Search Results

Search found 21028 results on 842 pages for 'single player'.

Page 728/842 | < Previous Page | 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735  | Next Page >

  • Bind to a property of a parent element in wpf

    - by msfanboy
    Hello all, I want to bind the Height property of the RichTextBox to the Height Property of the GridViews Row. How can I do that? I do not know how to get the Rows Height as I can not access the Row in xaml what I would like to do. <my:RadGridView Height="524" ItemsSource="{Binding Lessons}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" VerticalAlignment="Top" SelectionMode="Single" CanUserSortColumns="False" IsFilteringAllowed="False"> <my:RadGridView.Columns> <my:GridViewDataColumn Name="ContentColumn" Width="0.3*" Header="Content"> <my:GridViewDataColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <RichTextBox Height="{Binding ElementName=MyRowNameToBindTo,Path=Height}"> <FlowDocument> <Paragraph> <Run Text="{Binding Content}"/> </Paragraph> </FlowDocument> </RichTextBox> </DataTemplate> </my:GridViewDataColumn.CellTemplate> ...

    Read the article

  • entity framework vNext wish list

    - by Fred Yang
    I have been intensively studying and use ef4 in my project. I do feel the improvement that it has over version 1. But I found that I have something I cannot get around easily. Here is a list I want it to be better in ef vNext. the model designer should allow multiple view of the same model, so that I don't need cram all my entity into a single view. respect user's manual edit of edmx. Currently, the some database view object simply can not be imported to the model because the designer "smartly" think that the view does not have a primary key, so that I have to manually edit the edmx to correct designer's behavior. But in the next "update from database" task, designer will revert my customization. For now, I simply fallback to manually edit the edmx file at all, or I have to use compare tool to keep the new update, and rollback and put the new update into my old edmx file manually. Designer should be improved to allow default behavior and user's manual control. I want control not to let the designer refresh the change of imported object. support user defined table function. linq is about Composability, stored proc dos not support composability. I wish I could use user defined table function which support this. What are you wishes for EF vNext?

    Read the article

  • Active Directory Membership Provider - how to expand on this?

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm working on getting an MVC app up and running via AD Membership Provider and I'm having some issues figuring this out. I have a base configuration setup and working when I login as [email protected] + password. <connectionStrings> <add name="MyConnString" connectionString="LDAP://domaincontroller/OU=Product Users,DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com" /> </connectionStrings> <membership defaultProvider="MyProvider"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyProvider" connectionStringName="MyConnString" connectionUsername="my.domain.com\service_account" connectionPassword="biguglypassword" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> However, I'd LIKE to do some other things and I'm not sure how to go about them. Login without typing the domain (i.e. the "@my.domain.com"). I realize that this could only work if I limit myself to just one domain - that's fine. Organize users in up to N different OUs within a single OU. As you can tell from my current connection string, I'm authenticating users in my Product Users OU. I would LIKE to create OUs for various companies within this OU and put the users into those OUs. How can I authenticate across all of these different OUs? I'm trying to figure out how the Active Directory Membership Provider ties in with the Profile and Role providers. Are there AD versions of those too or am I stuck with SQL, home-grown, or finding something somebody else has coded up? Many thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Database localization

    - by Don
    Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

    Read the article

  • ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

    - by Metiu
    I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

    Read the article

  • Show NSSegmentedControl menu when segment clicked, despite having set action

    - by Justin Williams
    I have an NSSegmentedControl on my UI with 4 buttons. The control is connected to a method that will call different methods depending on which segment is clicked: - (IBAction)performActionFromClick:(id)sender { NSInteger selectedSegment = [sender selectedSegment]; NSInteger clickedSegmentTag = [[sender cell] tagForSegment:selectedSegment]; switch (clickedSegmentTag) { case 0: [self showNewEventWindow:nil]; break; case 1: [self showNewTaskWindow:nil]; break; case 2: [self toggleTaskSplitView:nil]; break; case 3: [self showGearMenu]; break; } } Segment 4 has has a menu attached to it in the awakeFromNib method. I'd like this menu to drop down when the user clicks the segment. At this point, it only will drop if the user clicks & holds down on the menu. From my research online this is because of the connected action. I'm presently working around it by using some code to get the origin point of the segment control and popping up the context menu using NSMenu's popUpContextMenu:withEvent:forView but this is pretty hacktastic and looks bad compared to the standard behavior of having the menu drop down below the segmented control cell. Is there a way I can have the menu drop down as it should after a single click rather than doing the hacky context menu thing?

    Read the article

  • Efficient way to store order in mySQL for list of items

    - by ninumedia
    I want to code cleaner and more efficiently and I wanted to know any other suggestions for the following problem: I have a mySQL database that holds data about a set of photograph names. Oh, say 100 photograph names Table 1: (photos) has the following fields: photo_id, photo_name Ex data: 1 | sunshine.jpg 2 | cloudy.jpg 3 | rainy.jpg 4 | hazy.jpg ... Table 2: (categories) has the following fields: category_id, category_name, category_order Ex data: 1 | Summer Shots | 1,2,4 2 | Winter Shots | 2,3 3 | All Seasons | 1,2,3,4 ... Is it efficient to store the order of the photos in this manner per entry via comma delimited values? It's one approach I have seen used before but I wanted to know if something else is faster in run time. Using this way I don't think it is possible to do a direct INNER JOIN on the category table and photo table to get a single matched list of all the photographs per category. Ex: Summer shots - sunshine.jpg, cloudy.jpg, hazy.jpg because it was matched against 1,2,4 The iteration through all the categories and then the photos will have a O(n^2) and there has to be a better/faster way. Please educate me :)

    Read the article

  • Mysql partitioning: Partitions outside of date range is included

    - by Sturlum
    Hi, I have just tried to configure partitions based on date, but it seems that mysql still includes a partition with no relevant data. It will use the relevant partition but also include the oldest for some reason. Am I doing it wrong? The version is 5.1.44 (MyISAM) I first added a few partitions based on "day", which is of type "date" ALTER TABLE ptest PARTITION BY RANGE(TO_DAYS(day)) ( PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-08-01')), PARTITION p2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-11-01')), PARTITION p3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-02-01')), PARTITION p4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-05-01')) ); After a query, I find that it uses the "old" partition, that should not contain any relevant data. mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day between '2010-03-11' and '2010-03-12'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p1,p4 | range | day | day | 3 | NULL | 79 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ When I select a single day, it works: mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day = '2010-03-11'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p4 | ref | day | day | 3 | const | 39 | | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+

    Read the article

  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

    Read the article

  • Mysql Performance Question - Essentially about normalizing efficiency

    - by freqmode
    Hi there. Just a quick question about database performance. I'll outline my site purpose below as background. I'm creating a dictionary site that saves the words users define to a database. What I'm wondering is whether or not to create a words table for each user or to keep one massive words table. This site will be used for entire schools so the single words table would be massive! The database structure is as follows: A user table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Username First Last Password Email Country Research Standings SendInfo Donated JoinedOn LastLogin Logins Correct Attempts Admin Active And one word table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Word Vocab Spell Defined DefinedAttempted Spelled SpelledAttempted Sentenced SentencedAttempted So what I'm asking is , performance-wise, should I create a new table for each user when they join the site - each user could have hundreds or thousands of words over time? Or is it better to have one massive table with thousands and thousands of records and filter by User_ID. I don't think I'll perform many table joins. My gut feeling is to create a new table for each user, but I thought I'd ask for expert advice! Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Azure Mobile Services with persistent authentication

    - by akshay2000
    I am trying to implement authentication with Windows Azure Mobile Services in my Windows Phone app. I have followed the official tutorials and the authentication works fine. The issue is that, whenever the app is closed and started again, the user has to enter username and password. Since the services only use authentication tokens, the 'Remember me' option on log in page is not likely to work. The official documentation for Windows Azure shows possibility of Single Sign On with the Microsoft account using the Live SDK. The Live SDK provides authentication token in form of string. However, even this token expires in about 24 hours. Moreover, this is restricted to the Microsoft Account only. What are my possibilities if I want to cache the user's identity and enable automatic log in? I have already gone through the article here. User will still have to log in again once the token expires. I have seen apps which require user to sign in only once!

    Read the article

  • PHP script stops running arbitrarily with no errors.

    - by RobHardgood
    I was working on a fairly long script that seemed to stop running after about 20 minutes. After days of trying to figure out why, I decided to make a very simple script to see how long it would run without any complex code to confuse me. I found that the same thing was happening with this simple infinite loop. At some point between 15 and 25 minutes of running, it simply stopped. There is no error output at all. The bottom of the browser simply says "Done" and nothing else is processed. I've been over every single possible thing I could think of... set_time_limit, session.gc_maxlifetime in the php.ini as well as memory_limit and max_execution_time. The point that the script is stopped is never consistent. Sometimes it will stop at 15 minutes, sometimes 22 minutes, sometimes 17... But it's always long enough to be a PITA to test. Please, any help would be greatly appreciated. It is hosted on a 1and1 server. I contacted them and they couldn't help me... but I have a feeling they just didn't know enough.

    Read the article

  • Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

    - by Ninsuo
    I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

    Read the article

  • Implementing a c/c++ style union as a column in MySQL

    - by user81338
    Friends, I have a strange need and cannot think my way through the problem. The great and mighty Google is of little help due to keyword recycling (as you'll see). Can you help? What I want to do is store data of multiple types in a single column in MySQL. This is the database equivalent to a C union (and if you search for MySQL and Union, you obviously get a whole bunch of stuff on the UNION keyword in SQL). [Contrived and simplified case follows] So, let us say that we have people - who have names - and STORMTROOPERS - who have TK numbers. You cannot have BOTH a NAME and a TK number. You're either BOB SMITH -or- TK409. In C I could express this as a union, like so: union { char * name; int tkNo; } EmperialPersonnelRecord; This makes it so that I am either storing a pointer to a char array or an ID in the type EmperialPersonnelRecord, but not both. I am looking for a MySQL equivalent on a column. My column would store either an int, double, or varchar(255) (or whatever combination). But would only take up the space of the largest element. Is this possible? (of course anything is possible given enough time, money and will - I mean is it possible if I am poor, lazy and on a deadline... aka "out of the box")

    Read the article

  • Summarising grouped records in a dataframe in R (...again)

    - by monch1962
    Hello all, (I tried to ask this question earlier today, but later realised I over-simplified the question; the answers I received were correct, but I couldn't use them because of my over-simplification of the problem in the original question. Here's my 2nd attempt...) I have a data frame in R that looks like: "Timestamp", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , P1 , P2 , 5 , "ABCDE" 0.2 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "HIJ" 0.4 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "PQRS" 0.5 , P2 , P1 , 2 , "ZY" 0.9 , P2 , P1 , 4 , "SRQP" 1.1 , P1 , P2 , 1 , "B" 1.6 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "DEF" 2.0 , P2 , P1 , 3 , "IJK" ... and I want to convert this to: "StartTime", "EndTime", "Duration", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , 0.4 , 0.3 , P1 , P2 , 12 , "ABCDEHIJPQRS" 0.5 , 0.9 , 0.4 , P2 , P1 , 6 , "ZYSRQP" 1.1 , 1.6 , 0.5 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "BDEF" ... Trying to put this into English, I want to group consecutive records with the same 'Source' and 'Target' together, then print out a single record per group showing the StartTime, EndTime & Duration (=EndTime-StartTime) for that group, along with the sum of the Lengths for that group, and a concatenation of the Content (which will all be strings) in that group. The TimeOffset values will always increase throughout the data frame. I had a look at melt/recast and have a feeling that it could be used to solve the problem, but couldn't get my head around the documentation. I suspect it's possible to do this within R, but I really don't know where to start. In a pinch I could export the data frame out and do it in e.g. Python, but I'd prefer to stay within R if possible. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide

    Read the article

  • Bug with DataBinding in WPF Host in Winforms?

    - by Tigraine
    Hi Guys, I've spent far too much time with this and can't find the mistake. Maybe I'm missing something very obvious or I may have just found a bug in the WPF Element Host for Winforms. I am binding a ListView to a ObeservableList that lives on my ProductListViewModel. I'm trying to implement searching for the ListView with the general Idea to just change the ObservableList with a new list that is filtered. Anyway, the ListView Binding code looks like this: <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Products}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItem}" SelectionMode="Single"> <ListView.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type ListViewItem}"> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="{Binding IsSelected, Mode=TwoWay}"></Setter> </Style> </ListView.ItemContainerStyle> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}"></TextBlock> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> And the ViewModel code is as vanilla as it can get: private ObservableCollection<ProductViewModel> products; public ObservableCollection<ProductViewModel> Products { get { return products; } private set { if (products != value) { products = value; OnPropertyChanged("Products"); } } } Now the problem here: Once I debug into my OnPropertyChanged method, I can see that there are no subscribers to the PropertyChanged event (it's null), so nothing happens on the UI.. I already tried Mode=TwoWay and other Binding modes, it seems I can't get the ListView to subscribe to the ItemsSource... Can anyone help me with this? I'm just about to forget about the ElemenHost and just do it in Winforms greetings Daniel

    Read the article

  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

    - by Steven Huwig
    I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

    Read the article

  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

    Read the article

  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

    Read the article

  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

    Read the article

  • PDFBox: Problem with converting pdf page into image

    - by user552910
    My mission is pretty simple: converting every single page of a pdf file into images. I tried using icepdf open source version to generate the images but they don't generate the image with the correct font. So I start using PDFBox instead. The code is the following: PDDocument document = PDDocument.load(new File("testing.pdf")); List<PDPage> pages = document.getDocumentCatalog().getAllPages(); for (int i = 0; i < pages.size(); i++) { PDPage singlePage = pages.get(i); BufferedImage buffImage = convertToImage(singlePage, 8, 12); ImageIO.write(buffImage, "png", new File(PdfUtil.DATA_OUTPUT_DIR+(count++)+".png")); } The font looks good, but the pictures within the pdf file look fainted out (See the attachment). I look into the source code but I still have no clue how to fix it. Do you guys have any idea what's going on? Please help. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Moving Multiple Divs With Same Class Inside Parent

    - by superzilla
    So, My website is hosted on enjin.com and when you give users a tag with an image it appears on the forums under their name, however it's a vertical list with the tag names. I want to organize it so all of the tag images appear on one line and all of the tag names appear on a horizontal list below it. They use div tags somewhat like this <div class="tag"> <div class="tag-image"></div> <!-- If the tag lacks an image this is excluded --> <div class="tag-text">Tag Name</div> <!-- If you want the name to be hidden this is excluded --> </div> They then pretty much repeat this for every tag. Somewhat the same thing is used for forum posts too. So, I want to move all the tag-image divs together on a single line and all of the tag-text divs down and give each it's own line. I only want to move them within their parent element (to avoid images/tags from one forum user from going to another). I know how to append things with jquery and have googled how to move elements around, but I'm afraid that they're all going to end up together under another user's avatar.

    Read the article

  • Java Swing custom shapes (2D Graphics)

    - by juFo
    I need to draw custom shapes. Now when a user clicks on several points on the panel I create a shape using a polygon. public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) { polygon.addPoint(e.getX(), e.getY()); repaint(); } But I don't know if this is the best way to draw custom shapes. It should be possible to edit a drawn shape: resize change its fill color change the stroke color copy/paste it move a single point of the polygon ... I have seen people creating an own class implementing the Shape class and using a GeneralPath. But again I have no idea if this is a good way. Now I can create my own shape with a polygon (or with a GeneralPath) but I have no clue how to attach all the edit functions to my own shape (the edit functions I mean the resize, move, etc from above). I hope somebody could show me a way to do this or maybe write a little bit of code to demonstrate this. Thanks in advance!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735  | Next Page >