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• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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• master pages, form pages, form runat=server > all onclick methods on master page?

  - by b0x0rz

  the problem i have is that i have multiple nested master pages: level 1: global (header, footer, login, navigation, etc...) level 2: specific (search pages, account pages, etc...) level 3: the page itself now, since only one form can have runat=server, i put the form at global page (so i can handle things like login, feedback, etc...). now with this solution i'd have to also put the for example level 3 (see above) methods, such as search also on the level 1 master page, but this will lead to this page being heavy (for development) with code from all places, even those that are used on a single page only (change email form for example). is there any way to delegate such methods (for example: ChangeEMail) from level 1 (global masterpage) to level 3 (the single page itself). to be even more clear: i want to NOT have to have the method ChangeEMail on the global master page code behind, but would like to 'MOVE' it somehow to the only page that will actually use it. the reason why it currently has to be on the global master is that global master has form runat=server and there can be only one of those per aspx page. this way it will be easier (more logical) to structure the code. thnx (hope i explained it correctly) have searched but did not find any general info on handling this case, usualy the answer is: have all the methods on the master page, but i don't like it. so ANY way of moving it to the specific page would be awesome. thnx

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• Can I specify default value?

  - by atch

  Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

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• Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

  - by Dean P

  Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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• Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

  - by Bob

  What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

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• Graphical glitches when adding cells and scrolling with UITableView

  - by Daniel I-S

  I am using a UITableView to display the results of a series of calculations. When the user hits 'calculate', I wish to add the latest result to the screen. This is done by adding a new cell to a 'results' section. The UITableViewCell object is added to an array, and then I use the following code to add this new row to what is displayed on the screen: [thisView beginUpdates]; [thisView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newIndexPath] withRowAnimation: UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [thisView endUpdates]; This results in the new cell being displayed. However, I then want to immediately scroll the screen down so that the new cell is the lowermost cell on-screen. I use the following code: [thisView scrollToRowAtIndexPath:newIndexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionBottom animated:YES]; This almost works great. However, the first time a cell is added and scrolled to, it appears onscreen only briefly before vanishing. The view scrolls down to the correct place, but the cell is not there. Scrolling the view by hand until this invisible new cell's position is offscreen, then back again, causes the cell to appear - after which it behaves normally. This only happens the first time a cell is added; subsequent cells don't have this problem. It also happens regardless of the combination of scrollToRowAtIndexPath and insertRowsAtIndexPath animation settings. There is also a problem where, if new cells are added repeatedly and quickly, the new cells stop 'connecting up'. The lowermost cell in a group is supposed to have rounded corners, and when a new cell is added these turn into square corners so that there is a clean join with the next cell in the group. In this case, however, a cell often does not lose its rounded edges despite not being the last cell anymore. This also gets corrected once the affected area moves offscreen and back. This method of adding and scrolling would be perfect for my application if it weren't for these weird glitches. Any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong?

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• Time complexity to fill hash table (homework)?

  - by Heathcliff

  This is a homework question, but I think there's something missing from it. It asks: Provide a sequence of m keys to fill a hash table implemented with linear probing, such that the time to fill it is minimum. And then Provide another sequence of m keys, but such that the time fill it is maximum. Repeat these two questions if the hash table implements quadratic probing I can only assume that the hash table has size m, both because it's the only number given and because we have been using that letter to address a hash table size before when describing the load factor. But I can't think of any sequence to do the first without knowing the hash function that hashes the sequence into the table. If it is a bad hash function, such that, for instance, it hashes every entry to the same index, then both the minimum and maximum time to fill it will take O(n) time, regardless of what the sequence looks like. And in the average case, where I assume the hash function is OK, how am I suppossed to know how long it will take for that hash function to fill the table? Aren't these questions linked to the hash function stronger than they are to the sequence that is hashed? As for the second question, I can assume that, regardless of the hash function, a sequence of size m with the same key repeated m-times will provide the maximum time, because it will cause linear probing from the second entry on. I think that will take O(n) time. Is that correct? Thanks

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• JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

  - by Collin Peters

  I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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• Regex: match a non nested code block

  - by Sylvanas Garde

  I am currently writing a small texteditor. With this texteditor users are able to create small scripts for a very simple scripting engine. For a better overview I want to highlight codeblocks with the same command like GoTo(x,y) or Draw(x,y). To achieve this I want to use Regular Expresions (I am already using it to highlight other things like variables) Here is my Expression (I know it's very ugly): /(?<!GoTo|Draw|Example)(^(?:GoTo|Draw|Example)\(.+\)*?$)+(?!GoTo|Draw|Example)/gm It matches the following: lala GoTo(5656) -> MATCH 1 sdsd GoTo(sdsd) --comment -> MATCH 2 GoTo(23329); -> MATCH 3 Test() GoTo(12) -> MATCH 4 LALA Draw(23) -> MATCH 5 Draw(24) -> MATCH 6 Draw(25) -> MATCH 7 But what I want to achieve is, that the complete "blocks" of the same command are matched. In this case Match 2 & 4 and Match 5 & 6 & 7 should be one match. Tested with http://regex101.com/, the programming lanuage is vb.net. Any advise would be very useful, Thanks in advance!

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• How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

  - by egervari

  I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

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• Ternary operator

  - by Antoine Leclair

  In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

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• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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• C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

  - by Hassan Syed

  The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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• Why doesn't C# do "simple" type inference on generics?

  - by Ken Birman

  Just curious: sure, we all know that the general case of type inference for generics is undecidable. And so C# won't do any kind of subtyping at all: if Foo<T> is a generic, Foo<int> isn't a subtype of Foo<T>, or Foo<Object> or of anything else you might cook up. And sure, we all hack around this with ugly interface or abstract class definitions. But... if you can't beat the general problem, why not just limit the solution to cases that are easy. For example, in my list above, it is OBVIOUS that Foo<int> is a subtype of Foo<T> and it would be trivial to check. Same for checking against Foo<Object>. So is there some other deep horror that would creep forth from the abyss if they were to just say, aw shucks, we'll do what we can? Or is this just some sort of religious purity on the part of the language guys at Microsoft?

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• How to do HABTM management with auto completion in Rails?

  - by Andrei

  I am looking for a good solution for a probably typical problem of managing models with HABTM association in Rails. Let's assume that we have two models -- products and categories: Products has_many :categorizations has_many :categories, :through => :categorizations Categories has_many :categorizations has_many :products, :through => :categorizations Categorization belongs_to :product belongs_to :category Pat Shaughnessy is developing modified auto_complete plugin which can allow to manage one-to-many (and many-to-many) association: For someone that would be enough, but I don't really like so many text fields. I guess it is possible to combine the Ryan Bates' screencasts used by Pat in a slightly different way, namely, using one text field with autocomplete: Also it would be better to remove from the list of suggested tasks (one-to-many), or products|categories (many-to-many) those which have been already added. In the case of products-categories relationship, such auto completion would be used both in the form for product, and in the form for category. I hope that there is an existing plugin for that. I am not very experienced in Ruby, and don't really know how to implement such logic by myself. Any help is appreciated!

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• datareader.close is called in if - else branching. How to validate datareader is actually closed usi

  - by tanmay

  Hi, I have written couple of custom rules in for fxcop 1.36. I have written a code to find weather opened datareader is closed or not. But it does not check which datareader object is calling the close() method so I can't be sure if all opened datareader objs are closed!! 2nd: if I am using data reader in IF else like if 1=2 dr = cmd.executeReader(); else dr = cmd2.execureReader(); end if in this case it will search for 2 datareader objects to be closed.. I am putting my code for more clarity. public override ProblemCollection Check(Member member) { Method method = member as Method; int countCatch =0; int countErrLog = 0; Instruction objInstr = null; if (method != null) { for (int i = 0; i < method.Instructions.Count; i++) { objInstr = method.Instructions[i]; if (objInstr.Value != null) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString().Contains("System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader")) { countCatch += 1; } if (countCatch>0) { if (objInstr.Value.ToString().Contains("System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.Close")) { countErrLog += 1; } } } } } if (countErrLog!=countCatch) { Resolution resolu = GetResolution(new string[] { method.ToString() }); Problems.Add(new Problem(resolu)); } return Problems; Thanks and regards, Tanmay.

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• Linux network stack : adding protocols with an LKM and dev_add_pack

  - by agent0range

  Hello, I have recently been trying to familiarize myself with the Linux Networking stack and device drivers (have both similarly named O'Reilly books) with the eventual goal of offloading UDP. I have already implemented UDP on the NIC but now the hard part... Rather than ask for assistance on this larger goal I was hoping someone could clarify for me a particular snippet I found that is part of a LKM which registeres a new protocol (OTP) that acts as a filter between the device driver and network stack. http://www.phrack.org/archives/55/p55_0x0c_Building%20Into%20The%20Linux%20Network%20Layer_by_lifeline%20&%20kossak.txt (Note: this Phrack article contains three different modules, code for the OTP is at the bottom of the page) In the init function of his example he has: otp_proto.type = htons(ETH_P_ALL); otp_proto.func = otp_func; dev_add_pack(&otp_proto); which (if I understand correctly) should register otp_proto as a packet sniffer and put it into the ptype_all data structure. My question is about the dev_add_pack. Is it the case that the protocol being registered as a filter will always be placed at this layer between L2 and the device driver? Or, for instance could I make such a filtering occur between the application and transport layers (analyze socket parameters) using the same process? I apologize if this is confusing - I am having some trouble wrapping my head around the bigger picture when it comes to modules altering kernel stack functionality. Thanks

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• Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

  - by Kon

  We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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• Is there a pattern for initializing objects created wth a DI container

  - by Igor Zevaka

  I am trying to get Unity to manage the creation of my objects and I want to have some initialization parameters that are not known until run-time: At the moment the only way I could think of the way to do it is to have an Init method on the interface. interface IMyIntf { void Initialize(string runTimeParam); string RunTimeParam { get; } } Then to use it (in Unity) I would do this: var IMyIntf = unityContainer.Resolve<IMyIntf>(); IMyIntf.Initialize("somevalue"); In this scenario runTimeParam param is determined at run-time based on user input. The trivial case here simply returns the value of runTimeParam but in reality the parameter will be something like file name and initialize method will do something with the file. This creates a number of issues, namely that the Initialize method is available on the interface and can be called multiple times. Setting a flag in the implementation and throwing exception on repeated call to Initialize seems way clunky. At the point where I resolve my interface I don't want to know anything about the implementation of IMyIntf. What I do want, though, is the knowledge that this interface needs certain one time initialization parameters. Is there a way to somehow annotate(attributes?) the interface with this information and pass those to framework when the object is created? Edit: Described the interface a bit more.

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• How do I rewrite a for loop with a shared dependency using actors

  - by Thomas Rynne

  We have some code which needs to run faster. Its already profiled so we would like to make use of multiple threads. Usually I would setup an in memory queue, and have a number of threads taking jobs of the queue and calculating the results. For the shared data I would use a ConcurrentHashMap or similar. I don't really want to go down that route again. From what I have read using actors will result in cleaner code and if I use akka migrating to more than 1 jvm should be easier. Is that true? However, I don't know how to think in actors so I am not sure where to start. To give a better idea of the problem here is some sample code: case class Trade(price:Double, volume:Int, stock:String) { def value(priceCalculator:PriceCalculator) = (priceCalculator.priceFor(stock)-> price)*volume } class PriceCalculator { def priceFor(stock:String) = { Thread.sleep(20)//a slow operation which can be cached 50.0 } } object ValueTrades { def valueAll(trades:List[Trade], priceCalculator:PriceCalculator):List[(Trade,Double)] = { trades.map { trade => (trade,trade.value(priceCalculator)) } } def main(args:Array[String]) { val trades = List( Trade(30.5, 10, "Foo"), Trade(30.5, 20, "Foo") //usually much longer ) val priceCalculator = new PriceCalculator val values = valueAll(trades, priceCalculator) } } I'd appreciate it if someone with experience using actors could suggest how this would map on to actors.

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• How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

  - by Andrew Florko

  User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

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• Unit testing code which uses Umbraco v4 API

  - by Jason Evans

  I'm trying to write a suite of integration tests, where I have custom code which uses the Umbraco API. The Umbraco database lives in a SQL Server CE 4.0 database (*.sdf file) and I've managed to get that association working fine. My problem looks to be dependancies in the Umbraco code. For example, I would like to create a new user for my tests, so I try: var user = User.MakeNew("developer", "developer", "mypassword", "[email protected]", adminUserType); Now as you can see, I have pass a user type which is an object. I've tried two separate ways to create the user type, both of which fail due to a null object exception: var adminUserType = UserType.GetUserType(1); var adminUserType2 = new UserType(1); The problem is that in each case the UserType code calls it's Cache method which uses the HttpRuntime class, which naturally is null. My question is this: Can someone suggest a way of writing integration tests against Umbraco code? Will I have to end up using a mocking framework such as TypeMock or JustMock?

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• Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

  - by Wolfgang

  There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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• "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

  - by sam

  I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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• .NET: Control Invoke() in Reflector

  - by sheepsimulator

  So, I was getting back into some .NET programming, and through a new feature in VS.NET 2010, it detected a case where I was trying to modify a control from a thread that didn't create that control, and pointed me to an article on MSDN about how you do this correctly... ' HOW TO WRITE TO A FORM CONTROL FROM A THREAD THAT DIDN'T CREATE THE CONTROL ' =========================================================================== ' Say you need to write to a UI text box that logs stuff... Delegate Sub WriteLogDelegate(ByVal [text] As String) Private Sub WriteLog(ByVal [text] As String) If Me.rtfLog.InvokeRequired Then ' We are not in the same thread! ' Create new WriteLogDelegate and invoke it on the same thread Dim d As New WriteLogDelegate(AddressOf WriteLog) Me.rtfLog.Invoke(d, New Object() {[text]}) Else ' We are totally in the same thread... ' Call AppendText like normal! Me.rtfLog.AppendText([text]) End If End Sub AND I WAS SO EXCITED BECAUSE I HAVE BEEN PUZZLED BY HOW TO DO THIS FOR LIKE 5 YEARS BECAUSE PREVIOUS VERSIONS OF VS.NET DIDN'T FLAG THIS SINCE I WAS AN UNDERGRAD ON A PROJECT AND... Umm... Sorry bout that. Composure regained. Anyway, now that I know this bit of .NET-fu, I'd like to learn more about what's going on and how it works. Where can I find the code for Invoke() in .NET Reflector?

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