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• If Then Statement Condition Being Ignored With Optimisations On

  - by Matma

  I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If EDIT: i have found that this is something to do with the release config settings im using, i guesing its the optimisations bit. does anyone know of any utils/addons for vs that show if a line has been optimised out. delphi, my former language showed blue dots in the left margin to show that it was a compiled line, no dot meaning it wasnt compiled in, is there anything like that for vs? alternatively can someone explain how optimisations would affect this simple if statement causeing it to run both sides? EDIT2: using this thread as possible causes/solutions : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2135509/bug-only-occurring-when-compile-optimization-enabled. It does the same with release = optimisations on, x86, x64 and AnyCPU Goes away with optimisations off. Im using V2005 on a x64 win7 machine, if that matters. Thanks

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• chaining array of tasks with continuation

  - by Andrei Cristof

  I have a Task structure that is a little bit complex(for me at least). The structure is: (where T = Task) T1, T2, T3... Tn. There's an array (a list of files), and the T's represent tasks created for each file. Each T has always two subtasks that it must complete or fail: Tn.1, Tn.2 - download and install. For each download (Tn.1) there are always two subtasks to try, download from two paths(Tn.1.1, Tn.1.2). Execution would be: First, download file: Tn1.1. If Tn.1.1 fails, then Tn.1.2 executes. If either from download tasks returns OK - execute Tn.2. If Tn.2 executed or failed - go to next Tn. I figured the first thing to do, was to write all this structure with jagged arrays: private void CreateTasks() { //main array Task<int>[][][] mainTask = new Task<int>[_queuedApps.Count][][]; for (int i = 0; i < mainTask.Length; i++) { Task<int>[][] arr = GenerateOperationTasks(); mainTask[i] = arr; } } private Task<int>[][] GenerateOperationTasks() { //two download tasks Task<int>[] downloadTasks = new Task<int>[2]; downloadTasks[0] = new Task<int>(() => { return 0; }); downloadTasks[1] = new Task<int>(() => { return 0; }); //one installation task Task<int>[] installTask = new Task<int>[1] { new Task<int>(() => { return 0; }) }; //operations Task is jagged - keeps tasks above Task<int>[][] operationTasks = new Task<int>[2][]; operationTasks[0] = downloadTasks; operationTasks[1] = installTask; return operationTasks; } So now I got my mainTask array of tasks, containing nicely ordered tasks just as described above. However after reading the docs on ContinuationTasks, I realise this does not help me since I must call e.g. Task.ContinueWith(Task2). I'm stumped about doing this on my mainTask array. I can't write mainTask[0].ContinueWith(mainTask[1]) because I dont know the size of the array. If I could somehow reference the next task in the array (but without knowing its index), but cant figure out how. Any ideas? Thank you very much for your help. Regards,

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• How do I use IImgCtx to get load an image with an alpha channel?

  - by fret

  I have some working code that uses IImgCtx to load images, but I can't work out how to get at the alpha channel. For images like .gif's and .png's there are transparent pixels, but using anything other than a 24-bit bitmap as a drawing surface doesn't work. For reference on the interface: http://www.codeproject.com/KB/graphics/JianImgCtxDecoder.aspx My code looks like this: IImgCtx *Ctx = 0; HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_IImgCtx, NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_IImgCtx, (LPVOID*)&Ctx); if (SUCCEEDED(hr)) { GVariant Fn = Name; hr = Ctx->Load(Fn.WStr(), 0); if (SUCCEEDED(hr)) { SIZE Size = { -1, -1 }; ULONG State = 0; while (true) { hr = Ctx->GetStateInfo(&State, &Size, false); if (SUCCEEDED(hr)) { if ((State & IMGLOAD_COMPLETE) || (State & IMGLOAD_STOPPED) || (State & IMGLOAD_ERROR)) { break; } else { LgiSleep(1); } } else break; } if (Size.cx > 0 && Size.cy > 0 && pDC.Reset(new GMemDC)) { if (pDC->Create(Size.cx, Size.cy, 32)) { HDC hDC = pDC->StartDC(); if (hDC) { RECT rc = { 0, 0, pDC->X(), pDC->Y() }; Ctx->Draw(hDC, &rc); pDC->EndDC(); } } else pDC.Reset(); } } Ctx->Release(); Where "StartDC" basically wraps CreateCompatibleDC(NULL) and "EndDC" wraps DeleteDC, with appropriate SelectObjects for the HBITMAPS etc. And pDC-Create(x, y, bit_depth) calls CreateDIBSection(...DIB_RGB_COLORS...). So it works if I create a 24 bits/pixel bitmap but has no alpha to speak of, and it leaves the 32 bits/pixel bitmap blank. Now this interface apparently is used by Internet Explorer to load images, and obviously THAT supports transparency, so I believe that it's possible to get some level of alpha out of the interface. The question is how? (I also have fall back code that will call libpng/libjpeg/my .gif loader etc)

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• Converting numbers to their language, how?

  - by SoLoGHoST

  Ok, I'm using mathematical equations to output numbers, though, I need this to be compatible for all languages. Currently, all language strings are within a php array called $txt, and each key of the array gets called for that language. I'm outputting the following: Column 1, Column 2, Column 3, and so on, as well as Row 1, Row 2, Row 3, and so on. The calculations are done via php and javascript, so I'm wondering on the best approach for how to support all languages for the numbers only. I don't do the translations, someone else does, but I need to be able to point it to, either the php variable $txt of where the language is defined, or, since the calculations are done via javascript also, I need to somehow store this in there. I'm thinking of storing something like this: // This part goes in the php language file. $txt['0'] = '0'; $txt['1'] = '1'; $txt['2'] = '2'; $txt['2'] = '3'; $txt['4'] = '4'; $txt['5'] = '5'; $txt['6'] = '6'; $txt['7'] = '7'; $txt['8'] = '8'; $txt['9'] = '9'; // This part goes in the php file that needs to call the numbers. echo '<script> var numtxts = new Array(); numtxts[0] = \'', $txt['0'], '\'; numtxts[1] = \'', $txt['1'], '\'; numtxts[2] = \'', $txt['2'], '\'; numtxts[3] = \'', $txt['3'], '\'; numtxts[4] = \'', $txt['4'], '\'; numtxts[5] = \'', $txt['5'], '\'; numtxts[6] = \'', $txt['6'], '\'; numtxts[7] = \'', $txt['7'], '\'; numtxts[8] = \'', $txt['8'], '\'; numtxts[9] = \'', $txt['9'], '\'; </script>'; And than in the javascript function it could grab the correct string for each number like so: // Example Number String below. var numString = "10"; var transNum = ""; for(x=0;x<numString.length;x++) { var numChar = numString.charAt(x); transNum += numtxts[parseInt(numChar)]; } return transNum; The problem with this bit of code is that it groups the numbers, not sure if all languages do that, like the english language does...? Perhaps there's a better approach for this? Can anyone help please? Thanks :)

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• WPF TreeView: How to style selected items with rounded corners like in Explorer

  - by Helge Klein

  The selected item in a WPF TreeView has a dark blue background with "sharp" corners. That looks a bit dated today: I would like to change the background to look like in Explorer of Windows 7 (with/without focus): What I tried so far does not remove the original dark blue background but paints a rounded border on top of it so that you see the dark blue color at the edges and at the left side - ugly. Interestingly, when my version does not have the focus, it looks pretty OK: I would like to refrain from redefining the control template as shown here or here. I want to set the minimum required properties to make the selected item look like in Explorer. Alternative: I would also be happy to have the focused selected item look like mine does now when it does not have the focus. When losing the focus, the color should change from blue to grey. Here is my code: <TreeView x:Name="TreeView" ItemsSource="{Binding TopLevelNodes}" VirtualizingStackPanel.IsVirtualizing="True" VirtualizingStackPanel.VirtualizationMode="Recycling"> <TreeView.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TreeViewItem}"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="{Binding IsExpanded, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="{Binding IsSelected, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="#FF7DA2CE" /> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFCCE2FC" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </TreeView.ItemContainerStyle> <TreeView.Resources> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type viewmodels:ObjectBaseViewModel}" ItemsSource="{Binding Children}"> <Border Name="ItemBorder" CornerRadius="2" Background="{Binding Background, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TreeViewItem}}" BorderBrush="{Binding BorderBrush, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TreeViewItem}}" BorderThickness="1"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" Margin="2"> <Image Name="icon" Source="/ExplorerTreeView/Images/folder.png"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Name}"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.Resources> </TreeView>

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• Zend_Auth / Zend_Session error and storing objects in Auth Storage

  - by Martin

  Hi All, I have been having a bit of a problem with Zend_Auth and keep getting an error within my Acl. Within my Login Controller I setup my Zend_Auth storage as follows $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); $result = $auth->authenticate($adapter); if ($result->isValid()) { $userId = $adapter->getResultRowObject(array('user_id'), null)->user_id; $user = new User_Model_User; $users = new User_Model_UserMapper; $users->find($userId, $user); $auth->getStorage()->write( $user ); } This seems to work well and I am able to use the object stored in the Zend_Auth storage within View Helpers without any problems. The problem that I seem to be having is when I try to use this within my Acl, below is a snippet from my Acl, as soon as it gets to the if($auth->hasIdentity()) { line I get the exception detailed further down. The $user->getUserLevel() is a methord within the User Model that allows me to convert the user_level_id that is stored in the database to a meaning full name. I am assuming that the auto loader sees these kind of methords and tries to load all the classes that would be required. When looking at the exception it appears to be struggling to find the class as it is stored in a module, I have the Auto Loader Name Space setup in my application.ini. Could anyone help with resolving this? class App_Controller_Plugin_Acl extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { protected $_roleName; public function __construct() { $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); if($auth->hasIdentity()) { $user = $auth->getIdentity(); $this->_roleName = strtolower($user->getUserLevel()); } else { $this->_roleName = 'guest'; } } } Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() - \Web\library\Zend\Loader.php(Line:146): Error #2 include_once() [&lt;a href='function.include'&gt;function.include&lt;/a&gt;]: Failed opening 'Menu\Model\UserLevel.php' for inclusion (include_path='\Web\application/../library;\Web\library;.;C:\php5\pear') Array' in \Web\library\Zend\Session.php:493 Stack trace: #0 \Web\library\Zend\Session\Namespace.php(143): Zend_Session::start(true) #1 \Web\library\Zend\Auth\Storage\Session.php(87): Zend_Session_Namespace-&gt;__construct('Zend_Auth') #2 \Web\library\Zend\Auth.php(91): Zend_Auth_Storage_Session-&gt;__construct() #3 \Web\library\Zend\A in \Web\library\Zend\Session.php on line 493 Thanks, Martin

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• PNGs alpha transparancy in AS3 - Unknown file-type

  - by WiseDonkey

  Hello there! After whittling down of the options we've encountered a problem with PNG's and ActionScript 3 (AS3). When loading a PNG 8 or PNG 32 with alpha transparancy we're getting the following error reported in Flash:- "Error #2124: Loaded file is an unknown type" Now, we're dealing with some legacy images, and it appears as though this problem isn't universal - some images believed to be 32bit alpha PNG are loading. BUT, some conclusions:- converting one image that was 32 bit alpha (NOT WORKING IN AS3) to PNG 8 index transparency DID work. And converting that same image to PNG 8 alpha DID NOT work. These all worked in AS2 There is no difference between the headers Headers of a Failing Image [0] => HTTP/1.1 200 OK [1] => Date: Tue, 06 Apr 2010 14:17:28 GMT [2] => Server: Apache/2.2.3 (Red Hat) [3] => Last-Modified: Tue, 06 Apr 2010 13:44:05 GMT [4] => ETag: "3700054-11d6-a3983340" [5] => Accept-Ranges: bytes [6] => Content-Length: 4566 [7] => Connection: close [8] => Content-Type: image/png Headers of a Working Image [0] => HTTP/1.1 200 OK [1] => Date: Tue, 06 Apr 2010 14:19:02 GMT [2] => Server: Apache/2.2.3 (Red Hat) [3] => Last-Modified: Fri, 30 Oct 2009 18:38:08 GMT [4] => ETag: "ba8057-65f2-5445c400" [5] => Accept-Ranges: bytes [6] => Content-Length: 26098 [7] => Connection: close [8] => Content-Type: image/png Any thoughts of a direction of further investigation or thoughts on a bewildering problem with little to no documentation; very warmly welcomed. EDIT Now it would appear as though something in the PHP conversion of the images is shafting; I use the following PHP to add alpha layers:- imagealphablending($image_p, false); ImageSaveAlpha($image_p, true); ImageFill($image_p, 0, 0, IMG_COLOR_TRANSPARENT);

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• Recursive XSLT, part 2

  - by Eric

  Ok, following on from my question here. Lets say my pages are now like this: A.xml: <page> <header>Page A</header> <content-a>Random content for page A</content-a> <content-b>More of page A's content</content-b> <content-c>More of page A's content</content-c> <!-- This doesn't keep going: there are a predefined number of sections --> </page> B.xml: <page include="A.xml"> <header>Page B</header> <content-a>Random content for page B</content-a> <content-b>More of page B's content</content-b> <content-c>More of page B's content</content-c> </page> C.xml: <page include="B.xml"> <header>Page C</header> <content-a>Random content for page C</content-a> <content-b>More of page C's content</content-b> <content-c>More of page C's content</content-c> </page> After the transform (on C.xml), I'd like to end up with this: <h1>Page C</h1> <div> <p>Random content for page C</p> <p>Random content for page B</p> <p>Random content for page A</p> </div> <div> <p>More of page C's content</p> <p>More of page B's content</p> <p>More of page A's content</p> </div> <div> <p>Yet more of page C's content</p> <p>Yet more of page B's content</p> <p>Yet more of page A's content</p> </div> I know that I can use document(@include) to include another document. However, the recursion is a bit beyond me. How would I go about writing such a transform?

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• Supplying a callback to Jeditable

  - by pjmorse

  Summary: When I try supplying a onsubmit or onreset callback to Jeditable, I get Object [function] has no method 'apply' errors. How I got here: I've been working on a rails plugin to supply Jeditable and jWYSIWYG for in-place WYSIWYG editing. Development is driven by a Rails project I'm working on which asks for specific functions. One of the options I added was the ability to trigger Jeditable's edit mode using a button instead of clicking on the editable text itself, following the pattern suggested in this answer. The next step, though, is to hide the button while in edit mode, and reveal it again when leaving edit mode. The hide is easy enough; I just added a line to the triggering function which sends .toggle() to the button. Reveal is trickier. I figure I need to .toggle() again on submit or cancel, and helpfully, Jeditable offers onsubmit and onreset callbacks. However, when I try using those callbacks, I get this Object [something] has no method 'apply' errors. What I'm trying: Because this is in the context of a Rails helper, the actual mechanics are a little more involved than this, but the upshot is that I'm trying to follow this pattern, handing Jeditable this in the args: "onsubmit":"showTrigger", and then including this script: function showTrigger(settings, original) { $(".edit_trigger[id='element_id']").toggle(); } However, on submitting changes or canceling an edit, I get the error Object showTrigger has no method 'apply' ...as described above. I also tried sending in a function directly as the "onsubmit" argument (i.e. "onsubmit": "function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();}" and then I just get Object function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();} has no method 'apply' instead. There must be something wrong with how I'm handing in this callback. Any ideas? ETA: This answer suggests to me that somehow I'm providing a string to Jeditable when it expects a function instead. However, because I'm working within the context of a Rails helper, I'm not at all sure how to fix that - the "showTrigger" bit is set as a Ruby variable in the helper, and although window.showTrigger() is defined when the window is loaded, I don't know how to designate that function within a Ruby variable such that it will be recognized as a function at page load time.

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• Sening a file from memory (rather than disk) over HTTP using libcurl

  - by cinek1lol

  Hi! I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + +. - OK WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); It works, but I would like to send the pictures from pre-loaded carrier to a variable char (you know what I mean? First off, I load the pictures into a variable and then send the variable), cause now I have to specify the path of the picture on a disk. I wanted to write this program in c++ by using the curl library, not through exe. extension. I have also found such a program (which has been modified by me a bit) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; }

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• Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the ground up

  - by Chris Thompson

  Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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• Android: dynamically setting links to text in strings.xml

  - by Martyn

  I'm trying to make an app with localisation built in, but I want a way that I can create a web link within the text, the URL being defined elsewhere (for ease of maintenance). So, I have my links in res/values/strings.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="link1">http://some.link.com</string> <string name="link2">http://some.link2.com</string> </resources> and my localised text in res/values-en-rGB/strings.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and link1\nMore text and link2.</string> </resources> I've not tested this bit, but from the localization section of developer.android.com it says that this approach to reducing content duplication should work, although I'm not sure what folder I should put Italian, for example. Would it be in 'res/values-it-rIT/strings.xml'? Lets assume that I have various other languages too. I'm looking for a way of taking the base localised 'sampleText' and inserting my html links in, and getting them to work when clicked on. I've tried two approaches so far: 1, Putting some formatting in the 'sampleText' (%s): <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and <a href="%s">link1</a>\nMore text and <a href="%s">link2</a>.</string> and then processing the text like this: TextView tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textHolder); tv.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.sampleText, getResources().getString(R.string.link1), getResources().getString(R.string.link2))); But this didn't work when I click on the link, even though the link text is being put in to the correct places. 2, I tried to use Linkify but the regular expression route may be difficult as I'm looking at supporting non-Latin based languages. I tried to put a custom xml tag around the link text and then do something like this: Pattern wordMatcher = Pattern.compile("<span1>.*</span1>"); String viewURL = "content://" + getResources().getString(R.string.someLink); Linkify.addLinks(tv, wordMatcher , viewURL ); But this didn't work either. So, I'd like to know if there's a way of dynamically adding multiple URLs to different sections of the same text which will link to web content? Thank you, Martyn

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• XSD sequence shows as abiguous!

  - by Tim C

  I have an XSD which was transformed from a RELAX NG schema with a few errors I am trying to fix. The big issue I have it with the following <xs:element name="list"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="preamble"/> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title"/> </xs:sequence> <xs:sequence> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title"/> <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="preamble"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:choice> <xs:group maxOccurs="unbounded" ref="block-selectionListItem"/> </xs:sequence> <xs:attributeGroup ref="attlist-selectionList"/> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> As you can see the xs:choice block allows you to pick between two xs:sequence blocks. Seems to make sense except that Visual Studio gives the following warning on the second <xs:element minOccurs="0" ref="title/> element which is throwing everything off: Multiple definition of element 'title' causes the content model to become ambiguous. A content model must be formed such that during validation of an element information item sequence, the particle contained directly, indirectly or implicitly therein with which to attempt to validate each item in the sequence in turn can be uniquely determined without examining the content or attributes of that item, and without any information about the items in the remainder of the sequence. Because you can only choose one I do not see how this is ambiguous. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Edit: To be a bit more concise here are the possible outputs of the XML that would validate with this schema: <list> <preamble>My Preamble</preamble> <title>My Title</title> </list> or: <list> <title>My Title</title> <preamble>My Preamble</preamble> </list> As you can see it can be either one way or the other but not both. Also you could just have a title or a preamble and not both.

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• Boggling Direct3D9 dynamic vertex buffer Lock crash/post-lock failure on Intel GMA X3100.

  - by nj

  Hi, For starters I'm a fairly seasoned graphics programmer but as wel all know, everyone makes mistakes. Unfortunately the codebase is a bit too large to start throwing sensible snippets here and re-creating the whole situation in an isolated CPP/codebase is too tall an order -- for which I am sorry, do not have the time. I'll do my best to explain. B.t.w, I will of course supply specific pieces of code if someone wonders how I'm handling this-or-that! As with all resources in the D3DPOOL_DEFAULT pool, when the device context is taken away from you you'll sooner or later will have to reset your resources. I've built a mechanism to handle this for all relevant resources that's been working for years; but that fact nothingwithstanding I've of course checked, asserted and doubted any assumption since this bug came to light. What happens is as follows: I have a rather large dynamic vertex buffer, exact size 18874368 bytes. This buffer is locked (and discarded fully using the D3DLOCK_DISCARD flag) each frame prior to generating dynamic geometry (isosurface-related, f.y.i) to it. This works fine, until, of course, I start to reset. It might take 1 time, it might take 2 or it might take 5 resets to set off a bug that causes an access violation either on the pointer returned by the Lock() operation on the renewed resource or a plain crash -- regarding a somewhat similar address, but without the offset that it has tacked on to it in the first case because in that case we're somewhere halfway writing -- iside the D3D9 dll Lock() call. I've tested this on other hardware, upgraded my GMA X3100 drivers (using a MacBook with BootCamp) to the latest ones, but I can't reproduce it on any other machine and I'm at a loss about what's wrong here. I have tried to reproduce a similar situation with a similar buffer (I've got a large scratch pad of the same type I filled with quads) and beyond a certain amount of bytes it started to behave likewise. I'm not asking for a solution here but I'm very interested if there are other developers here who have battled with the same foe or maybe some who can point me in some insightful direction, maybe ask some questions that might shed a light on what I may or may not be overlooking. Another interesting artifact is that the vertex buffer starts to bug if I supply both D3DLOCK_DISCARD and D3DLOCK_NOOVERWRITE together which, even though not very logical (you're not going to overwrite if you've just discarded all), gives graphics glitches. Thanks and any corrections are more than welcome. Niels p.s - A friend of mine raised the valid point that it is a huge buffer for onboard video RAM and it's being at least double or triple buffered internally due to it's dynamic nature. On the other hand, the debug output (D3D9 debug DLL + max. warning output) remains silent. p.s 2 - Had it tested on more machines and still works -- it's probably a matter of circumstance: the huge dynamic, internally double/trippled buffered buffer, not a lot of memory and drivers that don't complain when they should.. Unless someone has a better suggestion; I'd still love to hear it :)

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• Pylucene in Python 2.6 + MacOs Snow Leopard

  - by jbastos

  Greetings, I'm trying to install Pylucene on my 32-bit python running on Snow Leopard. I compiled JCC with success. But I get warnings while making pylucene: ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/__init__.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/__wrap01__.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/__wrap02__.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/__wrap03__.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/functions.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/JArray.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/JObject.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/lucene.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in build/temp.macosx-10.6-i386-2.6/build/_lucene/types.o, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.4u.sdk/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/JCC-2.3-py2.6-macosx-10.3-fat.egg/libjcc.dylib, file is not of required architecture ld: warning: in /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.4u.sdk/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/JCC-2.3-py2.6-macosx-10.3-fat.egg/libjcc.dylib, file is not of required architecture build of complete Then I try to import lucene: MacBookPro:~/tmp/trunk python Python 2.6.3 (r263:75184, Oct 2 2009, 07:56:03) [GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Inc. build 5493)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import pylucene Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named pylucene >>> import lucene Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/lucene-2.9.0-py2.6-macosx-10.6-i386.egg/lucene/__init__.py", line 7, in <module> import _lucene ImportError: dlopen(/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/lucene-2.9.0-py2.6-macosx-10.6-i386.egg/lucene/_lucene.so, 2): Symbol not found: __Z8getVMEnvP7_object Referenced from: /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/lucene-2.9.0-py2.6-macosx-10.6-i386.egg/lucene/_lucene.so Expected in: flat namespace in /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/lucene-2.9.0-py2.6-macosx-10.6-i386.egg/lucene/_lucene.so >>> Any hints?

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• Turning off ASP.Net WebForms authentication for one sub-directory

  - by Keith

  I have a large enterprise application containing both WebForms and MVC pages. It has existing authentication and authorisation settings that I don't want to change. The WebForms authentication is configured in the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms blah... blah... blah /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Fairly standard so far. I have a REST service that is part of this big application and I want to use HTTP authentication instead for this one service. So, when a user attempts to get JSON data from the REST service it returns an HTTP 401 status and a WWW-Authenticate header. If they respond with a correctly formed HTTP Authorization response it lets them in. The problem is that WebForms overrides this at a low level - if you return 401 (Unauthorised) it overrides that with a 302 (redirection to login page). That's fine in the browser but useless for a REST service. I want to turn off the authentication setting in the web.config: <location path="rest"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None" /> <authorization><allow users="?" /></authorization> </system.web> </location> The authorisation bit works fine, but when I try to change the authentication I get an exception: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. I'm configuring this at application level though - it's in the root web.config How do I override the authentication so that all of the rest of the site uses WebForms authentication and this one directory uses none? This is similar to another question: 401 response code for json requests with ASP.NET MVC, but I'm not looking for the same solution - I don't want to just remove the WebForms authentication and add new custom code globally, there's far to much risk and work involved. I want to change just the one directory in configuration.

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• Unit finalization order for application, compiled with run-time packages?

  - by Alexander

  I need to execute my code after finalization of SysUtils unit. I've placed my code in separate unit and included it first in uses clause of dpr-file, like this: project Project1; uses MyUnit, // <- my separate unit SysUtils, Classes, SomeOtherUnits; procedure Test; begin // end; begin SetProc(Test); end. MyUnit looks like this: unit MyUnit; interface procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); implementation var Test: TProcedure; procedure SetProc(AProc: TProcedure); begin Test := AProc; end; initialization finalization Test; end. Note that MyUnit doesn't have any uses. This is usual Windows exe, no console, without forms and compiled with default run-time packages. MyUnit is not part of any package (but I've tried to use it from package too). I expect that finalization section of MyUnit will be executed after finalization section of SysUtils. This is what Delphi's help tells me. However, this is not always the case. I have 2 test apps, which differs a bit by code in Test routine/dpr-file and units, listed in uses. MyUnit, however, is listed first in all cases. One application is run as expected: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... But the second is not. MyUnit's finalization is invoked before SysUtils's finalization. The actual call chain looks like this: Halt0 - FinalizeUnits - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (skipped) - MyUnit's finalization - ...other units... - SysUtils's finalization (executed) Both projects have very similar settings. I tried a lot to remove/minimize their differences, but I still do not see a reason for this behaviour. I've tried to debug this and found out that: it seems that every unit have some kind of reference counting. And it seems that InitTable contains multiply references to the same unit. When SysUtils's finalization section is called first time - it change reference counter and do nothing. Then MyUnit's finalization is executed. And then SysUtils is called again, but this time ref-count reaches zero and finalization section is executed: Finalization: // SysUtils' finalization 5003B3F0 55 push ebp // here and below is some form of stub 5003B3F1 8BEC mov ebp,esp 5003B3F3 33C0 xor eax,eax 5003B3F5 55 push ebp 5003B3F6 688EB50350 push $5003b58e 5003B3FB 64FF30 push dword ptr fs:[eax] 5003B3FE 648920 mov fs:[eax],esp 5003B401 FF05DCAD1150 inc dword ptr [$5011addc] // here: some sort of reference counter 5003B407 0F8573010000 jnz $5003b580 // <- this jump skips execution of finalization for first call 5003B40D B8CC4D0350 mov eax,$50034dcc // here and below is actual SysUtils' finalization section ... Can anyone can shred light on this issue? Am I missing something?

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• How to I serialize a large graph of .NET object into a SQL Server BLOB without creating a large bu

  - by Ian Ringrose

  We have code like: ms = New IO.MemoryStream bin = New System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter bin.Serialize(ms, largeGraphOfObjects) dataToSaveToDatabase = ms.ToArray() // put dataToSaveToDatabase in a Sql server BLOB But the memory steam allocates a large buffer from the large memory heap that is giving us problems. So how can we stream the data without needing enough free memory to hold the serialized objects. I am looking for a way to get a Stream from SQL server that can then be passed to bin.Serialize() so avoiding keeping all the data in my processes memory. Likewise for reading the data back... Some more background. This is part of a complex numerical processing system that processes data in near real time looking for equipment problems etc, the serialization is done to allow a restart when there is a problem with data quality from a data feed etc. (We store the data feeds and can rerun them after the operator has edited out bad values.) Therefore we serialize the object a lot more often then we de-serialize them. The objects we are serializing include very large arrays mostly of doubles as well as a lot of small “more normal” objects. We are pushing the memory limit on a 32 bit system and make the garage collector work very hard. (Effects are being made elsewhere in the system to improve this, e.g. reusing large arrays rather then create new arrays.) Often the serialization of the state is the last straw that courses an out of memory exception; our peak memory usage is while this serialization is being done. I think we get large memory pool fragmentation when we de-serialize the object, I expect there are also other problem with large memory pool fragmentation given the size of the arrays. (This has not yet been investigated, as the person that first looked at this is a numerical processing expert, not a memory management expert.) Are customers use a mix of Sql Server 2000, 2005 and 2008 and we would rather not have different code paths for each version of Sql Server if possible. We can have many active models at a time (in different process, across many machines), each model can have many saved states. Hence the saved state is stored in a database blob rather then a file. As the spread of saving the state is important, I would rather not serialize the object to a file, and then put the file in a BLOB one block at a time. Other related questions I have asked How to Stream data from/to SQL Server BLOB fields? Is there a SqlFileStream like class that works with Sql Server 2005?

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• Cocoa NSOutputStream send to a connection

  - by Chuck

  Hi, I am new to Cocoa, but managed to get a connection (to a FTP) up and running, and I've set up an eventhandler for the NSInputStream iStream to alert every response (which also works). What I manage to get is simply the hello message and a connection timeout 60 sec, closing control connection. After searching stackoverflow and finding a lot of NSOutputStream write problems (e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/703729/how-to-use-nsoutputstreams-write-message) and a lot of confusion in my google hits, I figured I'd try to ask my own question: I've tried reading the developer.apple.com doc on OutputStream, but it seems almost impossible for me to send some data (in this case just a string) to the "connection" via the NSOutputStream oStream. - (IBAction) send_something: sender { const char *send_command_char = [@"USER foo" UTF8String]; send_command_buffer = [NSMutableData dataWithBytes:send_command_char length:strlen(send_command_char) + 1]; uint8_t *readBytes = (uint8_t *)[send_command_buffer mutableBytes]; NSInteger byteIndex = 0; readBytes += byteIndex; int data_len = [send_command_buffer length]; unsigned int len = ((data_len - byteIndex >= 1024) ? 1024 : (data_len-byteIndex)); uint8_t buf[len]; (void)memcpy(buf, readBytes, len); len = [oStream write:(const uint8_t *)buf maxLength:len]; byteIndex += len; } the above seems not to result in any useable events. typing it under NSStreamEventHasSpaceAvailable sometimes give a response if I spam the ftp by keep creating new connection instances and keep sending some command whenever oStream has free space. In other words, nothing "right" and so I'm still unclear how to properly send a command to the connection. Should I open - write - close every time i want to write to oStream (and thus to the ftp) and can I then expect a reply (hasBytesAvailable event on iStream)? For some reason I find it very difficult to find any clear tutorials on this matter. Seems like there are more than a few in the same position as me: unclear how to use oStream write? Any little bit that can help clear this up is greatly appreciated! If needed I can write the rest of the code. Chuck

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• HttpClient response handler always returns closed stream

  - by Alex Ciminian

  I'm new to Java development so please bear with me. Also, I hope I'm not the champion of tl;dr :). I'm using HttpClient to make requests over Http (duh!) and I'd gotten it to work for a simple servlet that receives an URL as a query string parameter. I realized that my code could use some refactoring, so I decided to make my own HttpResponseHandler, to clean up the code, make it reusable and improve exception handling. I currently have something like this: public class HttpResponseHandler implements ResponseHandler<InputStream>{ public InputStream handleResponse(HttpResponse response) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { int statusCode = response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); InputStream in = null; if (statusCode != HttpStatus.SC_OK) { throw new HttpResponseException(statusCode, null); } else { HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { in = entity.getContent(); // This works // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); } } return in; } } And in the method where I make the actual request: HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(target); ResponseHandler<InputStream> httpResponseHandler = new HttpResponseHandler(); try { InputStream in = httpclient.execute(httpget, httpResponseHandler); // This doesn't work // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); return in; } catch (HttpResponseException e) { throw new HttpResponseException(e.getStatusCode(), null); } The problem is that the input stream returned from the handler is closed. I don't have any idea why, but I've checked it with the prints in my code (and no, I haven't used them both at the same time :). While the first print works, the other one gives a closed stream error. I need InputStreams, because all my other methods expect an InputStream and not a String. Also, I want to be able to retrieve images (or maybe other types of files), not just text files. I can work around this pretty easily by giving up on the response handler (I have a working implementation that doesn't use it), but I'm pretty curious about the following: Why does it do what it does? How do I open the stream, if something closes it? What's the right way to do this, anyway :)? I've checked the docs and I couldn't find anything useful regarding this issue. To save you a bit of Googling, here's the Javadoc and here's the HttpClient tutorial (Section 1.1.8 - Response handlers). Thanks, Alex

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• Help to understand and recode javascript function to deal with special characters.

  - by Cesar Lopez

  Hi all, I am trying to rewrite a javascript function since I was told this function its a bit nasty peace of code and it could be nicely written by a very kind user from here. I have been trying to understand what the function does, therefore I could rewrite it properly, but since I dont fully understand how it works its a very difficult task. Therefore I am looking for help and directions (NOT THE SOLUTION AS I WANT TO LEARN MYSELF) to understand and rewrite this function in a nicer way. The function its been made for dealing with special characters, and I know that it loops through the string sent to it, search for special characters, and add what it needs to the string to make it a valid string. I have been trying to use value.replace(/"/gi,"/""), but surely I am doing it wrong as it crashes. Could anybody tell me where to start to recode function? Any help would be appreciated. My comments on the function are in capital letters. Code <script type="text/javascript"> function convertString(value){ for(var z=0; z <= value.length -1; z++) { //if current character is a backslash||WHY IS IT CHECKING FOR \\,\\r\\n,and \\n? if(value.substring(z, z + 1)=="\\" && (value.substring(z, z + 4)!="\\r\\n" && value.substring(z, z + 2)!="\\n")) {//WHY IS IT ADDING \\\\ TO THE STRING? value = value.substring(0, z) + "\\\\" + value.substring(z + 1, value.length); z++; } if(value.substring(z, z + 1)=="\\" && value.substring(z, z + 4)=="\\r\\n") {//WHY IS IT ADDING 4 TO Z IN THIS CASE? z = z+4; } if(value.substring(z, z + 1)=="\\" && value.substring(z, z + 2)=="\\n") {//WHY IS IT ADDING 2 TO Z IN THIS CASE? z = z+2; } } //replace " with \" //loop through each character for(var x = 0; x <= value.length -1; x++){ //if current character is a quote if(value.substring(x, x + 1)=="\""){//THIS IS TO FIND \, BUT HAVENT THIS BEEN DONE BEFFORE? //concatenate: value up to the quote + \" + value AFTER the quote||WHY IS IT ADDING \\ BEFORE \"? value = value.substring(0, x) + "\\\"" + value.substring(x + 1, value.length); //account for extra character x++; } } //return the modified string return(value); } <script> Comments within the code on capital letters are my questions about the function as I mention above. I would appreciate any help, orientation, advise, BUT NOT THE SOLUTION PLEASE AS I DO WANT TO LEARN.

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• Method interception in PHP 5.*

  - by Rolf

  Hi everybody, I'm implementing a Log system for PHP, and I'm a bit stuck. All the configuration is defined in an XML file, that declares every method to be logged. XML is well parsed and converted into a multidimensionnal array (classname = array of methods). So far, so good. Let's take a simple example: #A.php class A { public function foo($bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #B.php class B { public function far($boo) { echo $boo; } } Now, let's say I've this configuration file: <interceptor> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__A.php"> <method name="foo"> <log-level>INFO</log-level> <log-message>Transaction init</log-message> </method> </methods> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__B.php"> <method name="far"> <log-level>DEBUG</log-level> <log-message>Useless</log-message> </method> </methods> </interceptor> The thing I'd like AT RUNTIME ONLY (once the XML parser has done his job) is: #Logger.php (its definitely NOT a final version) -- generated by the XML parser class Logger { public function __call($name,$args) { $log_level = args[0]; $args = array_slice($args,1); switch($method_name) { case 'foo': case 'far': //case ..... //write in log files break; } //THEN, RELAY THE CALL TO THE INITIAL METHOD } } #"dynamic" A.php class A extends Logger { public function foo($log_level, $bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #"dynamic" B.php class B extends Logger { public function far($log_level, $boo) { echo $boo; } } The big challenge here is to transform A and B into their "dynamic" versions, once the XML parser has completed its job. The ideal would be to achieve that without modifying the code of A and B at all (I mean, in the files) - or at least find a way to come back to their original versions once the program is finished. To be clear, I wanna find the most proper way to intercept method calls in PHP. What are your ideas about it ??? Thanks in advance, Rolf

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• jQuery: Sort div's according to content of different sub divs

  - by rayne

  I'm trying to create a somewhat complex sorting feature which neither uses divs nor lists. Unfortunately two hours of googling didn't help me. Here is the basic setup of my HTML: <div id="all_elements"> <!-- one element --> <div class="element"> <div class="wrapper"> <a href="/" title="links"> <img src="/img/image.jpg" border="0" alt="image" class="image" /></a> <div class="details"> <h3><a href="/" title="title">Name (Sort Argument 1)</a></h3> <div class="title"><a href="/" title="title">Title (Sort Argument 2)</a></div> <div class="year">2010 (Sort Argumentt 3)</div> <div class="country">Great Britain (Sort Argument 4)</div> </div><!-- details --> </div><!-- wrapper --> </div><!-- element --> </div> <!--all_elements--> The setup is a bit complex, but basically .element is the element that needs to be sorted alphabetically according to either the contents of h3, div.title, div.year or div.country. So the user will be able to view the contents of the site either sorted by name, by year, by country or by title. I have this jQuery snippet from a website, but all my attempts on trying to tell it to use the contents of e.g. h3 to sort have failed. Right now it sorts pretty much randomly. jQuery.fn.sort = function() { return this.pushStack([].sort.apply(this, arguments), []); }; function sortAscending(a, b) { return a.innerHTML > b.innerHTML ? 1 : -1; }; function sortDescending(a, b) { return a.innerHTML < b.innerHTML ? 1 : -1; }; $(document).ready(function() { $("#sort").toggle( function() { $('#all_elements .element').sort(sortDescending).appendTo('#all_elements'); $(this).text("Sort Asc"); }, function() { $('#all_elements .element').sort(sortAscending).appendTo('#all_elements'); $(this).text("Sort Desc"); }); }); How can I customize the function to sort the contents of my h3 or divs?

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• How do I de-duplicate a list of nodes in XSLT - and return the last node encountered?

  - by Broam

  I've seen lots of "de-duplicate this xml" questions but everyone wants the first node or the nodes are identical. I have a bit of a bigger puzzle. I have a list of articles in XML, a relevant snippet is shown: <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>100</stamp></item> <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>130</stamp></item> <item><key>Article2</key><stamp>800</stamp></item> <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>180</stamp></item> <item><key>Article3</key><stamp>900</stamp></item> <item><key>Article3</key><stamp>950</stamp></item> <item><key>Article4</key><stamp>990</stamp></item> <item><key>Article5</key><stamp>999</stamp></item> I'd like a list of nodes where the keys are unique and where the last instance is returned, not the first: Stamp (integer) is always increasing for elements of a particular key. Ideally I'd like "largest stamp" but they're always in order so the shortcut is ok. Desired result: (Order doesn't really matter.) <item><key>Article2</key><stamp>800</stamp></item> <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>180</stamp></item> <item><key>Article3</key><stamp>950</stamp></item> <item><key>Article4</key><stamp>990</stamp></item> <item><key>Article5</key><stamp>999</stamp></item> I'm somewhat confused on how to get this list. Any ideas? I'm using the Saxon processor if it matters.

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• Stuck with Regular Expression code to apply HTML tag to text but exclude if inside <?> tag

  - by James Buckingham

  Hi there. I'm trying to write a bit of regex which would go through some text, written by our Editors, and apply an <acronym> tag to the first instance it finds of an abbreviation set we hold in our "Glossary of Terms". So for this example I've used the abbreviation ITS. 1st thing I thought I'd do is setup an example with a mix of scenerios I could test against, i.e. ITS sitting with punctuation, in HTML tags & ones that we've applied this to already (in other words the script has run through this before, so no need to do again). I'm almost there but just got stuck at the last point :-(. Here's the regex I've got so far - <[^<|]+?>?>ITS<[^<]+?>|ITS The Example - FROM ( EVERY ITS IN BOLD TO BE WRAPPED WITH ACRONYM ): I want you to tag thisITS, but not this wrapped one - <acronym title="ITS" id="thisIsATest">ITS</acronym> This is another test as I still want to update <p>ITS</p> that have other HTML tags wrapped around them.` ITS want ones that start sentences and ones that finish ITS. ITS, and ones which are wrapped in punctuation.` Test link: <a href="index.cfm>ITS</a> AND I WANT THIS CHANGE TO : I want you to tag this <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym>, but not this wrapped one - <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym> This is another test as I still want to update <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym> that have other HTML tags wrapped around them.` <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym> want ones that start sentences and ones that finish <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym>. <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym>, and ones which are wrapped in punctuation. Test link: <acronym title="ITS"><a href="index.cfm>ITS</a></acronym> Are there any Reg Ex experts out there that could help me finish this off? Any other hints tips would also be appreciated. Thanks a lot, James P.S. This is going to be placed in a ColdFusion application if that helps anyone in specific syntax.

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