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• Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

  - by mikedevenney

  I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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• How to speed up a slow UPDATE query

  - by Mike Christensen

  I have the following UPDATE query: UPDATE Indexer.Pages SET LastError=NULL where LastError is not null; Right now, this query takes about 93 minutes to complete. I'd like to find ways to make this a bit faster. The Indexer.Pages table has around 506,000 rows, and about 490,000 of them contain a value for LastError, so I doubt I can take advantage of any indexes here. The table (when uncompressed) has about 46 gigs of data in it, however the majority of that data is in a text field called html. I believe simply loading and unloading that many pages is causing the slowdown. One idea would be to make a new table with just the Id and the html field, and keep Indexer.Pages as small as possible. However, testing this theory would be a decent amount of work since I actually don't have the hard disk space to create a copy of the table. I'd have to copy it over to another machine, drop the table, then copy the data back which would probably take all evening. Ideas? I'm using Postgres 9.0.0. UPDATE: Here's the schema: CREATE TABLE indexer.pages ( id uuid NOT NULL, url character varying(1024) NOT NULL, firstcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, lastcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, recipeid uuid, html text NOT NULL, lasterror character varying(1024), missingings smallint, CONSTRAINT pages_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id ), CONSTRAINT indexer_pages_uniqueurl UNIQUE (url ) ); I also have two indexes: CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_missingings ON indexer.pages USING btree (missingings ) WHERE missingings > 0; and CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_null ON indexer.pages USING btree (recipeid ) WHERE NULL::boolean; There are no triggers on this table, and there is one other table that has a FK constraint on Pages.PageId.

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• Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

  - by Craig Walker

  I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

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• How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

  - by mhu

  Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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• How can I introduce a regex action to match the first element in a Catalyst URI ?

  - by RET

  Background: I'm using a CRUD framework in Catalyst that auto-generates forms and lists for all tables in a given database. For example: /admin/list/person or /admin/add/person or /admin/edit/person/3 all dynamically generate pages or forms as appropriate for the table 'person'. (In other words, Admin.pm has actions edit, list, add, delete and so on that expect a table argument and possibly a row-identifying argument.) Question: In the particular application I'm building, the database will be used by multiple customers, so I want to introduce a URI scheme where the first element is the customer's identifier, followed by the administrative action/table etc: /cust1/admin/list/person /cust2/admin/add/person /cust2/admin/edit/person/3 This is for "branding" purposes, and also to ensure that bookmarks or URLs passed from one user to another do the expected thing. But I'm having a lot of trouble getting this to work. I would prefer not to have to modify the subs in the existing framework, so I've been trying variations on the following: sub customer : Regex('^(\w+)/(admin)$') { my ($self, $c, @args) = @_; #validation of captured arg snipped.. my $path = join('/', 'admin', @args); $c->request->path($path); $c->dispatcher->prepare_action($c); $c->forward($c->action, $c->req->args); } But it just will not behave. I've used regex matching actions many times, but putting one in the very first 'barrel' of a URI seems unusually traumatic. Any suggestions gratefully received.

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• Currently using View, Should I use a hard table instead?

  - by 1001010101

  I am currently debating whether my table, mapping_uGroups_uProducts, which is a view formed by the following table: CREATE ALGORITHM=UNDEFINED DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` SQL SECURITY DEFINER VIEW `db`.`mapping_uGroups_uProducts` AS select distinct `X`.`upID` AS `upID`,`Z`.`ugID` AS `ugID` from ((`db`.`mapping_uProducts_Products` `X` join `db`.`productsInfo` `Y` on((`X`.`pID` = `Y`.`pID`))) join `db`.`mapping_uGroups_Groups` `Z` on((`Y`.`gID` = `Z`.`gID`))); My current query is: SELECT upID FROM uProductsInfo \ JOIN fs_uProducts USING (upID) column \ JOIN mapping_uGroups_uProducts USING (upID) -- could be faster if we use hard table and index \ JOIN mapping_fs_key USING (fsKeyID) \ WHERE fsName="OVERALL" \ AND ugID=1 \ ORDER BY score DESC \ LIMIT 0,30; which is pretty slow. (for 30 results, it requires about 10 secondes). I think the reason for my query being so slow is definitely due to the fact that that particular query relies on a VIEW which has no index to speed things up. +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ | 1 | PRIMARY | mapping_fs_key | const | PRIMARY,fsName | fsName | 386 | const | 1 | Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | PRIMARY | <derived2> | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 19706 | Using where | | 1 | PRIMARY | uProductsInfo | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | mapping_uGroups_uProducts.upID | 1 | Using index | | 1 | PRIMARY | fs_uProducts | ref | upID | upID | 4 | db.uProductsInfo.upID | 221 | Using where | | 2 | DERIVED | X | ALL | PRIMARY | NULL | NULL | NULL | 40772 | Using temporary | | 2 | DERIVED | Y | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | db.X.pID | 1 | Distinct | | 2 | DERIVED | Z | ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | db.Y.gID | 2 | Using index; Distinct | +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ 7 rows in set (0.48 sec) The explain here looks pretty cryptic, and I don't know whether I should drop view and write a script to just insert everything in the view to a hard table. ( obviously, it will lose the flexibility of the view since the mapping changes quite frequently). Does anyone have any idea to how I can optimize my schema better?

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• codeigniter mulitple LIKE db query using associative array- but all from the same column name...?

  - by Inigo

  Hi, I'm trying to query my database using codeigniter's active record class. I have a number of blog posts stored in a table. The query is for a search function, which will pull out all the posts that have certain categories assigned to them. So the 'category' column of the table will have a list of all the categories for that post in no particular order, separated by commas, like so: Politics,History,Sociology.. etc. If a user selects, say, Politics and History, The titles of all the posts that have BOTH these categories should be returned. Right? So, the list of categories queried will be the array $cats. I thought this would work- foreach ($cats as $cat){ $this->db->like('categories',$cat); } By Producing this- $this-db-like('categories','Politics'); $this-db-like('categories','History'); (Which would produce- 'WHERE categories LIKE '%Politics%' AND categories LIKE '%History%') But it doesn't work, it seems to only produce the first statement. The problem I guess is that the column name is the same for each of the chained queries. There doesn't seem to be anything in the CI user guide about this (http://codeigniter.com/user_guide/database/active_record.html) as they seem to assume that each chained statement is going to be for a different column name. Does anyone know how I could do this? Thanks! edit- Of course it is not possible to use an associative array in one statement as it would have to contain duplicate keys- in this case every key would have to be 'categories'...

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• [MFC] What is the reciprocal of CComboBox.GetItemData?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Instead of associating objects with Combo Box items, I associate long ids representing choices. They come from a database, so it seems natural to do so anyway. Now, I persist the id and not the index of the user's selection, so that the choice is remembered across sessions. If id no longer exists in database - no big deal. The choice will be messed up once. If db does not change, however, then it would be a great success ;) Here is how I get the id : chosenSomethingIndex = cmbSomething.GetCurSel(); lastSomethingId = cmbSomething.GetItemData(chosenSomethingIndex); How do I reverse this? When I load the stored value for user's last choice, I need to convert that id into an index. I can do: cmbSomething.SetCurSel(chosenSomethingIndex); However, how can I attempt (it might not exist) to get an index once I have an id? I am looking for a reciprocal function to GetItemData I am using VS2008, probably latest version of MFC, whatever that is. Thank you.

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• How can I build a generic dataset-handling Perl library?

  - by Pep.

  Hello, I want to build a generic Perl module for handling and analysing biomedical character separated datasets and which can, most certain, be used on any kind of datasets that contain a mixture of categorical (A,B,C,..) and continuous (1.2,3,881..) and identifier (XXX1,XXX2...). The plan is to have people initialize the module and then use some arguments to point to the data file(s), the place were the analysis reports should be placed and the structure of the data. By structure of data I mean which variable is in which place and its name/type. And this is where I need some enlightenment. I am baffled how to do this in a clean way. Obviously, having people create a simple schema file, be it XML or some other format would be the cleanest but maybe not all people enjoy doing something like this. The solutions I can think of are: Create a configuration file in XML or similar and with a prespecified format. Pass the information during initialization of the module. Use the first row of the data as headers and try to guess types (ouch) Surely there must be a "canonical" way of doing this that is also usable and efficient. Thanks p.

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• Does new JUnit 4.8 @Category render test suites almost obsolete?

  - by grigory

  Given question 'How to run all tests belonging to a certain Category?' and the answer would the following approach be better for test organization? define master test suite that contains all tests (e.g. using ClasspathSuite) design sufficient set of JUnit categories (sufficient means that every desirable collection of sets is identifiable using one or more categories) define targeted test suites based on master test suite and set of categories For example: identify categories for speed (slow, fast), dependencies (mock, database, integration), function (), domain ( demand that each test is properly qualified (tagged) with relevant set of categories. create master test suite using ClasspathSuite (all tests found in classpath) create targeted suites by qualifying master test suite with categories, e.g. mock test suite, fast database test suite, slow integration for domain X test suite, etc. My question is more like soliciting approval rate for such approach vs. classic test suite approach. One unbeatable benefit is that every new test is immediately contained by relevant suites with no suite maintenance. One concern is proper categorization of each test.

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• MVVM: Do I need Inheritance with ViewModels A + B ?

  - by Lisa

  Hello guys my first post on SO because EE sucks in the meantime ;P I am using wpf and mvvm in my desktop application. Scenario: I have a calendar with week A and week B which are rotating by every X week depending on the user settings. But the UserControl "week B" is only visible when the user sets the option "rotating weeks"... The UserControl with week A has a DataGrid and for week B I want to use the same UserControl of course. What I want to achieve is that all data entered/choosen by the user in the Week A is saved/backed by a ViewModel A and Model C. When the user wants a rotating weekly calendar plan I need also a ViewModel B and again Model C. The reason why I need to know what data entered by the user belongs to week A or week B is because I have to write the entered data in a certain order into the database = db.Write(weekA),db.Write(weekB),db.Write(weekA),etc... I am unsure how a solution could look like... What would you do to identify a ViewModel A or B so you know the order of how to write the data in the proper order into database? Any other suggestions are also welcome of course, maybe I think in the wrong direction its late here :) I am new to mvvm so please be patient.

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• PHP Check slave status without mysql_connect timeout issues

  - by Jonathon

  I have a web-app that has a master mysql db and four slave dbs. I want to handle all (or almost all) read-only (SELECT) queries from the slaves. Our load-balancer sends the user to one of the slave machines automatically, since they are also running Apache/PHP and serving webpages. I am using an include file to setup the connection to the databases, such as: //for master server (i.e. - UPDATE/INSERT/DELETE statements) $Host = "10.0.0.x"; $User = "xx"; $Password = "xx"; $Link = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); if( !$Link ) ) { die( "Master database is currently unavailable. Please try again later." ); } //this connection can be used for READ-ONLY (i.e. - SELECT statements) on the localhost $Host_Local = "localhost"; $User_Local = "xx"; $Password_Local = "xx"; $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host_Local, $User_Local, $Password_Local ); //fail back to master if slave db is down if( !$Link_Local ) ) { $Link_Local = mysql_connect( $Host, $User, $Password ); } I then use $Link for all update queries and $Link_Local as the connection for SELECT statements. Everything works fine until the slave server database goes down. If the local db is down, the $Link_Local = mysql_connect() call takes at least 30 seconds before it gives up on trying to connect to the localhost and returns back to the script. This causes a huge backlog of page serves and basically shuts down the system (due to the extremely slow response time). Does anyone know of a better way to handle connections to slave servers via PHP? Or, is there some kind of timeout function that could be used to stop the mysql_connect call after 2-3 seconds? Thanks for the help. I searched the other mysql_connect threads, but didn't see any that addressed this issue.

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• How to fix this simple SQL query?

  - by morpheous

  I have a database with three tables: user_table country_table city_table I want to write ANSI SQL which will allow me to fetch all the user data (i.e. user details including the name of the country of the last school and the name of the city they live in now). The problem I am having is that I have to use a self join, and I am getting slightly confused. The schema is shown below: CREATE TABLE user_table (id int, first_name varchar(16), last_school_country_id int, city_id int); CREATE TABLE country_table (id int, name varchar(32)); CREATE TABLE city_table (id int, country_id int, name varchar(32)); This is the query I have come up with so far, but the results are wrong, and sometimes, the db engine (mySQL), asks me if I want to show all [HUGE NUMBER HERE] results - which makes me suspect that I am unintentionally creating a cartesian product somewhere. Can someone explain what is wrong with this SQL statement, and what I need to do to fix it? SELECT usr.id AS id, usr.first_name, ctry1.name as loc_country_name, ctry2.name as school_country_name, city.name as loc_city_name FROM user_table usr, country_table ctry1, country_table ctry2, city_table city WHERE usr.last_school_country_id=ctry2.id AND usr.city_id=city.id AND city.country_id=ctry1.id AND ctry1.id=ctry2.id;

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• Forms authentication: how do you store username password in web.config?

  - by Nick G

  I'm used to using Forms Authentication with a database, but I'm writing a little internal utility and the app doesn't have a database so I want to store the username and password in web.config. However for some reason, forms authentication is still trying to access SQL Server and I can't see how to stop it doing this and pick up the credentials from web.config. What am I doing wrong? I just get the error "Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to a failure in impersonating the client. The connection will be closed." Here are the relevant sections of my web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" timeout="60" name=".LoginCookie" path="/" > <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="user1" password="[pass]" /> <user name="user2" password="[pass]" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration>

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• Function returning a class containing a function returning a class

  - by Scott

  I'm working on an object-oriented Excel add-in to retrieve information from our ERP system's database. Here is an example of a function call: itemDescription = Macola.Item("12345").Description Macola is an instance of a class which takes care of database access. Item() is a function of the Macola class which returns an instance of an ItemMaster class. Description() is a function of the ItemMaster class. This is all working correctly. Items can be be stored in more than one location, so my next step is to do this: quantityOnHand = Macola.Item("12345").Location("A1").QuantityOnHand Location() is a function of the ItemMaster class which returns an instance of the ItemLocation class (well, in theory anyway). QuantityOnHand() is a function of the ItemLocation class. But for some reason, the ItemLocation class is not even being intialized. Public Function Location(inventoryLocation As String) As ItemLocation Set Location = New ItemLocation Location.Item = item_no Location.Code = inventoryLocation End Function In the above sample, the variable item_no is a member variable of the ItemMaster class. Oddly enough, I can successfully instantiate the ItemLocation class outside of the ItemMaster class in a non-class module. Dim test As New ItemLocation test.Item = "12345" test.Code = "A1" quantityOnHand = test.QuantityOnHand Is there some way to make this work the way I want? I'm trying to keep the API as simple as possible. So that it only takes one line of code to retrieve a value.

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• how to handle empty selection in a jface bound combobox?

  - by guido

  I am developing a search dialog in my eclipse-rcp application. In the search dialog I have a combobox as follows: comboImp = new CCombo(grpColSpet, SWT.BORDER | SWT.READ_ONLY); comboImp.setBounds(556, 46, 184, 27); comboImpViewer = new ComboViewer(comboImp); comboImpViewer.setContentProvider(new ArrayContentProvider()); comboImpViewer.setInput(ImpContentProvider.getInstance().getImps()); comboImpViewer.setLabelProvider(new LabelProvider() { @Override public String getText(Object element) { return ((Imp)element).getImpName(); } }); Imp is a database entity, ManyToOne to the main entity which is searched, and ImpContentProvider is the model class which speaks to embedded sqlite database via jpa/hibernate. This combobox is supposed to contain all instances of Imp, but to also let empty selection; it's value is bound to a service bean as follows: IObservableValue comboImpSelectionObserveWidget = ViewersObservables.observeSingleSelection(comboImpViewer); IObservableValue filterByImpObserveValue = BeansObservables.observeValue(searchPrep, "imp"); bindingContext.bindValue(comboImpSelectionObserveWidget, filterByImpObserveValue , null, null); As soon as the user clicks on the combo, a selection (first element) is made: I can see the call to a selectionlistener i added on the viewer. My question is: after a selection has been made, how do I let the user change his mind and have an empty selection in the combobox? should I add a "fake" empty instance of Imp to the List returned by the ImpContentProvider? or should I implement an alternative to ArrayContentProvider? and one additional related question is: why calling deselectAll() and clearSelection() on the combo does NOT set a null value to the bound bean?

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• Excel - Best Way to Connect With Access Data

  - by gamerzfuse

  Hello there, Here is the situation we have: a) I have an Access database / application that records a significant amount of data. Significant fields would be hours, # of sales, # of unreturned calls, etc b) I have an Excel document that connects to the Access database and pulls data in to visualize it As it stands now, the Excel file has a Refresh button that loads new data. The data is loaded into a large PivotTable. The main 'visual form' then uses VLOOKUP to get the results from the form, based on the related hours. This operation is slow (~10 seconds) and seems to be redundant and inefficient. Is there a better way to do this? I am willing to go just about any route - just need directions. Thanks in advance! Update: I have confirmed (due to helpful comments/responses) that the problem is with the data loading itself. removing all the VLOOKUPs only took a second or two out of the load time. So, the questions stands as how I can rapidly and reliably get the data without so much time involvement (it loads around 3000 records into the PivotTables).

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• .NET XML serialization gotchas?

  - by kurious

  I've run into a few gotchas when doing C# XML serialization that I thought I'd share: You can't serialize items that are read-only (like KeyValuePairs) You can't serialize a generic dictionary. Instead, try this wrapper class (from http://weblogs.asp.net/pwelter34/archive/2006/05/03/444961.aspx): using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlRoot("dictionary")] public class SerializableDictionary<TKey, TValue> : Dictionary<TKey, TValue>, IXmlSerializable { public System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } public void ReadXml(System.Xml.XmlReader reader) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); bool wasEmpty = reader.IsEmptyElement; reader.Read(); if (wasEmpty) return; while (reader.NodeType != System.Xml.XmlNodeType.EndElement) { reader.ReadStartElement("item"); reader.ReadStartElement("key"); TKey key = (TKey)keySerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); reader.ReadStartElement("value"); TValue value = (TValue)valueSerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); this.Add(key, value); reader.ReadEndElement(); reader.MoveToContent(); } reader.ReadEndElement(); } public void WriteXml(System.Xml.XmlWriter writer) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); foreach (TKey key in this.Keys) { writer.WriteStartElement("item"); writer.WriteStartElement("key"); keySerializer.Serialize(writer, key); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteStartElement("value"); TValue value = this[key]; valueSerializer.Serialize(writer, value); writer.WriteEndElement(); writer.WriteEndElement(); } } } Any other XML gotchas out there?

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• ASP.MVC 2 Model Data Persistance

  - by toccig

  I'm and MVC1 programmer, new to the MVC2. The data will not persist to the database in an edit scenario. Create works fine. Controller: // // POST: /Attendee/Edit/5 [Authorize(Roles = "Admin")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Attendee attendee) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(attendee, "Attendee"); repository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", attendee); } else { return View(attendee); } } Model: [MetadataType(typeof(Attendee_Validation))] public partial class Attendee { } public class Attendee_Validation { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_id { get; set; } [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_pin { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "* required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_fname { get; set; } [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_mname { get; set; } } I tried to add [Bind(Exclude="attendee_id")] above the Class declaration, but then the value of the attendee_id attribute is set to '0'. View (Strongly-Typed): <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> ... <%=Html.Hidden("attendee_id", Model.attendee_id) %> ... <%=Html.SubmitButton("btnSubmit", "Save") %> <% } %> Basically, the repository.Save(); function seems to do nothing. I imagine it has something to do with a primary key constraint violation. But I'm not getting any errors from SQL Server. The application appears to runs fine, but the data is never persisted to the Database.

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• Use a foreign key mapping to get data from the other table using Python and SQLAlchemy.

  - by Az

  Hmm, the title was harder to formulate than I thought. Basically, I've got these simple classes mapped to tables, using SQLAlchemy. I know they're missing a few items but those aren't essential for highlighting the problem. class Customer(object): def __init__(self, uid, name, email): self.uid = uid self.name = name self.email = email def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Cust: %s, Name: %s (Email: %s)" %(self.uid, self.name, self.email) The above is basically a simple customer with an id, name and an email address. class Order(object): def __init__(self, item_id, item_name, customer): self.item_id = item_id self.item_name = item_name self.customer = None def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Item ID %s: %s, has been ordered by customer no. %s" %(self.item_id, self.item_name, self.customer) This is the Orders class that just holds the order information: an id, a name and a reference to a customer. It's initialised to None to indicate that this item doesn't have a customer yet. The code's job will assign the item a customer. The following code maps these classes to respective database tables. # SQLAlchemy database transmutation engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() customers_table = Table('customers', metadata, Column('uid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('email', String) ) orders_table = Table('orders', metadata, Column('item_id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('item_name', String), Column('customer', Integer, ForeignKey('customers.uid')) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Customer, customers_table) mapper(Orders, orders_table) Now if I do something like: for order in session.query(Order): print order I can get a list of orders in this form: Item ID 1001: MX4000 Laser Mouse, has been ordered by customer no. 12 What I want to do is find out customer 12's name and email address (which is why I used the ForeignKey into the Customer table). How would I go about it?

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• My treeview Data is Not changing.

  - by Vibin Jith

  Hai , I am trying to display the user permission in a treeview.For each user permissions are stored in the database as xml file. In the page, a Combo box used to list the users and a treeView used to bind the Permission xml. When the user get selected in the combo box , i took the xml from the database and connect with xmlDatasource and bind with the treeView. What happening is , First time the TreeView fill with the xml nodes and another time it will not work. For the first selection it's ok. Anothers selections are not effected by the treeview. The code is debugging. No problem. Can you just tell ,why the treeview datasource is not updating. I used this code .. Dim permissionRoot = From permissionNode In MyUser.UserPermissionXml.Root.Elements("menuNode") XmlTreeViewSource.Data = permissionRoot(0).ToString trvPermission.DataSource = XmlTreeViewSource trvPermission.DataBind() SetPermission(trvPermission.Nodes(0)) The markups <asp:TreeView ID="trvPermission" runat="server" ExpandDepth="2" ShowCheckBoxes="All" ShowLines="True" ForeColor="#005782" > <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="menuNode" TextField="title" ValueField="value" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView>

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• Is there a reason why SSIS significantly slows down after a few minutes?

  - by Mark

  I'm running a fairly substantial SSIS package against SQL 2008 - and I'm getting the same results both in my dev environment (Win7-x64 + SQL-x64-Developer) and the production environment (Server 2008 x64 + SQL Std x64). The symptom is that initial data loading screams at between 50K - 500K records per second, but after a few minutes the speed drops off dramatically and eventually crawls embarrasingly slowly. The database is in Simple recovery model, the target tables are empty, and all of the prerequisites for minimally logged bulk inserts are being met. The data flow is a simple load from a RAW input file to a schema-matched table (i.e. no complex transforms of data, no sorting, no lookups, no SCDs, etc.) The problem has the following qualities and resiliences: Problem persists no matter what the target table is. RAM usage is lowish (45%) - there's plenty of spare RAM available for SSIS buffers or SQL Server to use. Perfmon shows buffers are not spooling, disk response times are normal, disk availability is high. CPU usage is low (hovers around 25% shared between sqlserver.exe and DtsDebugHost.exe) Disk activity primarily on TempDB.mdf, but I/O is very low (< 600 Kb/s) OLE DB destination and SQL Server Destination both exhibit this problem. To sum it up, I expect either disk, CPU or RAM to be exhausted before the package slows down, but instead its as if the SSIS package is taking an afternoon nap. SQL server remains responsive to other queries, and I can't find any performance counters or logged events that betray the cause of the problem. I'll gratefully reward any reasonable answers / suggestions.

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• Is excessive DataTable usage bad?

  - by Justin R.

  I was recently asked to assist another team in building an ASP .NET website. They already have a significant amount of code written -- I was specifically asked build a few individual pages for the site. While exploring the code for the rest of the site, the amount of DataTables being constructed jumped out at me. Being a relatively new in the field, I've never worked on an application that utilizes a database as much as this site does, so I'm not sure how common this is. It seems that whenever data is queried from our database, the results are stored in a DataTable. This DataTable is then usually passed around by itself, or it's passed to a constructor. Classes that are initialized with a DataTable always assign the DataTable to a private/protected field, however only a few of these classes implement IDisposable. In fact, in the thousands of lines of code that I've browsed so far, I have yet to see the Dispose method called on a DataTable. If anything, this doesn't seem to be good OOP. Is this something that I should worry about? Or am I just paying more attention to detail than I should? Assuming you're most experienced developers than I am, how would you feel or react if someone who was just assigned to help you with your site approached you about this "problem"?

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• hibernate: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException

  - by user121196

  when saving an object to database using hibernate, sometimes it fails because certain fields of the object exceed the maximum varchar length defined in the database. There force I am using the following approach: 1. attempt to save 2. if getting an DataException, then I truncate the fields in the object to the max length specified in the db definition, then try to save again. However, in the second save after truncation. I'm getting the following exception: hibernate: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails here's the relevant code, what's wrong? public static void saveLenientObject(Object obj){ try { save2(rec); } catch (org.hibernate.exception.DataException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); saveLenientObject(rec, e); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } private static void saveLenientObject(Object rec, DataException e) { Util.truncateObject(rec); System.out.println("after truncation "); save2(rec); } public static void save2(Object obj) throws Exception{ try{ beginTransaction(); getSession().save(obj); commitTransaction(); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); rollbackTransaction(); //closeSession(); throw e; }finally{ closeSession(); } }

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• How to use db4o IObjectContainer in a web application ? (Container lifetime ?)

  - by driis

  I am evaluating db4o for persistence for a ASP .NET MVC project. I am wondering how I should use the IObjectContainer in a web context with regards to object lifetime. As I see it, I can do one of the following: Create the IObjectContainer at application startup and keep the same instance for the entire application lifetime. Create one IObjectContainer per request. Start a server, and get a client IObjectContainer for each database interaction. What are the implications of these options, in terms of performance and concurrency ? Since the database is locked when an IObjectContainer is opened, I am pretty sure that option 2) would get me some problems with concurrency - would this also be the case for option 1 ? As I understand it, if I retrieve an object from an IObjectContainer, it must be saved by the same IObjectContainer instance - in order for db4o to identify it as being the same object. Therefore, If I choose option 3), I would have to retrieve the original object, make the necessary changes (copy data from a modified object), and then store it using the same IObjectContainer. Is this true ?

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