFINITE); switch (dwProducerEventResult) { case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 0: { //Producer sent data //unpackedHandle = *((HWND*)passedHandle); MessageBox(NULL,L"Test",L"Test",MB_OK); break; } case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 1: { //Producer closed ExitProcess(1); break; } default: return; } } As you can see if the event in the first array is signalled Process B should display a simple message box, if the second array is signalled the application should close. When I actually close Process A, Process B displays the message box instead. If I leave the first case blank (Do nothing) both applications close as they should. Furthermore Process B sends data an error is thrown (When I comment out the unpacking): Have I implemented my switch statement incorrectly? I though I handled the unpacking of the HWND correctly too, any suggestions? Thanks for your time.

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