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  • Web service performing asynchronous call

    - by kornelijepetak
    I have a webservice method FetchNumber() that fetches a number from a database and then returns it to the caller. But just before it returns the number to the caller, it needs to send this number to another service so instantiates and runs the BackgroundWorker whose job is to send this number to another service. public class FetchingNumberService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public int FetchNumber() { int value = Database.GetNumber(); AsyncUpdateNumber async = new AsyncUpdateNumber(value); return value; } } public class AsyncUpdateNumber { public AsyncUpdateNumber(int number) { sendingNumber = number; worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += asynchronousCall; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void asynchronousCall(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Sending a number to a service (which is Synchronous) here } private int sendingNumber; private BackgroundWorker worker; } I don't want to block the web service (FetchNumber()) while sending this number to another service, because it can take a long time and the caller does not care about sending the number to another service. Caller expects this to return as soon as possible. FetchNumber() makes the background worker and runs it, then finishes (while worker is running in the background thread). I don't need any progress report or return value from the background worker. It's more of a fire-and-forget concept. My question is this. Since the web service object is instantiated per method call, what happens when the called method (FetchNumber() in this case) is finished, while the background worker it instatiated and ran is still running? What happens to the background thread? When does GC collect the service object? Does this prevent the background thread from executing correctly to the end? Are there any other side-effects on the background thread? Thanks for any input.

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  • Android, NetworkInfo.getTypeName(), NullpointerException

    - by moppel
    I have an activity which shows some List entries. When I click on a list item my app checks which connection type is available ("WIF" or "MOBILE"), through NetworkInfo.getTypeName(). As soon as I call this method I get a NullpointerException. Why? I tested this on the emulator, cause my phone is currently not available (it's broken...). I assume this is the problem? This is the only explanation that I have, if that's not the case I have no idea why this would be null. Here's some code snippet: public class VideoList extends ListActivity{ ... public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ final ConnectivityManager cm = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); ... listview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener(){ public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { ... NetworkInfo ni = cm.getActiveNetworkInfo(); String connex = ni.getTypeName(); //Nullpointer exception here if(connex.equals("WIFI")doSomething(); } }); } }

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  • C++: is it safe to work with std::vectors as if they were arrays?

    - by peoro
    I need to have a fixed-size array of elements and to call on them functions that require to know about how they're placed in memory, in particular: functions like glVertexPointer, that needs to know where the vertices are, how distant they are one from the other and so on. In my case vertices would be members of the elements to store. to get the index of an element within this array, I'd prefer to avoid having an index field within my elements, but would rather play with pointers arithmetic (ie: index of Element *x will be x - & array[0]) -- btw, this sounds dirty to me: is it good practice or should I do something else? Is it safe to use std::vector for this? Something makes me think that an std::array would be more appropriate but: Constructor and destructor for my structure will be rarely called: I don't mind about such overhead. I'm going to set the std::vector capacity to size I need (the size that would use for an std::array, thus won't take any overhead due to sporadic reallocation. I don't mind a little space overhead for std::vector's internal structure. I could use the ability to resize the vector (or better: to have a size chosen during setup), and I think there's no way to do this with std::array, since its size is a template parameter (that's too bad: I could do that even with an old C-like array, just dynamically allocating it on the heap). If std::vector is fine for my purpose I'd like to know into details if it will have some runtime overhead with respect to std::array (or to a plain C array): I know that it'll call the default constructor for any element once I increase its size (but I guess this won't cost anything if my data has got an empty default constructor?), same for destructor. Anything else?

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  • How do I remove HTML that I place dynamically with JQuery

    - by Vivek
    lets say i have fallowing html... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> what i want to do is, add a html on onclick of these links, if you click on first link output should look like <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> means hide the original html of that li and append new html for ex. a span as i have written above...and if i clicked on second link the first li should get it's original html and appended html should get removed and get appended to current li bieng clicked..in this case output should look like... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> i tried to achieve this thing through variuos way...but could not find out the correct way.. please help me out guys.. Thanks in advance!!!!

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  • What is the best prctice for using security in JAX-WS

    - by kislo_metal
    Here is scenario : I have some web services (JAX-WS) that need to be secured. Currently for authentication needs I providing addition SecurityWService that give authorized user some userid & sessionid that is need to be described in request to other services. It would be more better to use some java security. We have many of them but could not defined what is better to use. Q1 : It is understand that I should use SSL in transport layer, but what should I use for user authorization. Is there is better way to establishing session, validating user etc. ? Here is some key description : Most web services clents is php based. I am using jax-ws implementation as a Stateless session EJB. Deploying to glassfish v3. Q2: what is the best framework / technology for user authorization / authentication in case of using JSF 2.0 and ejb3.1 technologies ( Realms? WSIT? )? Thank You!

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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • What limits scaling in this simple OpenMP program?

    - by Douglas B. Staple
    I'm trying to understand limits to parallelization on a 48-core system (4xAMD Opteron 6348, 2.8 Ghz, 12 cores per CPU). I wrote this tiny OpenMP code to test the speedup in what I thought would be the best possible situation (the task is embarrassingly parallel): // Compile with: gcc scaling.c -std=c99 -fopenmp -O3 #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> int main(){ const uint64_t umin=1; const uint64_t umax=10000000000LL; double sum=0.; #pragma omp parallel for reduction(+:sum) for(uint64_t u=umin; u<umax; u++) sum+=1./u/u; printf("%e\n", sum); } I was surprised to find that the scaling is highly nonlinear. It takes about 2.9s for the code to run with 48 threads, 3.1s with 36 threads, 3.7s with 24 threads, 4.9s with 12 threads, and 57s for the code to run with 1 thread. Unfortunately I have to say that there is one process running on the computer using 100% of one core, so that might be affecting it. It's not my process, so I can't end it to test the difference, but somehow I doubt that's making the difference between a 19~20x speedup and the ideal 48x speedup. To make sure it wasn't an OpenMP issue, I ran two copies of the program at the same time with 24 threads each (one with umin=1, umax=5000000000, and the other with umin=5000000000, umax=10000000000). In that case both copies of the program finish after 2.9s, so it's exactly the same as running 48 threads with a single instance of the program. What's preventing linear scaling with this simple program?

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  • Overlapping 2 Flash objects and controlling z-index

    - by Magnus Smith
    I have two Flash objects on a webpage (call them A and B), and they overlap so one partially obscures the other. I don't seem to have any control over the z-index, to force B in front of A. Whatever I try, A always 'wins' and stays on the top! I have read many people's posts about problem with getting HTML to show over the top of Flash...but nothing about when your two overlapping items are both Flash objects. I have tried various combinations of wmode=opaque/transparent/window I have tried CSS position:absolute/relative and z-index:0/999 I have tried placing the HTML sections in a different order The problem is the same in IE6 and Firefox 2.0 I do not want to use jQuery in this case In my particular situation B must have position:absolute and wmode=transparent, and sit above A. A needs relative positioning and transparency is not required. However, I have been testing without these restrictions, and I still have no control over the overlap. Are some SWFs (ours are adverts sent by clients) created in such a way as to override any code control of z-index? Thanks for any advice you can give.

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  • Using pointers to adjust global objects in objective-c

    - by Rob
    Ok, so I am working with two sets of data that are extremely similar, and at the same time, these data sets are both global NSMutableArrays within the object. data_set_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; data_set_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Two new NSMutableArrays are loaded, which need to be added to the old, existing data. These Arrays are also global. xml_dataset_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; xml_dataset_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; To reduce code duplication (and because these data sets are so similar) I wrote a void method within the class to handle the data combination process for both Arrays: -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str Now, I have a decent understanding of object oriented programming, so I was thinking that if I were to invoke the method with the global Arrays in the data like so... [self constructData:data_set_one fromDownloadArray:xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:@"id"]; Then the global NSMutableArrays (data_set_one) would reflect the changes that happen to "array" within the method. Sadly, this is not the case, data_set_one doesn't reflect the changes (ex: new objects within the Array) outside of the method. Here is a code snippet of the problem // data_set_one is empty // xml_dataset_one has a few objects [constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data_set_one fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:(NSString *)@"id"]; // data_set_one should now be xml_dataset_one, but when echoed to screen, it appears to remain empty And here is the gist of the code for the method, any help is appreciated. -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str { if ([data count] == 0) { data = down; // set data equal to downloaded data } else if ([down count] == 0) { // download yields no results, do nothing } else { // combine the two arrays here } } This project is not ARC enabled. Thanks for the help guys! Rob

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  • How to "reduce" a hash?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

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  • How frequently IP packets are fragmented at the source host?

    - by Methos
    I know that if IP payload MTU then routers usually fragment the IP packet. Finally all the fragmented packets are assembled at the destination using the fields IP-ID, IP fragment offsets and fragmentation flags. Max length of IP payload is 64K. Thus its very plausible for L4 to hand over payload which is 64K. If the L2 protocol is Ethernet, which often is the case, then the MTU will be about 1600 bytes. Hence IP packet will be fragmented at the source host itself. However, a quick search about IP implementation in Linux tells me that in recent kernels, L4 protocols are fragment friendly i.e. they try to save the fragmentation work for IP by handing over buffers of size which is close to MTU. Considering these two facts, I am wondering about how frequently does the IP packet gets fragmented at the source host itself. Does it occur sometimes/rarely/never? Does anyone know if there are exceptions to the rule of fragmentation in linux kernel (i.e. are there situations where L4 protocols are not fragment friendly)? How is this handled in other common OSes like windows? In general how frequently IP packets are fragmented?

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  • How to Perform Continues Iteration over Shared Dictionary in Multi-threaded Environment

    - by Mubashar Ahmad
    Dear Gurus. Note Pls do not tell me regarding alternative to custom session, Pls answer only relative to the Pattern Scenario I have Done Custom Session Management in my application(WCF Service) for this I have a Dictionary shared to all thread. When a specific function Gets called I add a New Session and Issue SessionId to the client so it can use that sessionId for rest of his calls until it calls another specific function, which terminates this session and removes the session from the Dictionary. Due to any reason Client may not call session terminator function so i have to implement time expiration logic so that i can remove all such sessions from the memory. For this I added a Timer Object which calls ClearExpiredSessions function after the specific period of time. which iterates on the dictionary. Problem: As this dictionary gets modified every time new client comes and leaves so i can't lock the whole dictionary while iterating over it. And if i do not lock the dictionary while iteration, if dictionary gets modified from other thread while iterating, Enumerator will throw exception on MoveNext(). So can anybody tell me what kind of Design i should follow in this case. Is there any standard pattern available.

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  • Style row banding and selection in tr:table using CSS

    - by Alex Larzelere
    I've got a tr:table that I need to style using CSS. All the normal style functions of a table are working, but row banding and row selection aren't coming up. When I view the rendered source, I'm not seeing a difference in the rows for an id or class to grab on to, and the official documentation doesn't have any attributes for declaring a style class for either. Is this possible and if so what do I need to do to get my CSS to grab onto it? <tr:table id="myTable" value="#{tableValues}" rowBandingInterval="1"> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> </tr:table> Edit Let me try to clairfy what's happening. First, using the declaration above tells jsf to generate a table, and the attribute rowBandingInterval tells it to give each row alternating colors (If it was set to 2, then it would do 2 rows one color, 2 rows another, 2 rows the original, etc.) Once the page gets rendered into standard html, trinidad (and jsf) apply their own classes and IDs to the html. My normal procedure is to look at the rendered html, find the class that it is appling and add CSS rules for it. However in this case, no additional styles are added (nothing in the rendered html denotes one row to be different from another). So the question is, how do I tell trinidad to either give alternating rows and the user selected row different classes/IDs for me to grab on to with CSS?

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  • Building Stored Procedure to group data into ranges with roughly equal results in each bucket

    - by Len
    I am trying to build one procedure to take a large amount of data and create 5 range buckets to display the data. the buckets ranges will have to be set according to the results. Here is my existing SP GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] Script Date: 03/28/2010 19:50:45 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] @idMenu int AS declare @myMin decimal(19,2), @myMax decimal(19,2), @myDif decimal(19,2), @range1 decimal(19,2), @range2 decimal(19,2), @range3 decimal(19,2), @range4 decimal(19,2), @range5 decimal(19,2), @range6 decimal(19,2) SELECT @myMin=Min(modelpropvalue), @myMax=Max(modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues where modelPropUnitDescriptionID=@idMenu set @myDif=(@myMax-@myMin)/5 set @range1=@myMin set @range2=@myMin+@myDif set @range3=@range2+@myDif set @range4=@range3+@myDif set @range5=@range4+@myDif set @range6=@range5+@myDif select @myMin,@myMax,@myDif,@range1,@range2,@range3,@range4,@range5,@range6 select t.range as myRange, count(*) as myCount from ( select case when modelpropvalue between @range1 and @range2 then 'range1' when modelpropvalue between @range2 and @range3 then 'range2' when modelpropvalue between @range3 and @range4 then 'range3' when modelpropvalue between @range4 and @range5 then 'range4' when modelpropvalue between @range5 and @range6 then 'range5' end as range from xmodelpropertyvalues where modelpropunitDescriptionID=@idmenu) t group by t.range order by t.range This calculates the min and max value from my table, works out the difference between the two and creates 5 buckets. The problem is that if there are a small amount of very high (or very low) values then the buckets will appear very distorted - as in these results... range1 2806 range2 296 range3 75 range5 1 Basically I want to rebuild the SP so it creates buckets with equal amounts of results in each. I have played around with some of the following approaches without quite nailing it... SELECT modelpropvalue, NTILE(5) OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues - this creates a new column with either 1,2,3,4 or 5 in it ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range1 and @range2 ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range2 and @range3 or maybe i could allocate every record a row number then divide into ranges from this?

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  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

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  • atol(), atof(), atoi() function behaviours, is there a stable way to convert from/to string/integer

    - by Berkay
    In these days i'm playing with the C functions of atol(), atof() and atoi(), from a blog post i find a tutorial and applied: here are my results: void main() char a[10],b[10]; puts("Enter the value of a"); gets(a); puts("Enter the value of b"); gets(b); printf("%s+%s=%ld and %s-%s=%ld",a,b,(atol(a)+atol(b)),a,b,(atol(a)-atol(b))); getch(); } there is atof() which returns the float value of the string and atoi() which returns integer value. now to see the difference between the 3 i checked this code: main() { char a[]={"2545.965"}; printf("atol=%ld\t atof=%f\t atoi=%d\t\n",atol(a),atof(a),atoi(a)); } the output will be atol=2545 atof=2545.965000 atoi=2545 char a[]={“heyyou”}; now when you run the program the following will be the output (why?, is there any solution to convert pure strings to integer?) atol=0 atof=0 atoi=0 the string should contain numeric value now modify this program as char a[]={“007hey”}; the output in this case(tested in Red hat) will be atol=7 atof=7.000000 atoi=7 so the functions has taken 007 only not the remaining part (why?) Now consider this char a[]={“hey007?}; the output of the program will be atol=0 atof=0.000000 atoi=0 So i just want to convert my strings to number and then again to same text, i played with these functions and as you see i'm getting really interesting results? why is that? any other functions to convert from/to string/integer and vice versa?

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  • 'Fixed' for loop - what is more efficient?

    - by pimvdb
    I'm creating a tic-tac-toe game, and one of the functions has to iterate through each of the 9 fields (tic-tac-toe is played on a 3x3 grid). I was wondering what is more efficient (which one is perhaps faster, or what is the preferred way of scripting in such situation) - using two for nested loops like this: for(var i=0; i<3; i++) { for(var j=0; j<3; j++) { checkField(i, j); } } or hard-coding it like this: checkField(0, 0); checkField(0, 1); checkField(0, 2); checkField(1, 0); checkField(1, 1); checkField(1, 2); checkField(2, 0); checkField(2, 1); checkField(2, 2); As there are only 9 combinations, it would be perhaps overkill to use two nested for loops, but then again this is clearer to read. The for loop, however, will increment variables and check whether i and j are smaller than 3 every time as well. In this example, the time saving at least might be negligible, but what is the preferred way of coding in this case? Thanks.

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  • NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

    - by Matthew Weiss
    I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

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  • Website does not automatically fit to iphone screen

    - by Ploetzeneder
    Hello, The following code does not fit onto the iphone screen; how do I have to define the viewport? <html> <body> <center> <div id="karteu" style="background: url('../customer/Karten/karte1.jpg') no-repeat left center;width:714px;height:540px;" > </div> </body> </html> Normally the site should be zoomed, so i first should see the website in small, and then be able to zoom that i see it in the original size, but in my case it does not, when i call the site, the zoom is, that the image has this original size already, and that i have to scroll, but i dont want to scroll,...i want to use the normal safari mobile zoom and then scroll The solution at the bottom does not zoom anything. I want to see the overview of the image at the beginning. Then i want to be able to zoom with the normal safari zoom functions,..

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  • Image processing on bifurcation diagram to get small eps size

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hello, I'm producing bifurcation diagrams (which are normally used in nonlinear dynamics). These diagrams identify abrupt changes in topologies due to stability changes. These abrupt changes occur as one or more parameters pass through some critical value(s). An example is here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:LogisticMap_BifurcationDiagram.png On the above figure, some image processing has been done so as to make the plot more visually pleasant. A bifurcation diagram usually contains hundreds of thousands of points and the resulting eps file can become very big. Journal submission in the LaTeX format require that figures are to be submitted in the eps format. In my case one of such figures can result in about 6 MB in Matlab and even much more in Gnuplot. For the example in the above figure, 100,000 x values are calculated for each r and one can imagine that the resulting eps file would be huge. The site however explains some image processing that makes the plot more visually pleasing. Can anyone explain to me stepwise how go about? I can't understand the explanation provided in the "summary" section. Will the resulting image processing also reduce the figure size? Furthermore, any tips on reducing the file size of such a huge eps figure? Thanks a lot...

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  • Read IFrame content using JavaScript

    - by Rajat
    Ok, This is my first time dealing seriously with IFrames and I cant seem to understand a few things: First the sample code I am testing with: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function init(){ console.log("IFrame content: " + window.frames['i1'].document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].innerHTML); } </script> </head> <body onload="init();"> <iframe name="i1" src="foo.txt"/> </body> the file "foo.txt" looks like this: sample text file Questions: 1) The iframe seems to be behaving as a HTML document and the file text is actually part of the body instead. Why ? Is it a rule for an IFrame to be a HTML document. Is it not possible for the content of an iframe to be just plain text ?? 2) The file content gets wrapped inside a pre tag for some reason. Why is this so ? Is it always the case? 3) My access method in the javascript is working but is there any other alternative? [native js solutions please] If the content is wrapped in a pre tag always then I will actually have to lookup inside the pre tag rather than lookup the innerHTML

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  • Ternary operator

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

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  • Implementing list position locator in C++?

    - by jfrazier
    I am writing a basic Graph API in C++ (I know libraries already exist, but I am doing it for the practice/experience). The structure is basically that of an adjacency list representation. So there are Vertex objects and Edge objects, and the Graph class contains: list<Vertex *> vertexList list<Edge *> edgeList Each Edge object has two Vertex* members representing its endpoints, and each Vertex object has a list of Edge* members representing the edges incident to the Vertex. All this is quite standard, but here is my problem. I want to be able to implement deletion of Edges and Vertices in constant time, so for example each Vertex object should have a Locator member that points to the position of its Vertex* in the vertexList. The way I first implemented this was by saving a list::iterator, as follows: vertexList.push_back(v); v->locator = --vertexList.end(); Then if I need to delete this vertex later, then rather than searching the whole vertexList for its pointer, I can call: vertexList.erase(v->locator); This works fine at first, but it seems that if enough changes (deletions) are made to the list, the iterators will become out-of-date and I get all sorts of iterator errors at runtime. This seems strange for a linked list, because it doesn't seem like you should ever need to re-allocate the remaining members of the list after deletions, but maybe the STL does this to optimize by keeping memory somewhat contiguous? In any case, I would appreciate it if anyone has any insight as to why this happens. Is there a standard way in C++ to implement a locator that will keep track of an element's position in a list without becoming obsolete? Much thanks, Jeff

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • Single log file for multiple webapps

    - by Ashish Aggarwal
    In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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