Search Results

Search found 22653 results on 907 pages for 'case insensitive'.

Page 734/907 | < Previous Page | 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741  | Next Page >

  • Style row banding and selection in tr:table using CSS

    - by Alex Larzelere
    I've got a tr:table that I need to style using CSS. All the normal style functions of a table are working, but row banding and row selection aren't coming up. When I view the rendered source, I'm not seeing a difference in the rows for an id or class to grab on to, and the official documentation doesn't have any attributes for declaring a style class for either. Is this possible and if so what do I need to do to get my CSS to grab onto it? <tr:table id="myTable" value="#{tableValues}" rowBandingInterval="1"> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> </tr:table> Edit Let me try to clairfy what's happening. First, using the declaration above tells jsf to generate a table, and the attribute rowBandingInterval tells it to give each row alternating colors (If it was set to 2, then it would do 2 rows one color, 2 rows another, 2 rows the original, etc.) Once the page gets rendered into standard html, trinidad (and jsf) apply their own classes and IDs to the html. My normal procedure is to look at the rendered html, find the class that it is appling and add CSS rules for it. However in this case, no additional styles are added (nothing in the rendered html denotes one row to be different from another). So the question is, how do I tell trinidad to either give alternating rows and the user selected row different classes/IDs for me to grab on to with CSS?

    Read the article

  • Ternary operator

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

    Read the article

  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

    Read the article

  • 'Fixed' for loop - what is more efficient?

    - by pimvdb
    I'm creating a tic-tac-toe game, and one of the functions has to iterate through each of the 9 fields (tic-tac-toe is played on a 3x3 grid). I was wondering what is more efficient (which one is perhaps faster, or what is the preferred way of scripting in such situation) - using two for nested loops like this: for(var i=0; i<3; i++) { for(var j=0; j<3; j++) { checkField(i, j); } } or hard-coding it like this: checkField(0, 0); checkField(0, 1); checkField(0, 2); checkField(1, 0); checkField(1, 1); checkField(1, 2); checkField(2, 0); checkField(2, 1); checkField(2, 2); As there are only 9 combinations, it would be perhaps overkill to use two nested for loops, but then again this is clearer to read. The for loop, however, will increment variables and check whether i and j are smaller than 3 every time as well. In this example, the time saving at least might be negligible, but what is the preferred way of coding in this case? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Android, NetworkInfo.getTypeName(), NullpointerException

    - by moppel
    I have an activity which shows some List entries. When I click on a list item my app checks which connection type is available ("WIF" or "MOBILE"), through NetworkInfo.getTypeName(). As soon as I call this method I get a NullpointerException. Why? I tested this on the emulator, cause my phone is currently not available (it's broken...). I assume this is the problem? This is the only explanation that I have, if that's not the case I have no idea why this would be null. Here's some code snippet: public class VideoList extends ListActivity{ ... public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ final ConnectivityManager cm = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); ... listview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener(){ public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { ... NetworkInfo ni = cm.getActiveNetworkInfo(); String connex = ni.getTypeName(); //Nullpointer exception here if(connex.equals("WIFI")doSomething(); } }); } }

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

    Read the article

  • How to get components from a JFrame with a GridLayout?

    - by NlightNfotis
    I have a question about Java and JFrame in particular. Let's say I have a JFrame that I am using with a GridLayout. Supposing that I have added JButtons in the JFrame, how can I gain access to the one I want using it's position (by position, I mean a x and a y, used to define the exact place on the Grid). I have tried several methods, for instance getComponentAt(int x, int y), and have seen that those methods do not work as intended when combined with GridLayout, or at least don't work as intended in my case. So I tried using getComponent(), which seems fine. The latest method, that seems to be on a right track for me is (assuming I have a JFrame with a GridLayout with 7 rows and 7 columns, x as columns, y as rows): public JButton getButtonByXAndY(int x, int y) { return (JButton) this.getContentPane().getComponent((y-1) * 7 + x); } Using the above, say I want to get the JButton at (4, 4), meaning the 25th JButton in the JFrame, I would index through the first 21 buttons at first, and then add 4 more, finally accessing the JButton I want. Problem is this works like that in theory only. Any ideas? P.S sorry for linking to an external website, but stack overflow won't allow me to upload the image, because I do not have the required reputation.

    Read the article

  • How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

    - by egervari
    I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

    Read the article

  • Web service performing asynchronous call

    - by kornelijepetak
    I have a webservice method FetchNumber() that fetches a number from a database and then returns it to the caller. But just before it returns the number to the caller, it needs to send this number to another service so instantiates and runs the BackgroundWorker whose job is to send this number to another service. public class FetchingNumberService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public int FetchNumber() { int value = Database.GetNumber(); AsyncUpdateNumber async = new AsyncUpdateNumber(value); return value; } } public class AsyncUpdateNumber { public AsyncUpdateNumber(int number) { sendingNumber = number; worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += asynchronousCall; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void asynchronousCall(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Sending a number to a service (which is Synchronous) here } private int sendingNumber; private BackgroundWorker worker; } I don't want to block the web service (FetchNumber()) while sending this number to another service, because it can take a long time and the caller does not care about sending the number to another service. Caller expects this to return as soon as possible. FetchNumber() makes the background worker and runs it, then finishes (while worker is running in the background thread). I don't need any progress report or return value from the background worker. It's more of a fire-and-forget concept. My question is this. Since the web service object is instantiated per method call, what happens when the called method (FetchNumber() in this case) is finished, while the background worker it instatiated and ran is still running? What happens to the background thread? When does GC collect the service object? Does this prevent the background thread from executing correctly to the end? Are there any other side-effects on the background thread? Thanks for any input.

    Read the article

  • What OOP pattern to use when only adding new methods, not data?

    - by Jonathon Reinhart
    Hello eveyone... In my app, I have deal with several different "parameters", which derive from IParameter interface, and also ParamBase abstract base class. I currently have two different parameter types, call them FooParameter and BarParameter, which both derive from ParamBase. Obviously, I can treat them both as IParameters when I need to deal with them generically, or detect their specific type when I need to handle their specific functionality. My question lies in specific FooParameters. I currently have a few specific ones with their own classes which derive from FooParameter, we'll call them FP12, FP13, FP14, etc. These all have certain characteristics, which make me treat them differently in the UI. (Most have names associated with the individual bits, or ranges of bits). Note that these specific, derived FP's have no additional data associated with them, only properties (which refer to the same data in different ways) or methods. Now, I'd like to keep all of these parameters in a Dictionary<String, IParameter> for easy generic access. The problem is, if I want to refer to a specific one with the special GUI functions, I can't write: FP12 fp12 = (FP12)paramList["FP12"] because you can't downcast to a derived type (rightfully so). But in my case, I didn't add any data, so the cast would theoretically work. What type of programming model should I be using instead? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Google Charts - Adding Tooltip to Colorized Column Chart

    - by David K
    I created a column chart with google charts that has a different color assigned to each column using the following posting: Assign different color to each bar in a google chart But now I'm trying to figure out how to customize the tooltips for each column to also include the number of users in addition to the percent, so "raw_data[i][1]" I would like it to look like "70% (80 Users)" I understand that there is "data.addColumn({type:'number',role:'tooltip'});" but I'm having trouble understanding how to implement it for this use-case. function drawAccountsChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); var raw_data = [ ['Parents', 80, 160], ['Students', 94, 128], ['Teachers', 78, 90], ['Admins', 68, 120], ['Staff', 97, 111] ]; data.addColumn('string', 'Columns'); for (var i = 0; i < raw_data.length; ++i) { data.addColumn('number', raw_data[i][0]); } data.addRows(1); for (var i = 0; i < raw_data.length; ++i) { data.setValue(0, i+1, raw_data[i][1]/raw_data[i][2]*100); } var options = { height:220, chartArea: { left:30, width: "70%", height: "70%" }, backgroundColor: { fill:"transparent" }, tooltop:{ textStyle: {fontSize: "12px",}}, vAxis: {minValue: 0} }; var formatter = new google.visualization.NumberFormat({ suffix: '%', fractionDigits: 1 }); formatter.format(data, 1); formatter.format(data, 2); formatter.format(data, 3); formatter.format(data, 4); formatter.format(data, 5); var chart = new google.visualization.ColumnChart(document.getElementById('emailAccountsChart')); chart.draw(data, options); }

    Read the article

  • Read IFrame content using JavaScript

    - by Rajat
    Ok, This is my first time dealing seriously with IFrames and I cant seem to understand a few things: First the sample code I am testing with: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function init(){ console.log("IFrame content: " + window.frames['i1'].document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].innerHTML); } </script> </head> <body onload="init();"> <iframe name="i1" src="foo.txt"/> </body> the file "foo.txt" looks like this: sample text file Questions: 1) The iframe seems to be behaving as a HTML document and the file text is actually part of the body instead. Why ? Is it a rule for an IFrame to be a HTML document. Is it not possible for the content of an iframe to be just plain text ?? 2) The file content gets wrapped inside a pre tag for some reason. Why is this so ? Is it always the case? 3) My access method in the javascript is working but is there any other alternative? [native js solutions please] If the content is wrapped in a pre tag always then I will actually have to lookup inside the pre tag rather than lookup the innerHTML

    Read the article

  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

    Read the article

  • How do I integrate GUI elements from different classes at runtime?

    - by thefourthdoctor
    I'm trying to "future-proof" an application that I'm writing by splitting out those elements that are likely to change over time. In my application I need to be able to adapt to changes in the output format (e.g. today I output to a CSV file, in the future I may need to output directly to a SQL Server database, or to a web service, etc.). I'm handling this by defining an abstract class ("OutputProvider") that I will subclass for each individual case. The one aspect of this that has me stumped is how to provide a configuration GUI that is specific to each concrete class. I have a settings dialog with a tab for output configuration. On that tab I intend to provide a drop-down to select the provider and a JPanel beneath it to hold the contents of the provider-specific GUI. How do I get the right GUI in that panel at runtime and have it behave correctly with respect to events? Also, a bonus would be if there was a way to do this such that in order to add support for new providers I could simply provide a new jar or class file to be dropped in a specific folder and the application could pick that up at startup. I'm using NetBeans and Swing.

    Read the article

  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

    Read the article

  • What if a large number of objects are passed to my SwingWorker.process() method?

    - by Trejkaz
    I just found an interesting situation. Suppose you have some SwingWorker (I've made this one vaguely reminiscent of my own): public class AddressTreeBuildingWorker extends SwingWorker<Void, NodePair> { private DefaultTreeModel model; public AddressTreeBuildingWorker(DefaultTreeModel model) { } @Override protected Void doInBackground() { // Omitted; performs variable processing to build a tree of address nodes. } @Override protected void process(List<NodePair> chunks) { for (NodePair pair : chunks) { // Actually the real thing inserts in order. model.insertNodeInto(parent, child, parent.getChildCount()); } } private static class NodePair { private final DefaultMutableTreeNode parent; private final DefaultMutableTreeNode child; private NodePair(DefaultMutableTreeNode parent, DefaultMutableTreeNode child) { this.parent = parent; this.child = child; } } } If the work done in the background is significant then things work well - process() is called with relatively small lists of objects and everything is happy. Problem is, if the work done in the background is suddenly insignificant for whatever reason, process() receives a huge list of objects (I have seen 1,000,000, for instance) and by the time you process each object, you have spent 20 seconds on the Event Dispatch Thread, exactly what SwingWorker was designed to avoid. In case it isn't clear, both of these occur on the same SwingWorker class for me - it depends on the input data, and the type of processing the caller wanted. Is there a proper way to handle this? Obviously I can intentionally delay or yield the background processing thread so that a smaller number might arrive each time, but this doesn't feel like the right solution to me.

    Read the article

  • Possibility of a custom Contacts field with a set list of values and Contacts lookup performance

    - by areyling
    I'm pretty sure it's not viable to do what I'd like to based on some initial research, but I figured it couldn't hurt to ask the community of experts here in case someone knows a way. I'd like to create a custom field for contacts that the user is able to edit from the main Contacts app; however, the user should only be allowed to select from a list of four specific values. A short list of string values would be ideal, but an int with a min/max range would suffice. I'm interested in knowing if it's possible either way, but also wondering if it make sense to go this route performance wise. More specifically, would it be better to look up a contact (based on a phone number) each time a call or SMS message is received or better to store my own set of data (consisting of name, numbers, and the custom field) and just syncing contact info in a thread every so often? Or syncing contacts the first time the app is run and then registering for changes using ContentObserver? Here is a similar question with an answer that explains how to add a custom field to a contact. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Unexpected $end in PHP file

    - by mattbd
    I'm working on a PHP contact form, but I can't get it to work. I get the following error in the Apache server log, running on an Ubuntu Server VM: PHP Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/matthew/Sites/contactFormResponse.php on line 75, referer: http://192.168.1.4/contactForm.php From googling this error, it sounds like it's normally caused by either using the short PHP tag when the server's not set up to recognise them, or by having a block of code that isn't closed correctly. But as far as I can see that isn't the case here - as far as I can see it's all closed correctly. Here's the PHP code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define variables to hold the name, email address and message, and import the information into the variables $name = $_POST['NameInput']; $email = $_POST['EmailAddress']; $telno = $_POST['ContactNumber']; $querytype = $_POST['QueryType']; $bookingstartdate = $_POST['BookingStartDay'] . $_POST['BookingStartMonth'] . $_POST['BookingStartYear']; $bookingenddate = $_POST['BookingEndDay'] . $_POST['BookingEndMonth'] . $_POST['BookingEndYear']; $message = $_POST['QueryText']; // Validate the inputs - send it if it's OK if(3 < strlen($name) && 3 < strlen($email)) { $email_message = <<< EMAIL Message from contact form at holidaychalet.co.uk Name: $name Email: $email Contact Number: $telno Query Type: $querytype Booking Start Date: $bookingstartdate Booking End Date: $bookingenddate The message: $message EMAIL; $headers = "cc:[email protected]\r\n"; if(mail('matthew@localhost','Contact form email', $email_message, $headers)) { echo "Thanks for completing the form! I'll be in touch shortly!"; } else { echo "Something went wrong - please use the back button and try again"; } } else { echo "You didn't complete the form fully enough! Please use go back using your web browser's back button"; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Trying to fadein divs in a sequence, over time, using JQuery

    - by user346602
    Hi, I'm trying to figure out how to make 4 images fade in sequentially when the page loads. The following is my (amateurish) code: Here is the HTML: <div id="outercorners"> <img id="corner1" src="images/corner1.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner2" src="images/corner2.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner3" src="images/corner3.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> <img id="corner4" src="images/corner4.gif" width="6" height="6" alt=""/> </div><!-- end #outercorners--> Here is the JQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $("#corner1").fadeIn("2000", function(){ $("#corner3").fadeIn("4000", function(){ $("#corner2").fadeIn("6000", function(){ $("#corner4").fadeIn("8000", function(){ }); }); }); }); Here is the css: #outercorners { position: fixed; top:186px; left:186px; width:558px; height:372px; } #corner1 { position: fixed; top:186px; left:186px; display: none; } #corner2 { position: fixed; top:186px; left:744px; display: none; } #corner3 { position: fixed; top:558px; left:744px; display: none; } #corner4 { position: fixed; top:558px; left:186px; display: none; } They seem to just wink at me, rather than fade in in the order I've ascribed to them. Should I be using the queue() function? And, if so, how would I implement it in this case? Thank you for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • Image overlapping in widget

    - by Hunt
    I am trying to create a widget in android in which when I click over image the image gets changed with a new one -- kind of toggle image. But when I click over it, the image overwrites over the old one rather then replacing the new one. I don't know whether this is the way the widget works or am I doing something wrong. My images are semi-transparent so in case one overrides another one can see the image which is being overlapped. This is the code that I have written in OnReceive by overriding it: @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent){ if (intent.getAction().equals(iAlertConstant.ACTION_WIDGET_UPDATE_FROM_WIDGET)) { RemoteViews remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(),R.layout.mywidget); remoteViews.setImageViewResource(R.id.btnOnOff,R.drawable.offbtn); ComponentName thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, EmergencyWidget.class); AppWidgetManager.getInstance(context).updateAppWidget(thisWidget, remoteViews); } else super.onReceive(context, intent); } Layout <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:background="@drawable/widget_background" android:paddingLeft="10.0dip" android:paddingTop="8.0dip" android:paddingRight="10.0dip" android:paddingBottom="8.0dip" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="72dp" android:layout_marginLeft="10.0dip" android:layout_marginTop="10.0dip" android:layout_marginRight="10.0dip" android:id="@+id/emergencyWidget" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageView android:background="@drawable/offbtn" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginTop="7dp" android:layout_marginLeft="4dp" android:layout_marginRight="4dp" android:layout_gravity="right" android:id="@+id/btnOnOff" /> </LinearLayout>

    Read the article

  • Hashing the state of a complex object in .NET

    - by Jan
    Some background information: I am working on a C#/WPF application, which basically is about creating, editing, saving and loading some data model. The data model contains of a hierarchy of various objects. There is a "root" object of class A, which has a list of objects of class B, which each has a list of objects of class C, etc. Around 30 classes involved in total. Now my problem is that I want to prompt the user with the usual "you have unsaved changes, save?" dialog, if he tries to exit the program. But how do I know if the data in current loaded model is actually changed? There is of course ways to solve this, like e.g. reloading the model from file and compare against the one in memory value by value or make every UI control set a flag indicating the model has been changed. Now instead, I want to create a hash value based on the model state on load and generate a new value when the user tries to exit, and compare those two. Now the question: So inspired of that, I was wondering if there exist some way to generate a hash value from the (value)state of some arbitrary complex object? Preferably in a generic way, e.g. no need to apply attributes to each involved class/field. One idea could be to use some of .NET's serialization functionality (assuming it will work out-of-the-box in this case) and apply a hash function to the content of the resulting file. However, I guess there exist some more suitable approach. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is there a fundamental difference between malloc and HeapAlloc (aside from the portability)?

    - by Lambert
    Hi, I'm having code that, for various reasons, I'm trying to port from the C runtime to one that uses the Windows Heap API. I've encountered a problem: If I redirect the malloc/calloc/realloc/free calls to HeapAlloc/HeapReAlloc/HeapFree (with GetProcessHeap for the handle), the memory seems to be allocated correctly (no bad pointer returned, and no exceptions thrown), but the library I'm porting says "failed to allocate memory" for some reason. I've tried this both with the Microsoft CRT (which uses the Heap API underneath) and with another company's run-time library (which uses the Global Memory API underneath); the malloc for both of those works well with the library, but for some reason, using the Heap API directly doesn't work. I've checked that the allocations aren't too big (= 0x7FFF8 bytes), and they're not. The only problem I can think of is memory alignment; is that the case? Or other than that, is there a fundamental difference between the Heap API and the CRT memory API that I'm not aware of? If so, what is it? And if not, then why does the static Microsoft CRT (included with Visual Studio) take some extra steps in malloc/calloc before calling HeapAlloc? I'm suspecting there's a difference but I can't think of what it might be. Thank you!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741  | Next Page >