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  • Building Stored Procedure to group data into ranges with roughly equal results in each bucket

    - by Len
    I am trying to build one procedure to take a large amount of data and create 5 range buckets to display the data. the buckets ranges will have to be set according to the results. Here is my existing SP GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] Script Date: 03/28/2010 19:50:45 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] @idMenu int AS declare @myMin decimal(19,2), @myMax decimal(19,2), @myDif decimal(19,2), @range1 decimal(19,2), @range2 decimal(19,2), @range3 decimal(19,2), @range4 decimal(19,2), @range5 decimal(19,2), @range6 decimal(19,2) SELECT @myMin=Min(modelpropvalue), @myMax=Max(modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues where modelPropUnitDescriptionID=@idMenu set @myDif=(@myMax-@myMin)/5 set @range1=@myMin set @range2=@myMin+@myDif set @range3=@range2+@myDif set @range4=@range3+@myDif set @range5=@range4+@myDif set @range6=@range5+@myDif select @myMin,@myMax,@myDif,@range1,@range2,@range3,@range4,@range5,@range6 select t.range as myRange, count(*) as myCount from ( select case when modelpropvalue between @range1 and @range2 then 'range1' when modelpropvalue between @range2 and @range3 then 'range2' when modelpropvalue between @range3 and @range4 then 'range3' when modelpropvalue between @range4 and @range5 then 'range4' when modelpropvalue between @range5 and @range6 then 'range5' end as range from xmodelpropertyvalues where modelpropunitDescriptionID=@idmenu) t group by t.range order by t.range This calculates the min and max value from my table, works out the difference between the two and creates 5 buckets. The problem is that if there are a small amount of very high (or very low) values then the buckets will appear very distorted - as in these results... range1 2806 range2 296 range3 75 range5 1 Basically I want to rebuild the SP so it creates buckets with equal amounts of results in each. I have played around with some of the following approaches without quite nailing it... SELECT modelpropvalue, NTILE(5) OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues - this creates a new column with either 1,2,3,4 or 5 in it ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range1 and @range2 ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range2 and @range3 or maybe i could allocate every record a row number then divide into ranges from this?

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  • Very slow guards in my monadic random implementation (haskell)

    - by danpriduha
    Hi! I was tried to write one random number generator implementation, based on number class. I also add there Monad and MonadPlus instance. What mean "MonadPlus" and why I add this instance? Because of I want to use guards like here: -- test.hs -- import RandomMonad import Control.Monad import System.Random x = Rand (randomR (1 ::Integer, 3)) ::Rand StdGen Integer y = do a <-x guard (a /=2) guard (a /=1) return a here comes RandomMonad.hs file contents: -- RandomMonad.hs -- module RandomMonad where import Control.Monad import System.Random import Data.List data RandomGen g => Rand g a = Rand (g ->(a,g)) | RandZero instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => Monad (Rand g) where return x = Rand (\g ->(x,g)) (RandZero)>>= _ = RandZero (Rand argTransformer)>>=(parametricRandom) = Rand funTransformer where funTransformer g | isZero x = funTransformer g1 | otherwise = (getRandom x g1,getGen x g1) where x = parametricRandom val (val,g1) = argTransformer g isZero RandZero = True isZero _ = False instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => MonadPlus (Rand g) where mzero = RandZero RandZero `mplus` x = x x `mplus` RandZero = x x `mplus` y = x getRandom :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g ->a getRandom (Rand f) g = (fst (f g)) getGen :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g -> g getGen (Rand f) g = snd (f g) when I run ghci interpreter, and give following command getRandom y (mkStdGen 2000000000) I can see memory overflow on my computer (1G). It's not expected, and if I delete one guard, it works very fast. Why in this case it works too slow? What I do wrong?

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  • What does it mean to double license?

    - by Adrian Panasiuk
    What does it mean to double license code? I can't just put both licenses in the source files. That would mean that I mandate users to follow the rules of both of them, but the licenses will probably be contradictory (otherwise there'd be no reason to double license). I guess this is something like in cryptographic chaining, cipher = crypt_2(crypt_1(clear)) (generally) means, that cipher is neither the output of crypt_2 on clear nor the output of crypt_1 on clear. It's the output of the composition. Likewise, in double-licensing, in reality my code has one license, it's just that this new license says please follow all of the rules of license1, or all of the rules of license2, and you are hereby granted the right to redistribute this application under this "double" license, license1 or license2, or any license under which license1 or license2 allow you to redistribute this software, in which case you shall replace the relevant licensing information in this application with that of the new license. (Does this mean that before someone may use the app under license1, he has to perform the operation of redistributing to self? How would he document the fact that he did that operation?) Am I correct. What LICENSE file and what text to put in the source files would I need if I wanted to double license on, for the sake of example, Apachev2 and GPLv3 ?

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  • Simple Database normalization question...

    - by user365531
    Hi all, I have a quick question regarding a database that I am designing and making sure it is normalized... I have a customer table, with a primary key of customerId. It has a StatusCode column that has a code which reflects the customers account status ie. 1 = Open, 2 = Closed, 3 = Suspended etc... Now I would like to have another field in the customer table that flags whether the account is allowed to be suspended or not... certain customers will be automatically suspended if they break there trading terms... others not... so the relevant table fields will be as so: Customers (CustomerId(PK):StatusCode:IsSuspensionAllowed) Now both fields are dependent on the primary key as you can not determine the status or whether suspensions are allowed on a particular customer unless you know the specific customer, except of course when the IsSuspensionAllowed field is set to YES, the the customer should never have a StatusCode of 3 (Suspended). It seems from the above table design it is possible for this to happen unless a check contraint is added to my table. I can't see how another table could be added to the relational design to enforce this though as it's only in the case where IsSuspensionAllowed is set to YES and StatusCode is set to 3 when the two have a dependence on each other. So after my long winded explanation my question is this: Is this a normalization problem and I'm not seeing a relational design that will enforce this... or is it actually just a business rule that should be enforced with a check contraint and the table is in fact still normalized. Cheers, Steve

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  • php paging and the use of limit clause

    - by Average Joe
    Imagine you got a 1m record table and you want to limit the search results down to say 10,000 and not more than that. So what do I use for that? Well, the answer is use the limit clause. example select recid from mytable order by recid asc limit 10000 This is going to give me the last 10,000 records entered into this table. So far no paging. But the limit phrase is already in use. That brings to question to the next level. What if I want to page thru this record particular record set 100 recs at a time? Since the limit phrase is already part of the original query, how do I use it again, this time to take care of the paging? If the org. query did not have a limit clause to begin with, I'd adjust it as limit 0,100 and then adjusting it as 100,100 and then 200,100 and so on while the paging takes it course. But at this time, I cannot. You almost think you'd want to use two limit phrases one after the other - which is not not gonna work. limit 10000 limit 0,1000 for sure it would error out. So what's the solution in this particular case?

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  • Telerik RadGrid: grid clientside pagination

    - by ram
    I have a web service which returns me some data,I am massaging this data and using this as datasource for my radgrid (telerik). The datasource is quite large, and would like to paginate it. I found couple of problems when I paginate it in the server side I have to bind the grid again for pagination, which essentially means I have to make a call to WS again to get the data. This is an expensive call for me. I would rather forgo the benefits of pagination and would display all the results in the same page, except for it would be a bit clumsy During the postback RadGrid1.Items.Count happens to be the number of items getting paginated (25- in my case) which is expected as all the items in the datasource are not getting bound. This of course is not an issue. The real issue is that we have some checkboxes which get checked based on some business condition. We add this to our business object/DB later. So if the user has not navigated all the pages, these "checked" items do not get added as pagination limits the "Items" in the grid to those which get bound for that particular page index. My Thoughts: I would rather have some sort of client side pagination, where we can hide/show contents than going to the server and doing a databind every time. Though it will return all the results, the UI will not be clumsy and the grid would have "all the items" during postback Is there a way to do it ? If it were a regular asp.net gridView, can someone point me to a good article which would serve my purpose Ram PS: who else think radgrid is crazy ? (unfortunately I did not make this choice)

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  • How to not use JavaScript with in the elements events attributes but still load via AJAX

    - by thecoshman
    I am currently loading HTMl content via AJAX. I have code for things on different elements onclick attributes (and other event attributes). It does work, but I am starting to find that the code is getting rather large, and hard to read. I have also read that it is considered bad practice to have the event code 'inline' like this and that I should really do by element.onclick = foobar and have foobar defined somewhere else. I understand how with a static page it is fairly easy to do this, just have a script tag at the bottom of the page and once the page is loaded have it executed. This can then attach any and all events as you need them. But how can I get this sort of affect when loading content via AJAX. There is also the slight case that the content loaded can very depending on what is in the database, some times certain sections of HTML, such as tables of results, will not even be displayed there will be something else entirely. I can post some samples of code if any body needs them, but I have no idea what sort of things would help people with this one. I will point out, that I am using Jquery already so if it has some helpful little functions that would be rather sweet¬

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  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • Sending buffered images between Java client and Twisted Python socket server

    - by PattimusPrime
    I have a server-side function that draws an image with the Python Imaging Library. The Java client requests an image, which is returned via socket and converted to a BufferedImage. I prefix the data with the size of the image to be sent, followed by a CR. I then read this number of bytes from the socket input stream and attempt to use ImageIO to convert to a BufferedImage. In abbreviated code for the client: public String writeAndReadSocket(String request) { // Write text to the socket BufferedWriter bufferedWriter = new BufferedWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(socket.getOutputStream())); bufferedWriter.write(request); bufferedWriter.flush(); // Read text from the socket BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); // Read the prefixed size int size = Integer.parseInt(bufferedReader.readLine()); // Get that many bytes from the stream char[] buf = new char[size]; bufferedReader.read(buf, 0, size); return new String(buf); } public BufferedImage stringToBufferedImage(String imageBytes) { return ImageIO.read(new ByteArrayInputStream(s.getBytes())); } and the server: # Twisted server code here # The analog of the following method is called with the proper client # request and the result is written to the socket. def worker_thread(): img = draw_function() buf = StringIO.StringIO() img.save(buf, format="PNG") img_string = buf.getvalue() return "%i\r%s" % (sys.getsizeof(img_string), img_string) This works for sending and receiving Strings, but image conversion (usually) fails. I'm trying to understand why the images are not being read properly. My best guess is that the client is not reading the proper number of bytes, but I honestly don't know why that would be the case. Side notes: I realize that the char[]-to-String-to-bytes-to-BufferedImage Java logic is roundabout, but reading the bytestream directly produces the same errors. I have a version of this working where the client socket isn't persistent, ie. the request is processed and the connection is dropped. That version works fine, as I don't need to care about the image size, but I want to learn why the proposed approach doesn't work.

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  • smallest mysql type that accomodates single decimal

    - by donpal
    Database newbie here. I'm setting up a mysql table. One of the fields will accept a value in increment of a 0.5. e.g. 0.5, 1.0, 1.5, 2.0, .... 200.5, etc. I've tried int but it doesn't capture the decimals. `value` int(10), What would be the smallest type that can accommodate this value, considering it's only a single decimal. I also was considering that because the decimal will always be 0.5 if at all, I could store it in a separate boolean field? So I would have 2 fields instead. Is this a stupid or somewhat over complicated idea? I don't know if it really saves me any memory, and it might get slower now that I'm accessing 2 fields instead of 1 `value` int(10), `half` bool, //or something similar to boolean What are your suggestions guys? Is the first option better, and what's the smallest data type in that case that would get me the 0.5?

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  • Question about Client IDs

    - by George
    I have a user control that is emmitting javascript using the ClientId function. For example: Out &= "ValidatorHookupControlID(" & Quote & ddlMonth.ClientID & Quote & "), document.all(" & Quote & CustomValidator1.ClientID & Quote & "));" & vbCrLf It appears to me that the ClientID function DOES not return the ultimate ID that is sent to the browser. Instead, the ClientID function only appears to be aware of its current parent control, which in this case is a the User Control and so the ID that is returned is the ID "dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" When in fact the usercontrol is included in a master page and the ultimate ID that is used is: "ctl00_phPageContent_dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" I may be nuts, but that's what it appears to be doing. I expect that the ClientID function would return the ultimate ID used in the HTML. Am I missing something?

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  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • Mmap and structure

    - by blid..pl
    I'm working some code including communication between processes, using semaphores. I made structure like this: typedef struct container { sem_t resource, mutex; int counter; } container; and use in that way (in main app and the same in subordinate processes) container *memory; shm_unlink("MYSHM"); //just in case fd = shm_open("MYSHM", O_RDWR|O_CREAT|O_EXCL, 0); if(fd == -1) { printf("Error"); exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } memory = mmap(NULL, sizeof(container), PROT_READ|PROT_WRITE, MAP_SHARED, fd, 0); ftruncate(fd, sizeof(container)); Everything is fine when I use one of the sem_ functions, but when I try to do something like memory->counter = 5; It doesn't work. Probably I got something wrong with pointers, but I tried almost everything and nothing seems to work. Maybe there's a better way to share variables, structures etc between processes ? Unfortunately I'm not allowed to use boost or something similiar, the code is for educational purposes and I'm intentend to keep as simple as it's possible.

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  • Hide the last children of an XML data provider (not to be displayed in mx:Tree)

    - by Andree
    Hi there! I have an hierachical XML data, and I want to display it as a tree. The XML data is something like this: <services> <service name="TestService" endpoint=""> <method name="sayHi"> <parameter name="firstName" /> <parameter name="lastName" /> </method> <method name="sayGoodbye"> <parameter name="firstName" /> <parameter name="lastName" /> </method> </service> <service name="AnotherTestService"> <method name="getName" /> <method name="setName"> <parameter name="name" /> </method> </service> </services> However, I don't want to display the last elements (parameters) in the tree because, well, it is not meant to be displayed, but still it has to be there. Any advice on how can I achieve that? I am thinking of either extending DefaultDataDescriptor or create a class which implement ITreeDataDescriptor. Which approach will be suitable in this case?

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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  • Help with accessing a pre-existing window AFTER opener is refreshed!

    - by Wilhelm Murdoch
    Alright, I'm at my wit's end on this issue. First, backstory. I'm working on a video management system where we're allowing users, when adding new content, to upload and, optionally, transcode a media file. We're using Java applet for the browser-based FTP client. What I want to do is allow a user to initiate an upload and then send the FTP connection instance to a popup window. This window will act as a job queue for the FTP transfer process. This will allow users to move about the main interface without having to stay on the original page until an individual file transfer is complete. For the most part I have all of this working, but here's a problem. If the window is closed, all connections are dropped and the upload process for all queued files will be canceled. So, if Window One opens the Popup Window, adds stuff to the queue, refreshes the screen or moves to a different page, how will I access the Popup Window? The popup window and its contents must remain persistent while the user navigates through the original window. The original window must be able to access the popup to add a new job to the queue. The popup window itself is independent of the opening window, so communication only happens in one direction: Parent - Popup Not Parent <- Popup Window.open(null, 'WINDOW_NAME'); will not work in this case. I need to check if a window exists BEFORE using window.open. Help!?!?

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  • How can I strip Python logging calls without commenting them out?

    - by cdleary
    Today I was thinking about a Python project I wrote about a year back where I used logging pretty extensively. I remember having to comment out a lot of logging calls in inner-loop-like scenarios (the 90% code) because of the overhead (hotshot indicated it was one of my biggest bottlenecks). I wonder now if there's some canonical way to programmatically strip out logging calls in Python applications without commenting and uncommenting all the time. I'd think you could use inspection/recompilation or bytecode manipulation to do something like this and target only the code objects that are causing bottlenecks. This way, you could add a manipulator as a post-compilation step and use a centralized configuration file, like so: [Leave ERROR and above] my_module.SomeClass.method_with_lots_of_warn_calls [Leave WARN and above] my_module.SomeOtherClass.method_with_lots_of_info_calls [Leave INFO and above] my_module.SomeWeirdClass.method_with_lots_of_debug_calls Of course, you'd want to use it sparingly and probably with per-function granularity -- only for code objects that have shown logging to be a bottleneck. Anybody know of anything like this? Note: There are a few things that make this more difficult to do in a performant manner because of dynamic typing and late binding. For example, any calls to a method named debug may have to be wrapped with an if not isinstance(log, Logger). In any case, I'm assuming all of the minor details can be overcome, either by a gentleman's agreement or some run-time checking. :-)

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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  • Reversing a circular deque without a sentinel

    - by SDLFunTimes
    Hey Stackoverflow I'm working on my homework and I'm trying to reverse a circular-linked deque without a sentinel. Here are my data structures: struct DLink { TYPE value; struct DLink * next; struct DLink * prev; }; struct cirListDeque { int size; struct DLink *back; }; Here's my approach to reversing the deque: void reverseCirListDeque(struct cirListDeque* q) { struct DLink* current; struct DLink* temp; temp = q->back->next; q->back->next = q->back->prev; q->back->prev = temp; current = q->back->next; while(current != q->back->next) { temp = current->next; current->next = current->prev; current->prev = temp; current = current->next; } } However when I run it and put values 1, 2 and 3 on it (TYPE is just a alias for int in this case) and reverse it I get 2, 3, null. Does anyone have any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

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  • Internet zone is opened when broswer is opened from installer created by .Net 3.5sp1

    - by priya
    Hi All, I have project created in VS2005 and .Net 2.0. The installation is a web-based installation. After installing the proe-requisites the installer opens up the browser to continue with web-based install. On this, it opens up in intranet zone and works perfectly. I recently migrated the project to VS2008 Sp1 and .Net 3.5sp1. No change in my code and the test environment. Here the browser gets opened up in the Internet zone which prevents it from moving forward, until unless I open up a new browser manually and copy paste the url. The internet security options on the both the case are - Internet --- High. For the case2, if i have the security internet option to be 'Medium', it works well. I am not sure why this issue comes up when I change the VS and .Net version. More over the browser gets opened with system priveleges rather than administrator privileges. Please let me know any solution on this. Thanks, Priya.R

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