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  • C++: is it safe to work with std::vectors as if they were arrays?

    - by peoro
    I need to have a fixed-size array of elements and to call on them functions that require to know about how they're placed in memory, in particular: functions like glVertexPointer, that needs to know where the vertices are, how distant they are one from the other and so on. In my case vertices would be members of the elements to store. to get the index of an element within this array, I'd prefer to avoid having an index field within my elements, but would rather play with pointers arithmetic (ie: index of Element *x will be x - & array[0]) -- btw, this sounds dirty to me: is it good practice or should I do something else? Is it safe to use std::vector for this? Something makes me think that an std::array would be more appropriate but: Constructor and destructor for my structure will be rarely called: I don't mind about such overhead. I'm going to set the std::vector capacity to size I need (the size that would use for an std::array, thus won't take any overhead due to sporadic reallocation. I don't mind a little space overhead for std::vector's internal structure. I could use the ability to resize the vector (or better: to have a size chosen during setup), and I think there's no way to do this with std::array, since its size is a template parameter (that's too bad: I could do that even with an old C-like array, just dynamically allocating it on the heap). If std::vector is fine for my purpose I'd like to know into details if it will have some runtime overhead with respect to std::array (or to a plain C array): I know that it'll call the default constructor for any element once I increase its size (but I guess this won't cost anything if my data has got an empty default constructor?), same for destructor. Anything else?

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • Ternary operator

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • Getting basepath from view in zend framework

    - by mobmad
    Case: you're developing a site with Zend Framework and need relative links to the folder the webapp is deployed in. I.e. mysite.com/folder online and localhost:8080 under development. The following works nice in controllers regardless of deployed location: $this->_helper->redirector->gotoSimple($action, $controller, $module, $params); And the following inside a viewscript, ie. index.phtml: <a href="<?php echo $this->url(array('controller'=>'index', 'action' => 'index'), null, true); ?>"> But how do I get the correct basepath when linking to images or stylesheets? (in a layout.phtml file, for example): <img src='<?php echo WHAT_TO_TYPE_HERE; ?>images/logo.png' /> and $this->headLink()->appendStylesheet( WHAT_TO_TYPE_HERE . 'css/default.css'); WHAT_TO_TYPE_HERE should be replaced with something that gives <img src="/folder/images/logo.png />` on mysite.com and `<img src="/images/logo.png /> on localhost

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  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

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  • Pecking order of pigeons?

    - by sc_ray
    I was going though problems on graph theory posted by Prof. Ericksson from my alma-mater and came across this rather unique question about pigeons and their innate tendency to form pecking orders. The question goes as follows: Whenever groups of pigeons gather, they instinctively establish a pecking order. For any pair of pigeons, one pigeon always pecks the other, driving it away from food or potential mates. The same pair of pigeons always chooses the same pecking order, even after years of separation, no matter what other pigeons are around. Surprisingly, the overall pecking order can contain cycles—for example, pigeon A pecks pigeon B, which pecks pigeon C, which pecks pigeon A. Prove that any finite set of pigeons can be arranged in a row from left to right so that every pigeon pecks the pigeon immediately to its left. Since this is a question on Graph theory, the first things that crossed my mind that is this just asking for a topological sort of a graphs of relationships(relationships being the pecking order). What made this a little more complex was the fact that there can be cyclic relationships between the pigeons. If we have a cyclic dependency as follows: A-B-C-A where A pecks on B,B pecks on C and C goes back and pecks on A If we represent it in the way suggested by the problem, we have something as follows: C B A But the above given row ordering does not factor in the pecking order between C and A. I had another idea of solving it by mathematical induction where the base case is for two pigeons arranged according to their pecking order, assuming the pecking order arrangement is valid for n pigeons and then proving it to be true for n+1 pigeons. I am not sure if I am going down the wrong track here. Some insights into how I should be analyzing this problem will be helpful. Thanks

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  • Android, NetworkInfo.getTypeName(), NullpointerException

    - by moppel
    I have an activity which shows some List entries. When I click on a list item my app checks which connection type is available ("WIF" or "MOBILE"), through NetworkInfo.getTypeName(). As soon as I call this method I get a NullpointerException. Why? I tested this on the emulator, cause my phone is currently not available (it's broken...). I assume this is the problem? This is the only explanation that I have, if that's not the case I have no idea why this would be null. Here's some code snippet: public class VideoList extends ListActivity{ ... public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ final ConnectivityManager cm = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); ... listview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener(){ public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { ... NetworkInfo ni = cm.getActiveNetworkInfo(); String connex = ni.getTypeName(); //Nullpointer exception here if(connex.equals("WIFI")doSomething(); } }); } }

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  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

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  • How to "reduce" a hash?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

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  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

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  • Background color remaining when switching views

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • Dynamic loading of shared objects using dlopen()

    - by Andy
    Hi, I'm working on a plain X11 app. By default, my app only requires libX11.so and the standard gcc C and math libs. My app has also support for extensions like Xfixes and Xrender and the ALSA sound system. But this feature shall be made optional, i.e. if Xfixes/Xrender/ALSA is installed on the host system, my app will offer extended functionality. If Xfixes or Xrender or ALSA is not there, my app will still run but some functionality will not be available. To achieve this behaviour, I'm not linking dynamically against -lXfixes, -lXrender and -lasound. Instead, I'm opening these libraries manually using dlopen(). By doing it this way, I can be sure that my app won't fail in case one of these optional components is not present. Now to my question: What library names should I use when calling dlopen()? I've seen that these differ from distro to distro. For example, on openSUSE 11, they're named the following: libXfixes.so libXrender.so libasound.so On Ubuntu, however, the names have a version number attached, like this: libXfixes.so.3 libXrender.so.1 libasound.so.2 So trying to open "libXfixes.so" would fail on Ubuntu, although the lib is obviously there. It just has a version number attached. So how should my app handle this? Should I let my app scan /usr/lib/ first manually to see which libs we have and then choose an appropriate one? Or does anyone have a better idea? Thanks guys, Andy

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  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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  • How to do HABTM management with auto completion in Rails?

    - by Andrei
    I am looking for a good solution for a probably typical problem of managing models with HABTM association in Rails. Let's assume that we have two models -- products and categories: Products has_many :categorizations has_many :categories, :through => :categorizations Categories has_many :categorizations has_many :products, :through => :categorizations Categorization belongs_to :product belongs_to :category Pat Shaughnessy is developing modified auto_complete plugin which can allow to manage one-to-many (and many-to-many) association: For someone that would be enough, but I don't really like so many text fields. I guess it is possible to combine the Ryan Bates' screencasts used by Pat in a slightly different way, namely, using one text field with autocomplete: Also it would be better to remove from the list of suggested tasks (one-to-many), or products|categories (many-to-many) those which have been already added. In the case of products-categories relationship, such auto completion would be used both in the form for product, and in the form for category. I hope that there is an existing plugin for that. I am not very experienced in Ruby, and don't really know how to implement such logic by myself. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • Bootstrap - Typehead on multiple inputs

    - by Clem
    I have two text intputs, both have to run an autocompletion. The site is using Bootstrap, and the « typeahead » component. I have this HTML : <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="artist" /> <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="location" /> I'm using the « data-role » attribute (that is sent to the Ajax controller as a $_POST index), in order to determine what kind of data has to be retrieved from the database. The Javascript goes this way : var myTypeahead = $('input.js_typeahead').typeahead({ source: function(query, process){ var data_role; data_role = myTypeahead.attr('data-role'); return $.post('/ajax/typeahead', { query:query,data_role:data_role },function(data){ return process(data.options); }); } }); With PHP, I check what $_POST['data-role'] contains, an run the MySQL query (in this case, a query either on a list of Artists, or a list of Locations). But the problem is the second "typeahead" returns the same values than the first one (list of Artists). I assume it's because the listener is attached to the object « myTypeahead », and this way the "data-role" attribute which is used, will always be the same. I think I could fix it by using something like : data_role = $(this).attr('data-role'); But of course this doesn't work, as it's a different scope. Maybe I'm doing it all wrong, but at least maybe you people could give me a hint. Sorry if this has already been discussed, I actually searched but without success. Thanks in advance, Clem (from France, sorry for my english)

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  • How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • gluLookAt vectors and FPS-style camera

    - by Kevin Pamplona
    I am attempting to implemented an FPS-style camera by updating three vectors: EYE, DIR, UP. These vectors are the same that are used by gluLookAt (since gluLookAt is specified by the position of the camera, the direction it is looking at, and an up vector). I have already implemented the left-right and up-down strafing movements, but I'm having a lot of trouble understanding the math behind making the camera look-around while remaining stationary. In this case, the EYE vector remains the same, while I must update DIR and UP. Below is the code I tried, but it doesn't seem to work properly. Any suggestions? Thanks. void Transform::left(float degrees, vec3& dir, vec3& up) { vec3 axis; axis = glm::normalize(up); mat3 R = rotate(-degrees, axis); dir = R*dir; dir = R*up; }; void Transform::up(float degrees, vec3& dir, vec3& up) { vec3 axis; axis=glm::normalize(glm::cross(dir,up)); mat3 R = rotate(-degrees, axis); dir = R*dir-; up = R*up; };

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  • Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

    - by jpierson
    I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

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  • Single log file for multiple webapps

    - by Ashish Aggarwal
    In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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  • How do I integrate GUI elements from different classes at runtime?

    - by thefourthdoctor
    I'm trying to "future-proof" an application that I'm writing by splitting out those elements that are likely to change over time. In my application I need to be able to adapt to changes in the output format (e.g. today I output to a CSV file, in the future I may need to output directly to a SQL Server database, or to a web service, etc.). I'm handling this by defining an abstract class ("OutputProvider") that I will subclass for each individual case. The one aspect of this that has me stumped is how to provide a configuration GUI that is specific to each concrete class. I have a settings dialog with a tab for output configuration. On that tab I intend to provide a drop-down to select the provider and a JPanel beneath it to hold the contents of the provider-specific GUI. How do I get the right GUI in that panel at runtime and have it behave correctly with respect to events? Also, a bonus would be if there was a way to do this such that in order to add support for new providers I could simply provide a new jar or class file to be dropped in a specific folder and the application could pick that up at startup. I'm using NetBeans and Swing.

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • charsets in MySQL replication

    - by niklassaers
    Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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