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  • datepicker value is blank when disabled, jquery

    - by Mithil Deshmukh
    Hi. I'm fairly new to jQuery. I have a Jquery datepicker in a user control. I have added a "disable" property to the datepicker. Whenever I save the page(having this usercontrol) the datepicker with disable set to true is empty. All other datepickers save fine. Here is my code. ASPX < USERCONTROL:DATEPICKER id="dpBirthDate" startyear="1980" runat="server" Disable=true ASCX < input type="text" size="8" runat="server" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" onblur="ValidateForm(this.id);" / ASCX Code Behind Public Property Disable() As Boolean Get Return (txtDate.Disabled = True) End Get Set(ByVal bValue As Boolean) If (bValue = True) Then txtDate.Attributes.Add("Disabled", "True") Else txtDate.Attributes.Remove("Disabled") End If End Set End Property My Jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("input[id$=txtDate]").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("BASE_DIRECTORY")%>/Images/el-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true }); $("input[id$=txtDate]").mask("99/99/9999", { placeholder: " " }); //Disable datepicker if "disable=true" $("input[id$=txtDate]").each(function() { if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "True") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("disable"); } else if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "False") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("enable"); } }); }); I am sorry, I am not sure how to format the code here. I apologies for the cluttered code. Can anybody tell me why the datepicker value is empty when it is disabled but works fine otherwise? Thanks is advance.

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  • Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

    - by Alan_m
    I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

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  • How to lazy load scripts in YUI that accompany ajax html fragments

    - by Chris Beck
    I have a web app with Tabs for Messages and Contacts (think gmail). Each Tab has a Y.on('click') event listener that retrieves an HTML fragment via Y.io() and renders the fragment via node.setContent(). However, the Contact Tab also requires contact.js to enable an Edit button in the fragment. How do I defer the cost of loading contact.js until the user clicks on the Contacts tab? How should contact.js add it's listener to the Edit button? The Complete function of my Tab's on('click') event could serialize Get.script('contact.js') after Y.io('fragment'). However, for better performance, I would prefer to download the script in parallel to downloading the HTML fragment. In that case, I would need to defer adding an event listener to the Edit button until the Edit button is available. This seems like a common RIA design pattern. What is the best way to implement this with YUI? How should I get the script? How should I defer sections of the script until elements in the fragment are available in the DOM?

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  • MS Access 2003 - Save button enabling on form open on different tabs

    - by Justin
    I have a tab control on a form, and a couple different tabs have save buttons on them. Once the user saves data (via SQL statements in VBA), I set the .enabled = false so that they cannot use this button again until moving to a brand new record (which is a button click on the overall form). so when my form open i was going to reference a sub that enabled all these save buttons because the open event would mean new record. though i get an error that says it either does not exist, or is closed. any ideas? thanks EDIT: Sub Example() error handling Dim db as dao.database dim rs as dao.recordset dim sql as string SQL = "INSERT INTO tblMain (Name, Address, CITY) VALUES (" if not isnull (me.name) then sql = sql & """" & me.name & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not insull(me.adress) then sql = sql & " """ & me.address & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not isnull(me.city) then sql = sql & " """ & me.city & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if 'debug.print(sql) set db = currentdb db.execute (sql) MsgBox "Changes were successfully saved" me.MyTabCtl.Pages.Item("SecondPage").setfocus me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = false and then on then the cmdSave needs to get re enabled on a new record (which by the way, this form is unbound), so it all happens when the form is re-opened. I tried this: Sub Form_Open() me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = true End Sub and this is where I get the error stated above. So this is also not the tab that has focus when the form opens. Is that why I get this error? I cannot enable or disable a control when the tab is not showing?

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  • How to set UCS2 in numpy?

    - by mindcorrosive
    I'm trying to build numpy 1.2.1 as a module for a third-party python interpreter (custom-built, py2.4 linux x86_64) so that I can make calls to numpy from within it. Let's call this one interpreter A. The thing is, the system-wide python interpreter (also py2.4, let's call it B) from the vendor is built with --enable-unicode=ucs4, while the custom one is with UCS2. Needless to say, when I try to build a module with B, I get an error when I try to import numpy in A -- it complains about undefined symbol _PyUnicodeUCS4_IsWhiteSpace. I've searched around and apparently there's no way around this but to compile a custom Python interpreter -- which I did (let's call it interpreter C), properly specifying the unicode string length (verifiable through sys.maxunicode). I managed to build numpy with C as well, surprisingly enough, but still the problem persists when I try to import it in interpreter C. Previously, when I built numpy using B, there were no problems when importing it in B, but A would complain. Perhaps there's an option when building numpy to specify the length of Unicode strings to be used, as when configuring Python builds? Or am I doing something else wrong? A few notes: Upgrading to newer versions of python and/or numpy is not an option - interpreter A will stay on this version of the grammar for the foreseeable future. Also, it is not possible to start the interpreter A in standalone mode to build numpy with it, as it needs some other libraries preloaded I know that this whole thing is a mess, but I'd appreciate any help I can get to make this work. If you need more information, please let me know, I'd be happy to oblige. Thanks to everybody for their time in advance.

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  • NAnt errors when generating assembly info after project is upgraded to VS2010

    - by Grant Palin
    I have a project I recently upgraded to VS2010 - the project/solution files are updated, but I'm still targeting .NET 3.5. Until now, my standard NAnt build script has not given me any trouble. However, it appears that after updating the project, and updating the NAnt config to be aware of the new tooling, I am now receiving an error when autogenerating assembly information, which fails the build. The relevant build task is below: <asminfo output="${dir.src}\${file.commonAssemblyInfo}" language="${project.codeLanguage}"> <imports> <import namespace="System.Reflection" /> </imports> <attributes> <attribute type="AssemblyVersionAttribute" value="${project.fullversion}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyFileVersionAttribute" value="${project.fullversion}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyInformationalVersionAttribute" value="${project.fullversion}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyCopyrightAttribute" value="${assembly.copyright}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyCompanyAttribute" value="${assembly.company}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyConfigurationAttribute" value="${project.config}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyTrademarkAttribute" value="${assembly.trademark}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyProductAttribute" value="${assembly.product}" /> </attributes> </asminfo> The error is highlighted for the first line of the asminfo task. It reads: AssemblyInfo file 'C:\Users\Grant\Projects\VisualStudio\Checklist\src\CommonAssemblyInfo.cs' could not be generated. This method implicitly uses CAS policy, which has been obsoleted by the .NET Framework. In order to enable CAS policy for compatibility reasons, please use the NetFx40_LegacySecurityPolicy configuration switch. Please see http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=155570 for more information. I've gathered so far that this is something new to .NET 4. Has anyone had to address this error before? Does anyone know what it is about asminfo that may be triggering the error?

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  • UIWebView: webViewDidStartLoad/webViewDidFinishLoad delegate methods not called when loading certain URLs

    - by Dia
    I have basic web browser implemented using a UIWebView. I've noticed that for some pages, none of the UIWebViewDelegate methods are called. An example page in which this happens is: http://www.youtube.com/user/google. Here are the steps to reproduce the issue (make sure you insert NSLog calls in your controller's UIWebViewDelegate methods): Load the above youtube URL into the UIWebView [notice that here, the UIWebViewDelegate methods do get called when the page loads] Touch the "Uploads" category on the page Touch any video in that category [issue: notice that a new page is loaded, but none of the UIWebView delegates are called] I know that this is not an issue of UIWebView's delegate not being set properly, since the delegate methods do get invoked when loading other links (e.g. if you try clicking on a link that takes you outside of youtube, you'll notice the delegate methods getting called). My gut feeling initially was that it might be because the page is loaded using AJAX, which may not invoke the delegate method. But then when I checked Safari, it did not exhibit this problem, so it must be something on my side. I've also noticed that Three20's TTWebController has the exact same issue as I'm having. But the problem that arises from this issue is that without the delegate methods called, I'm unable to update the UI to enable/disable the back and forward browsing buttons when new requests are loaded. And idea why this is happening or how can I work around it to update the UI when a new request is made?

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  • DesignTime data not showing in Blend when bound against CollectionViewSource

    - by bitbonk
    I have datatemplate for a viewmodel where an itemscontrol is bound again a CollectionViewSource (to enable sorting in xaml). <DataTemplate x:Key="equipmentDataTemplate"> <Viewbox> <Viewbox.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="viewSource" Source="{Binding Modules}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ID" Direction="Ascending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Viewbox.Resources> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource viewSource}}" Height="{DynamicResource equipmentHeight}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource moduleDataTemplate}"> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </Viewbox> </DataTemplate> I have also setup the UserControl where all of this is defined to provide designtime data d:DataContext="{x:Static vm:DesignTimeHelper.Equipment}"> This is basically a static property that gives me an EquipmentViewModel that has a list of ModuleViewModels (Equipment.Modules). Now as long as I bind to the CollectionViewSource the designtime data does not show up in blend 3. When I bind to the ViewModel collection directly <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Modules}" I can see the designtime data. Any idea what I could do?

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  • How to call a service operation at a REST style WCF endpoint uri?

    - by Dieter Domanski
    Hi, is it possible to call a service operation at a wcf endpoint uri with a self hosted service? I want to call some default service operation when the client enters the endpoint uri of the service. In the following sample these uris correctly call the declared operations (SayHello, SayHi): - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hello - http://localhost:4711/clerk/hi But the uri - http://localhost:4711/clerk does not call the declared SayWelcome operation. Instead it leads to the well known 'Metadata publishing disabled' page. Enabling mex does not help, in this case the mex page is shown at the endpoint uri. private void StartSampleServiceHost() { ServiceHost serviceHost = new ServiceHost(typeof(Clerk), new Uri( "http://localhost:4711/clerk/")); ServiceEndpoint endpoint = serviceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IClerk), new WebHttpBinding(), ""); endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new WebHttpBehavior()); serviceHost.Open(); } [ServiceContract] public interface IClerk { [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "")] Stream SayWelcome(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hello/")] Stream SayHello(); [OperationContract, WebGet(UriTemplate = "/hi/")] Stream SayHi(); } public class Clerk : IClerk { public Stream SayWelcome() { return Say("welcome"); } public Stream SayHello() { return Say("hello"); } public Stream SayHi() { return Say("hi"); } private Stream Say(string what) { string page = @"<html><body>" + what + "</body></html>"; return new MemoryStream(Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(page)); } } Is there any way to disable the mex handling and to enable a declared operation instead? Thanks in advance, Dieter

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  • Rails: link_to_remote prototype helper with :with option

    - by Syed Aslam
    I am trying to grab the current value of a drop down list with Prototype and passing it along using :with like this <%= link_to_remote "today", :update => "choices", :url => { :action => "check_availability" } , :with => "'practitioner='+$F('practitioner')&'clinic='+$F('clinic')&'when=today'", :loading => "spinner.show(); $('submit').disable();", :complete => "spinner.hide(); $('submit').enable();" %> However, this is not working as expected. I am unable to access parameters in the controller as the link_to_remote helper is sending parameters like this: Parameters: {"succ"=>"function () {\n return this + 1;\n}", "action"=>"check_availability", "round"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "ceil"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "floor"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "times"=>"function (iterator, context) {\n $R(0, this, true).each(iterator, context);\n return this;\n}", "toPaddedString"=>"function (length, radix) {\n var string = this.toString(radix || 10);\n return \"0\".times(length - string.length) + string;\n}", "toColorPart"=>"function () {\n return this.toPaddedString(2, 16);\n}", "abs"=>"function () {\n return __method.apply(null, [this].concat($A(arguments)));\n}", "controller"=>"main"} Where am I going wrong? Is there a better way to do this?

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  • wsimport generate a client with cookies

    - by dierre
    I'm generating a client for a SOAP 1.2 service using wsimport from the jaxws-maven-plugin in maven with the following execution: <groupId>org.jvnet.jax-ws-commons</groupId> <artifactId>jaxws-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>wsimport</goal> </goals> <configuration> <sourceDestDir>${project.basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDestDir> <wsdlUrls> <wsdlUrl>${webservice.url}</wsdlUrl> </wsdlUrls> <extension>true</extension> </configuration> </execution> The first time the client call the proxy, the load balancer generate a cookie and sends it back. The client should send it back so the load balancer knows where (which server) is dedicated to a specific client (the idea is that the first time the client get a server and the cookie identifies the server, then the load balancer sends the client to the same server for every call) Now, is there a way to tell to the plugin to enable automatically the cookie handling?

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • How do I programatically add an article page to a sharepoint site?

    - by soniiic
    I've been given the task of content migration from another CMS system to SharePoint 2010. The data in the old system is fairly easy to capture and the page hierarchy is simple so I'm not worried about that. However, I am completely flummoxed about how to even create a page in code. I'm using the Microsoft.SharePoint.Client namespace as I do not have sharepoint installed on my system and am wanting to code this up as a console application and so I'm using I'm using ClientContext. (On the other hand, I am willing to go into other solutions if necessary). My end-game: To get a page uploaded into some folder hierarchy which uses a master page, has the page title in a header web part, and a big ol' content-editable web part in the body so any user can come along and edit the content. Things I've tried so far: Using FileCollection.Add() to add an aspx file to the folder "Site Pages". This renders the html in the browser but doesn't enable any features for the user to edit the page Using ListItemCollection.Add() to add a page to the site, but I didn't know what fields I needed. Also I remember it came up with a runtime error saying I should use FileCollection.Add() Uploading to 'Site Pages' instead of 'Pages' So many others... ow my head :( The only plausible thing I can see on the net is to use the PublishingPage type along with PublishingWeb. However, PublishingWeb can only be constructed from an SPWeb object which requires me to be actually hosting the sharepoint application on my workstation. If anyone can lend a hand that would be greatly appreciated :)

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  • register device at run time

    - by user177893
    In the App ID section of the Program Portal, locate the App ID you wish to use with the Apple Push Notification service. Only App IDs with a specific bundle ID can be used with the APNs. You cannot use a “wild-card” application ID. You must see “Available” under the Apple Push Notification service column to register this App ID and configure a certificate for this App ID. Click the ‘Configure’ link next to your desired App ID. In the Configure App ID page, check the Enable Push Notification Services box and click the Configure button. Clicking this button launches the APNs Assistant, which guides you through the next series of steps that create your App ID specific Client SSL certificate. Download the Client SSL certificate file to your download location. Navigate to that location and double-click the certificate file (which has an extension of cer) to install it in your keychain. When you are finished, click Done in the APNS Assistant. Double-clicking the file launches Keychain Access. Make sure you install the certificate in your login keychain on the computer you are using for provider development. The APNs SSL certificate should be installed on your notification server. When you finish these steps you are returned to the Configure App ID page of the iPhone Dev Center portal. The certificate should be badged with a green circle and the label “Enabled”. To complete the APNs set-up process, you will need to create a new provisioning profile containing your APNs-enabled App ID. IS it posssible to do theses steps through code.

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  • WCF: Using multiple bindings for a single service.

    - by Lijo
    Hi, I have a WCF service (in 3.0) which is running fine with wsHttpBinding. I want to add netTcpBinding binding also to the same service. But the challenge that I am facing is in adding behaviorConfiguration. How should I modify the following code to enable the service for both the bindings? Please help… <service name="Lijo.Samples.WeatherService" behaviorConfiguration="WeatherServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/FreeServiceWorld"/> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8052/ServiceModelSamples/FreeServiceWorld"/> <!-- added new baseaddress for TCP--> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Lijo.Samples.IWeather" /> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="Lijo.Samples.IWeather" /> <!-- added new end point--> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WeatherServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="False"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> Please see the following to see further details http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2887588/wcf-using-windows-service Thanks Lijo

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  • Does Java 6 open a default port for JMX remote connections?

    - by Bob Cross
    My specific question has to do with JMX as used in JDK 1.6: if I am running a Java process using JRE 1.6 with com.sun.management.jmxremote in the command line, does Java pick a default port for remote JMX connections? Backstory: I am currently trying to develop a procedure to give to a customer that will enable them to connect to one of our processes via JMX from a remote machine. The goal is to facillitate their remote debugging of a situation occurring on a real-time display console. Because of their service level agreement, they are strongly motivated to capture as much data as possible and, if the situation looks too complicated to fix quickly, to restart the display console and allow it to reconnect to the server-side. I am aware the I could run jconsole on JDK 1.6 processes and jvisualvm on post-JDK 1.6.7 processes given physical access to the console. However, because of the operational requirements and people problems involved, we are strongly motivated to grab the data that we need remotely and get them up and running again. EDIT: I am aware of the command line port property com.sun.management.jmxremote.port=portNum The question that I am trying to answer is, if you do not set that property at the command line, does Java pick another port for remote monitoring? If so, how could you determine what it might be?

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • running .net application over a network

    - by Marlon
    Hello, I need some advice please. I need to enable a .Net application to run over a network share, the problem is that this will be on clients network shares and so the path will not be identical. I've had a quick look at ClickOnce and the publish options in VS2008 but it wants a specific network share location - and I'm assuming this location gets stored somewhere when it does its thing. At the moment the job is being done with a old VB6 application and so gets around all these security issues, but that application is poorly written and almost impossible to maintain so it really needs to go. Is it possible for the domain controller to be set up to allow this specific .Net application to execute? Any other options would be welcomed as I want to get this little application is very business critical. I aught to say that the client networks are schools, and thus are often quite locked down as are the client machines, so manually adding exceptions to each client machine is a big no no. Marlon --Edit-- Apologies, I forgot to mention we're restricted to .net 2.0 for the moment, we are planning to upgrade this to 4.0 but that won't be immediate.

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  • How to provide js-ctypes in a spidermonkey embedding?

    - by Triston J. Taylor
    Summary I have looked over the code the SpiderMonkey 'shell' application uses to create the ctypes JavaScript object, but I'm a less-than novice C programmer. Due to the varying levels of insanity emitted by modern build systems, I can't seem to track down the code or command that actually links a program with the desired functionality. method.madness This js-ctypes implementation by The Mozilla Devs is an awesome addition. Since its conception, scripting has been primarily used to exert control over more rigorous and robust applications. The advent of js-ctypes to the SpiderMonkey project, enables JavaScript to stand up and be counted as a full fledged object oriented rapid application development language flying high above 'the bar' set by various venerable application development languages such as Microsoft's VB6. Shall we begin? I built SpiderMonkey with this config: ./configure --enable-ctypes --with-system-nspr followed by successful execution of: make && make install The js shell works fine and a global ctypes javascript object was verified operational in that shell. Working with code taken from the first source listing at How to embed the JavaScript Engine -MDN, I made an attempt to instantiate the JavaScript ctypes object by inserting the following code at line 66: /* Populate the global object with the ctypes object. */ if (!JS_InitCTypesClass(cx, global)) return NULL; /* I compiled with: g++ $(./js-config --cflags --libs) hello.cpp -o hello It compiles with a few warnings: hello.cpp: In function ‘int main(int, const char**)’: hello.cpp:69:16: warning: converting to non-pointer type ‘int’ from NULL [-Wconversion-null] hello.cpp:80:20: warning: deprecated conversion from string constant to ‘char*’ [-Wwrite-strings] hello.cpp:89:17: warning: NULL used in arithmetic [-Wpointer-arith] But when you run the application: ./hello: symbol lookup error: ./hello: undefined symbol: JS_InitCTypesClass Moreover JS_InitCTypesClass is declared extern in 'dist/include/jsapi.h', but the function resides in 'ctypes/CTypes.cpp' which includes its own header 'CTypes.h' and is compiled at some point by some command during 'make' to yeild './CTypes.o'. As I stated earlier, I am less than a novice with the C code, and I really have no idea what to do here. Please give or give direction to a generic example of making the js-ctypes object functional in an embedding.

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  • Practiaal rules for Django MiddleWare ordering?

    - by o_O Tync
    The official documentation is a bit messy: 'before' & 'after' are used for ordering MiddleWare in a tuple, but in some places 'before'&'after' refers to request-response phases. Also, 'should be first/last' are mixed and it's not clear which one to use as 'first'. I do understand the difference.. however it seems to complicated for a newbie in Django. Can you suggest some correct ordering for builtin MiddleWare classes (assuming we enable all of them) and — most importantly — explain WHY one goes before/after other ones? here's the list, with the info from docs I managed to find: UpdateCacheMiddleware Before those that modify 'Vary:' SessionMiddleware, GZipMiddleware, LocaleMiddleware GZipMiddleware Before any MW that may change or use the response body After UpdateCacheMiddleware: Modifies 'Vary:' ConditionalGetMiddleware Before CommonMiddleware: uses its 'Etag:' header when USE_ETAGS=True SessionMiddleware After UpdateCacheMiddleware: Modifies 'Vary:' Before TransactionMiddleware: we don't need transactions here LocaleMiddleware, One of the topmost, after SessionMiddleware, CacheMiddleware After UpdateCacheMiddleware: Modifies 'Vary:' After SessionMiddleware: uses session data CommonMiddleware Before any MW that may change the response (it calculates ETags) After GZipMiddleware so it won't calculate an E-Tag on gzipped contents Close to the top: it redirects when APPEND_SLASH or PREPEND_WWW CsrfViewMiddleware AuthenticationMiddleware After SessionMiddleware: uses session storage MessageMiddleware After SessionMiddleware: can use Session-based storage XViewMiddleware TransactionMiddleware After MWs that use DB: SessionMiddleware (configurable to use DB) All *CacheMiddleWare is not affected (as an exception: uses own DB cursor) FetchFromCacheMiddleware After those those that modify 'Vary:' if uses them to pick a value for cache hash-key After AuthenticationMiddleware so it's possible to use CACHE_MIDDLEWARE_ANONYMOUS_ONLY FlatpageFallbackMiddleware Bottom: last resort Uses DB, however, is not a problem for TransactionMiddleware (yes?) RedirectFallbackMiddleware Bottom: last resort Uses DB, however, is not a problem for TransactionMiddleware (yes?) (I will add suggestions to this list to collect all of them in one place)

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  • Are Fortran control characters (carriage control) still implemented in compilers?

    - by CmdrGuard
    In the book Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, there is much talk given to the importance of recognizing that the first column in a format statement is reserved for control characters. I've also seen control characters referred to as carriage control on the internet. To avoid confusion, by control characters, I refer to the characters "1, a blank (i.e. \s), 0, and +" as having an effect on the vertical spacing of output when placed in the first column (character) of a FORMAT statement. Also, see this text-only web page written entirely in fixed-width typeface : Fortran carriage-control (because nothing screams accuracy and antiquity better than prose in monospaced font). I found this page and others like it to be not quite clear. According to Fortran 95/2003 for Scientists and Engineers, failure to recall that the first column is reserved for carriage control can lead to horrible unintended output. Paraphrasing Dave Barry, type the wrong character, and nuclear missiles get fired at Norway. However, when I attempt to adhere to this stern warning, I find that gfortran has no idea what I'm talking about. Allow me to illustrate my point with some example code. I am trying to print out the number Pi: PROGRAM test_format IMPLICIT NONE REAL :: PI = 2 * ACOS(0.0) WRITE (*, 100) PI WRITE (*, 200) PI WRITE (*, 300) PI 100 FORMAT ('1', "New page: ", F11.9) 200 FORMAT (' ', "Single Space: ", F11.9) 300 FORMAT ('0', "Double Space: ", F11.9) END PROGRAM test_format This is the output: 1New page: 3.141592741 Single Space: 3.141592741 0Double Space: 3.141592741 The "1" and "0" are not typos. It appears that gfortran is completely ignoring the control character column. My question, then, is this: Are control characters still implemented in standards compliant compilers or is gfortran simply not standards compliant? For clarity, here is the output of my gfortran -v Using built-in specs. Target: powerpc-apple-darwin9 Configured with: ../gcc-4.4.0/configure --prefix=/sw --prefix=/sw/lib/gcc4.4 --mandir=/sw/share/man --infodir=/sw/share/info --enable-languages=c,c++,fortran,objc,java --with-gmp=/sw --with-libiconv-prefix=/sw --with-ppl=/sw --with-cloog=/sw --with-system-zlib --x-includes=/usr/X11R6/include --x-libraries=/usr/X11R6/lib --disable-libjava-multilib --build=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --host=powerpc-apple-darwin9 --target=powerpc-apple-darwin9 Thread model: posix gcc version 4.4.0 (GCC)

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  • Loader.php trying to load Doctrine classes, but we use Propel!

    - by kewpiedoll99
    We are finding cases where we get the following 500 error: File xyz.php does not exist or class "xyz" was not found in the file at () in SF_ROOT_DIR/lib/vendor/Zend/Loader.php line 107 ... where xyz == Memcache (when trying to use symfony cc on the command line) or sfDoctrineAdminGenerator (when using an old-ish AdminGenerator-generated CMS page). We use Propel, but Loader.php is trying to load classes used only for Doctrine. Currently I am using a filthy hack where I request Loader.php to check if the file is either of these two cases, and if so simply return rather than trying to load it. Obviously, this is unacceptable longer term. Has anybody encountered this, and how did you solve it? Edited to add: We have: class ProjectConfiguration extends sfProjectConfiguration { public function setup() { // for compatibility / remove and enable only the plugins you want $this->enableAllPluginsExcept(array('sfDoctrinePlugin')); } } And we have a propel.ini file in our top level config directory. This has only started in the past four weeks or so, and we've had a stable build for over a year now. I'm pretty sure Doctrine is totally disabled.

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  • SWT TabFolder: Weird Drawing Behaviour

    - by JesperGJensen
    Hello StackOverflow Experts Description I have an SWT Page with a TabFolder with a number of dynamically created TabItems. On each TabItem i crate a Composite and set the TabItem.setControl() to the Composite. I then use this Composite as the page on which i draw my items. I draw a set of Controls, including Textbox's and Labels. For the First, Default Tab, this works fine. No problems. Problem On tabs that is not the first tab i have the following problems: I am unable to visually alter then Edited/Enabled state of my Controls. I am unable to visually set the Text content of my elements My Controls look disabled and have a Greyed out look. But i am able to Select the content with my mouse and use CTRL+C to copy it out. So the text contet is there and they are Editable. Visually it is just not updated. Any comments are appeciated, Any requests for code, examples will be supplied and help Welcommed. Updates I tried added the suggest debug loop to the code, where i attempt to enable my Controls. This was the result: [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - f038.stklok is now Editable [true] and enabled [true] [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true Text {} [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true Composite {} [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true TabFolder {} [main] INFO [dk.viking.controller.LayerController] - true Shell {Viking GUI}

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  • JavaScript alert not working in Android WebView

    - by user655192
    In my application I am using WebView and in that I am using JavaScript alert( ) method but its not working, no pop-up appears. in my manifest file I have added <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> and in activity file I have added mWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); mWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mWebView.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/demo.html"); In layout xml file I have added <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> Any clue how to enable full JavaScript in WebView. Update Thanks mark the alert() method in the html file are working now :) . Now there are two issues in WebView : 1: I am using a in the html file that i am loading in WebView , and trying to write in Hindi language font in it, but when i try to write Hindi text it displays as symbols ( rectangle symbols like [] ) . when i do the same in firefox browser on desktop it works fine. any clue how to give support for multiple language in textarea in WebView ? 2: When I am clicking submit and trying to open the value of text in alert() method in another java script it doesn't work , does it mean even after using WebChromeClient its applicable only for current loaded html page and not java scripts called from that page ?

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  • Cannot get new product attribute in grid display

    - by russjman
    I added a new attribute to my products(a boolean "yes/no" field). It is a variable to enable/disable the price from displaying on the product detail page, and grid view. I managed to get it work on the product info page. But on product grid page I cant seem to access that variable. Specifically, the template i am working with is catalog/product/price.phtml. From what i can tell, the price is being displayed by the same group of if-statements on both the product detail page, and grid page. This has me confused because i cant find any code on that template to handle multiple products, just a bunch of nested if statements. this is how im attempting to access this new variable using $_displayPrice. on line 36 of catalog/product/price.html <?php $_product = $this->getProduct(); ?> <?php $_id = $_product->getId() ?> <?php $_displayPrice = $_product->getDisplayPrice() ? "Yes" : "No"; echo $_displayPrice;?> What has me further confused is that when display $_product-getData(), my new variable isn't anywhere among that data. thanks in advance

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