Search Results

Search found 22701 results on 909 pages for 'missing features'.

Page 735/909 | < Previous Page | 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742  | Next Page >

  • What is the proper way to align UITableViewCells when only some have an imageView?

    - by Topher Fangio
    Hello all, I am new to iPhone programming and working on my first real application (i.e. one not written in a book or online) and I've run into a small problem which I could solve a multitude of ways, but feel like there should be a good solution that perhaps I am just missing. Here is the scenario: I have a UITableView with a bunch of standard UITableViewCells in it. What I want to do is toggle a green check mark when the cell is selected and I have that part working (note: I'm already using the accessoryType for something else, so I can't use it for the checkmark...besides, it's not as pretty). Unfortunately, when I toggle the checkmark like so: if (...) { cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"checkmark.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = nil; } It makes the cell's label bounce back and forth depending on whether it is checked or not. What is the proper way to align the cell's text (set via cell.textLabel.text) regardless of whether or not it has an image set? The solutions I have come up with are: Create a blank 40x40 png image in Photoshop and set the unchecked to that Create a blank 40x40 image solely in code Set some setting that I don't know about that will align it for me Create a subclass of UITableCellView that does what I need (which would be stupid, I'd just go with option 1...) Suggestions? Thoughts? Comments? Thank you very much :-) P.S. I'd like the solution to work with OS 3.0 and 4.0 if that makes any sort of difference.

    Read the article

  • Comparing two date ranges within the same table

    - by Danny Herran
    I have a table with sales per store as follows: SQL> select * from sales; ID ID_STORE DATE TOTAL ---------- -------- ---------- -------------------------------------------------- 1 1 2010-01-01 500.00 2 1 2010-01-02 185.00 3 1 2010-01-03 135.00 4 1 2009-01-01 165.00 5 1 2009-01-02 175.00 6 5 2010-01-01 130.00 7 5 2010-01-02 135.00 8 5 2010-01-03 130.00 9 6 2010-01-01 100.00 10 6 2010-01-02 12.00 11 6 2010-01-03 85.00 12 6 2009-01-01 135.00 13 6 2009-01-02 400.00 14 6 2009-01-07 21.00 15 6 2009-01-08 45.00 16 8 2009-01-09 123.00 17 8 2009-01-10 581.00 17 rows selected. What I need to do is to compare two date ranges within that table. Lets say I need to know the differences in sales between 01 Jan 2009 to 10 Jan 2009 AGAINST 01 Jan 2010 to 10 Jan 2010. I'd like to build a query that returns something like this: ID_STORE_A DATE_A TOTAL_A ID_STORE_B DATE_B TOTAL_B ---------- ---------- --------- ---------- ---------- ------------------- 1 2010-01-01 500.00 1 2009-01-01 165.00 1 2010-01-02 185.00 1 2009-01-02 175.00 1 2010-01-03 135.00 1 NULL NULL 5 2010-01-01 130.00 5 NULL NULL 5 2010-01-02 135.00 5 NULL NULL 5 2010-01-03 130.00 5 NULL NULL 6 2010-01-01 100.00 6 2009-01-01 135.00 6 2010-01-02 12.00 6 2009-01-02 400.00 6 2010-01-03 85.00 6 NULL NULL 6 NULL NULL 6 2009-01-07 21.00 6 NULL NULL 6 2009-01-08 45.00 6 NULL NULL 8 2009-01-09 123.00 6 NULL NULL 8 2009-01-10 581.00 So, even if there are no sales in one range or another, it should just fill the empty space with NULL. So far, I've come up with this quick query, but I the "dates" from sales to sales2 sometimes are different in each row: SELECT sales.*, sales2.* FROM sales LEFT JOIN sales AS sales2 ON (sales.id_store=sales2.id_store) WHERE sales.date >= '2010-01-01' AND sales.date <= '2010-01-10' AND sales2.date >= '2009-01-01' AND sales2.date <= '2009-01-10' ORDER BY sales.id_store ASC, sales.date ASC, sales2.date ASC What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How do i transfer this unmanaged code from asp to asp.net 2/mvc?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm a newbie to ASP.net interop features, so what i have right here is some unmanaged dll that i need to call from my asp.net mvc app. the dll name is CTSerialNumChecksum.dll set CheckSumObj = Server.CreateObject("CTSerialNumChecksum.CRC32API") validSno = CheckSumObj.ValidateSerialNumber(no) i know it's unmanaged because when i try to add reference to the dll it doesn't work. i try to follow some tutorials on interop and marshalling but thus far i wasn't able to get the code to work. i'm trying to wrap the object into another static class and just let the rest of the app to call the code. using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace OnlineRegisteration.Models { public static class SerialNumberChecksum { [DllImport("CTSerialNumChecksum")] public static extern int ValidateSerialNumber(string serialNo); } } Questions: How do i write the class? And what tool can i use to identify what type of dll a particular file is, i.e. unmanaged c++, etc? Also i intend to make use jquery to do ajax call later so i can use this to validate my form pre-submission. Is there a better way to handle this?

    Read the article

  • Oracle - Getting Select Count(*) from ... as an output parameter in System.Data.OracleClient

    - by cbeuker
    Greetings all, I have a question. I am trying to build a parametrized query to get me the number of rows from a table in Oracle. Rather simple. However I am an Oracle newbie.. I know in SQL Server you can do something like: Select @outputVariable = count(*) from sometable where name = @SomeOtherVariable and then you can set up an Output parameter in the System.Data.SqlClient to get the @outputVariable. Thinking that one should be able to do this in Oracle as well, I have the following query Select count(*) into :theCount from sometable where name = :SomeValue I set up my oracle parameters (using System.Data.OracleClient - yes I know it will be deprecated in .Net 4 - but that's what I am working with for now) as follows IDbCommand command = new OracleCommand(); command.CommandText = "Select count(*) into :theCount from sometable where name = :SomeValue"); command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OracleParameter parameterTheCount = new OracleParameter(":theCount ", OracleType.Number); parameterTheCount .Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; command.Parameters.Add(parameterTheCount ); OracleParameter parameterSomeValue = new OracleParameter(":SomeValue", OracleType.VarChar, 40); parameterSomeValue .Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; parameterSomeValue .Value = "TheValueToLookFor"; command.Parameters.Add(parameterSomeValue ); command.Connection = myconnectionObject; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); int theCount = (int)parameterTheCount.Value; At which point I was hoping the count would be in the parameter parameterTheCount that I could readily access. I keep getting the error ora-01036 which http://ora-01036.ora-code.com tells me to check my binding in the sql statement. Am I messing something up in the SQL statement? Am I missing something simple elsewhere? I could just use command.ExecuteScaler() as I am only getting one item, and am probably going to end up using that, but at this point, curiosity has got the better of me. What if I had two parameters I wanted back from my query (ie: select max(ColA), min(ColB) into :max, :min.....) Thanks..

    Read the article

  • Keybd is not working right =(

    - by user302131
    i can't get this to work right this should press left for 1sec then wait 10secs then right 1sec. keybd_event(0x25, 0xCB, 0, 0); // press left cout << "Ldown\n"; // so i know it worked Sleep(1000); // hold it for 1sec keybd_event(0x25, 0xCB, KEYEVENTF_KEYUP, 0);// let go of the key cout << "Lup\n"; // so i know i let go Sleep(10000); // Sleep for 10secs keybd_event(0x27, 0xCD, 0, 0); // press right cout << "Rdown\n"; // so i know i pressed right Sleep(1000); // sleep 1sec keybd_event(0x27, 0xCD, KEYEVENTF_KEYUP, 0);// let go of the key cout << "Rdown\n"; // so i know i let go. this is in a loop but it wont do anything :( unless i close the program before the key is let go then it will just keep the keydown until i press the key again. i know you can use only one key code if you want but i need to use both. so what i'm i missing?

    Read the article

  • PHP - Database schema: version control, branching, migrations.

    - by Billiam
    I'm trying to come up with (or find) a reusable system for database schema versioning in php projects. There are a number of Rails-style migration projects available for php. http://code.google.com/p/mysql-php-migrations/ is a good example. It uses timestamps for migration files, which helps with conflicts between branches. General problem with this kind of system: When development branch A is checked out, and you want to check out branch B instead, B may have new migration files. This is fine, migrating to newer content is straight forward. If branch A has newer migration files, you would need to migrate downwards to the nearest shared patch. If branch A and B have significantly different code bases, you may have to migrate down even further. This may mean: Check out B, determine shared patch number, check out A, migrate downwards to this patch. This must be done from A since the actual applied patches are not available in B. Then, checkout branch B, and migrate to newest B patch. Reverse process again when going from B to A. Proposed system: When migrating upwards, instead of just storing the patch version, serialize the whole patch in database for later use, though I'd probably only need the down() method. When changing branches, compare patches that have been run to patches that are available in the destination branch. Determine nearest shared patch (or oldest difference, maybe) between db table of run patches and patches in destination branch by ID or hash. Could also look for new or missing patches that are buried under a number of shared patches between the two branches. Automatically merge down to the nearest shared patch, using the db table stored down() methods, and then merge up to the branche's latest patch. My question is: Is this system too crazy and/or fraught with consequences to bother developing? My experience with database schema versioning is limited to PHP autopatch, which is an up()-only system requiring filenames with sequential IDs.

    Read the article

  • iPhone SDK: loading UITableView from SQLite

    - by leon
    Hi, I think I got a good handle on UITableViews and on getting/inserting data from/to SQLite db. I am straggling with an architectural question. My application saves 3 values int the database, there can be many/many rows. However would I load them in the table? From all the tutorials I have seen, at one point entire database is loaded in the NSMutableArray or similar object via performing SELECT statement. Then when -(UITableViewCell *) tableView: (UITableView *) tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath: (NSIndexPath *) indexPath called, rows required are dolled out from the previous loaded NSMutableArray (or similar stracture). But what i have have thousands for rows? Why would I pre-load them? Should I just query database each time cellForRowAtIndexPath is called? If so, what would I use as an index? Each row in the table will have an AUTOINCREMENT index, but since some rows may be deleted index will not correspond to rows in the table (in the SQL I may have something like this with row with index 3 missing): 1 Data1 Data1 2 Data2 Data2 4. data3 data3 Thanks

    Read the article

  • Rebinding and singleton-behaviour [NInject]

    - by Maximilian Csuk
    Hi! I have set up a NInject (using version 1.5) binding like this: Bind<ISessionFactory>().ToMethod<ISessionFactory>(ctx => { try { // create session factory, might fail because of database issues like wrong connection string } catch (Exception e) { throw new DatabaseException(e); } }).Using<SingletonBehavior>(); As you can see, this binding uses a singleton behavior but can also throw exception when something is not configured correctly, like a wrong connection string to the database. Now, when the creation of a session factory fails at first (throwing a database exception), NInject doesn't try to create the object again but always returns null. I would need NInject to check for null first and recreate when the instance is null, but of course not when there already is an instance successfully constructed (keeping it singleton). Like this: var a = Kernel.Get<ISessionFactory>(); // might fail, a = null // ... change some database settings var b = Kernel.Get<ISessionFactory>(); // might not fail anymore, b = ISessionFactory object Would I need to write a custom behavior or am I missing something else? Thanks for your answers!

    Read the article

  • jEditable - how do I get the edited textfield variable?

    - by Forkrul Assail
    I have a table that I use jEditable with. Saving to the server works, but the callback for refreshing my table element (that I just edited and saved to the server) does not work. /* Apply the jEditable handlers to the table */ $('#example tbody td').editable( '<%= url_for :controller => 'impact_matrix', :action => 'post', :scenario => params[:id] %>', { "callback": function( sValue, y ) { ^ goes missing var aPos = oTable.fnGetPosition( this ); oTable.fnUpdate( sValue, aPos[0], aPos[1] ); }, "submitdata": function ( value, settings ) { temp = value return { "row_id": this.parentNode.getAttribute('id') }; }, sValue (that I point to in the code) - seems to be blank. I do get values for aPos[0] and aPos[1], but not sValue. Could someone please explain to me 'what triggers the callback function?' Or, if I could just see where to get the 'newly edited text' and then just run fnUpdate() on that, I'd be fine. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with my Basic Authentication in my Browser?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i'm trying to goto the following url :- http://user1:pass1@localhost:1234/api/users?format=xml nothing to complex. Notice how i've got the username/password in the url? this, i believe, is for basic authentication. When I do that, the Request Headers are MISSING the 'Authorize' header. Er... that's not right :( I have anonymous authentication only setup on the site. I don't want to have anon off and basic turned on .. because not all of the site requires basic.. only a few action methods. So .. why is this not working? Is this something to do with the fact my code is not sending a 401 challenge or some crap? For What It's Worth, my site is ASP.NET MVC1 running on IIS7 (and the same thing happens when i run it on cassini). Update: If this is an illegal way of calling a resource using basic auth (ala security flaw) .. then is this possible to do, for an ASP.NET MVC website .. per action method (and not the entire site, per say)?

    Read the article

  • What's the largest (most complex) PHP algorithm ever implemented in a single monolithic PHP script?

    - by Alex R
    I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The source needs to be in a single file. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Overlaying 2D paths on UIImage without scaling artifacts

    - by tat0
    I need to draw a path along the shape of an image in a way that it is always matching its position on the image independent of the image scale. Think of this like the hybrid view of Google Maps where streets names and roads are superimposed on top of the aerial pictures. Furthermore, this path will be drawn by the user's finger movements and I need to be able to retrieve the path keypoints on the image pixel coordinates. The user zooms-in in order to more precisely set the paths location. I manage to somehow make it work using this approach: -Create a custom UIView called CanvasView that handles touches interaction and delivers scaling, rotation, translation values to either the UIImageView or PathsView (see bellow) depending on a flag: deliverToImageOrPaths. -Create a UIImageView holding the base image. This is set as a children of CanvasView -Create a custom UIView called PathsView that keeps track of the 2D paths geometry and draws itself with a custom drawRect. This is set as children of the UIImageView. So hierarchy: CanvasView - UIImageView -PathsView In this way when deliverToImageOrPaths is YES, finger gestures transforms both the UIImageView and its child PathsView. When deliverToImageOrPaths is NO the gestures affect only the PathsView altering its geometry. So far so good. QUESTION: The problem I have is that when scaling the base UIImageView (via its .transform property) the PathsView is scaled with aliasing artifacts. drawRect is still being called on the PathsView but I guess it's performing the drawing using the original buffer size and then interpolating. How can I solve this issue? Are there better ways to implement these features? PS: I tried changing the PathsView layer class to CATiledLayer with levelsOfDetailBias 4 and levelsOfDetail 4. It solves the aliasing problem to some extent but it's unacceptable slow to render.

    Read the article

  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • using the window object for accessing global user defined objects and using text within html for cre

    - by timpone
    I don't do very much jquery / javascript but wanted to ask for some advice on the following piece. I have tried to cut out as much as possible. Most of this was semi-inherited code with catching a bunch of events just hardcoded in. I'd like to generalized them more by putting the object name in the html and accessing via jquery on processing (by_date, by_popularity). I retriev as string and access the object via window[current_obj]. Is this a good way to do this or am I missing something? Are there preferable ways to introduce specificity. thanks for any advice. <script> var by_date={}; by_date.current_page=1; by_date.per_page=4; var by_popularity={}; by_popularity.current_page=1; by_popularity.per_page=4; $(function(){ $('.previous.active').live('click',function(){ window[current_obj].current_page--; process(window[current_obj]); }); }); function process(game_obj){ //will process and output new items here } </script> <div class="otherContainer"> <a class='previous active'>Prev</a><div style="display:none;">by_date</div> | <a class='next'>Next</a><div style="display:none;">by_date</div> </div> <div class="topPrevNextContainer"> <a class='previous active'>Prev</a><div style="display:none;">by_popularity</div> | <a class='next'>Next</a><div style="display:none;">by_popularity</div> </div>

    Read the article

  • How do I implement page authorizaton in ASP.NET using a SQL store instead of web.config?

    - by drachenstern
    For instance, the way we're doing it now is like thus: (in the web.config) <location path="somePath"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow roles="approvedRoles"/> <deny users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> And what I would like to do instead is to store this information in SQL somewhere so that we can manipulate the information more easily. But we want to keep the same functionality that having the information in web.config provides, just like we can use a SqlRoleProvider instead of hardcoding roles in the app. So in other words, if a user currently tries to goto "somePath" and they're not a member of "approvedRoles" then they get redirected back to default.aspx, and if they are a member of "approvedRoles" then they get the page. I want to do the same thing, but without using web.config as the authorization mechanism. So what I'm NOT asking is how do I go about defining roles, or how do I handle logging in to the database, but specifically how do I store the above information in SQL instead of web.config. Actually, I'll take "anywhere but web.config" for now. Any ideas? Is this possible using a "Provider" class? I'm just looking for pointers on what to inherit and maybe some technet documentation. In this regard my googlefoo is lacking since I don't really know where to point. Am I really only looking for AzMan? Is this location-authorization-via-SQL already defined in the default aspnetdb somewhere and I'm missing it? For that matter, has this question already been asked on SO and I've missed it? What would you google?

    Read the article

  • How to add an image to an SSRS report with a dynamic url?

    - by jrummell
    I'm trying to add an image to a report. The image src url is an IHttpHandler that takes a few query string parameters. Here's an example: <img src="Image.ashx?item=1234567890&lot=asdf&width=50" alt=""/> I added an Image to a cell and then set Source to External and Value to the following expression: ="Image.ashx?item="+Fields!ItemID.Value+"&lot="+Fields!LotID.Value+"&width=50" But when I view the report, it renders the image html as: <IMG SRC="" /> What am I missing? Update Even if I set Value to "image.jpg" it still renders an empty src attribute. I'm not sure if it makes a difference, but I'm using this with a VS 2008 ReportViewer control in Remote processing mode. Update I was able to get the images to display in the Report Designer (VS 2005) with an absolute path (http://server/path/to/http/handler). But they didn't display on the Report Manager website. I even set up an Unattended Execution Account that has access to the external URLs.

    Read the article

  • Word VBA - Find text between delimiters and convert to lower case

    - by jJack
    I would like to find text which is between the < and characters, and then turn any found text into "normal" case, where first letter of word is capitalized. Here is what I have thus far: Function findTextBetweenCarots() As String Dim strText As String With Selection .Find.Text = "<" ' what about <[^0-9]+> ? .Find.Forward = True .Find.Wrap = wdFindContinue End With Selection.Find.Execute ' Application.Selection. ' how do I get the text between the other ">"? findCarotSymb = Application.Selection.Text End Function Or, is there a better way of doing this? I also approached the problem using the VBScript Regex 5.5 library, which worked on simple documents, but not on certain documents with complex tables. For example, trying to just bold the text (for simplicity): Sub BoldUpperCaseWords() Dim regEx, Match, Matches Dim rngRange As Range Set regEx = New RegExp regEx.Pattern = "<[^0-9]+>" regEx.IgnoreCase = False regEx.Global = True Set Matches = regEx.Execute(ActiveDocument.Range.Text) For Each Match In Matches ActiveDocument.Range(Match.FirstIndex, Match.FirstIndex + Len(Match.Value)).Bold = True Next End Sub would not work in a document with tables. In fact, it would not even bold the correct text (the text between the <. This leads me to believe I have a broader issue here that I am missing. Here is what a sample doc looks like. Notice the wrong text is bold:

    Read the article

  • Upgrading VSTO project to .net 4 - What references do I actually need?

    - by Dana
    I'm developing an application for Office. It originally targeted .net 3.5, but I decided to upgrade to .net 4 because of some WPF issues that I've run into. When I switched all the projects in my solution and rebuilt, I got an error saying to include System.Xaml. I did that and rebuilt, and VS2010 told me to include another reference, so I did. This happened a couple more times, and finally it asked me to include Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0, and when I did I got this error: Microsoft.Office.Tools.CustomTaskPaneCollection exists in both Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0.dll and Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.dll I have both Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common.v9.0 and Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common referenced in my project, but the problem is that if I remove either, I get an error. Am I doing something wrong? Is it odd that I would need both references? I find it strange that CustomTaskPaneCollection would be defined in two different binaries. If I remove Microsoft.Office.Tools.Common, the error that I get is "Cannot find the interop type that matches the embedded interop type 'Microsoft.Office.Tools.IAddInExtension'. Are you missing an assembly reference?"

    Read the article

  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

    Read the article

  • CakePHP belongsTo relationship with a variable 'model' field.

    - by gomezuk
    I've got a problem with a belongsTo relationship in CakePHP. I've got an "Action" model that uses the "actions" table and belongs to one of two other models, either "Transaction" or "Tag". The idea being that whenever a user completes a transaction or adds a tag, the action model is created to keep a log of it. I've got that part working, whenever a Transaction or Tag is saved, the aftersave() method also adds an Action record. The problem comes when I try to do a find('all') on the Action model, the related Transaction or Tag record is not being returned. actions: id model model_id created I thought I could use the "conditions" parameter in the belongsTo relationship like this: <?php class Action extends AppModel { var $name = 'Action'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $belongsTo = array( 'Transaction' => array( 'foreignKey' => 'model_id', 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Transaction") ), 'User' => array( 'fields' => array('User.username') ), 'Recommendation' => array( 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Recommendation"), 'foreignKey' => 'model_id' ) ); } ?> But that doesn't work. Am I missing something here, are my relationships wrong (I suspect so)? After Googling this problem I cam across something called Polymorphic Behaviour but I'm not sure this will help me.

    Read the article

  • zend_captcha always fails isValid()

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I've got an issue with Zend_Captcha always returning false when the page is submitted and the captcha's isValid() method is being called. It's driving my nuts because this as far as I am concerned should work. I start by declaring this at the top of the action function of the controller $captcha = new Zend_Captcha_Image('captcha', array( 'captcha' => array( 'name' => 'graduatesignupcaptcha', 'wordlen' => 6, 'font' => $this->config->captcha->font, 'imgDir' => $baseUrl.'/images/captcha/', 'imgUrl' => $this->config->webserver->name.'/images/captcha/', ) ) ); $captcha->setHeight(80) ->setTimeout(300); I do usual form validation and that all works, however it is when I come to validate that the value entered into form for the captcha it always returns false. //next we check the captcha text to ensure that the form is a person not a script $captchaText = $form->getElement('captchainput')->getValue(); $captchaId = $form->getElement('captchaid')->getValue(); //$captchaSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('Zend_Form_Captcha_'.$captchaId); $captchaArray = array( 'id' => $captchaId, 'input' => $captchaText ); if(!$captcha->isValid($captchaArray)){ $log->log(implode(",",$captcha->getErrors()), Zend_Log::DEBUG); $form->getElement('captchainput')->setErrors(array('messages' => 'Bad security code')); $formFailed = true; } I've check to ensure that the id that I am getting and storing as a hidden element in my form match the image that is being generated but no matter what I do this always fails. Am I missing something simple here?? Or is there a better way of dealing with this?? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • I'm having trouble with using std::stack to retrieve the values from a recursive function.

    - by Peter Stewart
    Thanks to the help I received in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2761918/how-do-i-use-this-in-a-member-function I have a nice, concise recursive function to traverse a tree in postfix order: void Node::postfix() { if (left != __nullptr) { left->postfix(); } if (right != __nullptr) { right->postfix(); } cout<<cargo<<"\n"; return; }; Now I need to evaluate the values and operators as they are returned. My problem is how to retrieve them. I tried the std::stack: #include <stack> stack <char*> s; void Node::postfix() { if (left != __nullptr) { left->postfix(); } if (right != __nullptr) { right->postfix(); } s.push(cargo); return; }; but when I tried to access it in main() while (!s.empty()) { cout<<s.top<<"\n"; s.pop; } I got the error: 'std::stack<_Ty::top': function call missing argument list; use '&std::stack<_Ty::top' to create a pointer to member' I'm stuck. Another question to follow shortly.

    Read the article

  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to convert a 40-character SHA1 hash to a 20-character SHA1 hash?

    - by ewitch
    My problem is a bit hairy, and I may be asking the wrong questions, so please bear with me... I have a legacy MySQL database which stores the user passwords & salts for a membership system. Both of these values have been hashed using the Ruby framework - roughly like this: hashedsalt = Digest::SHA1.hexdigest("--#{Time.now.to_s}--#{login}--") hashedpassword = Digest::SHA1.hexdigest("#{hashedsalt}:#{password}") So both values are stored as 40-character strings (varchar(40)) in MySQL. Now I need to import all of these users into the ASP.NET membership framework for a new web site, which uses a SQL Server database. It is my understanding that the the way I have ASP.NET membership configured, the user passwords and salts are also stored in the membership database (in table aspnet_Membership) as SHA1 hashes, which are then Base64 encoded (see here for details) and stored as nvarchar(128) data. But from the length of the Base64 encoded strings that are stored (28 characters) it seems that the SHA1 hashes that ASP.NET membership generates are only 20 characters long, rather than 40. From some other reading I have been doing I am thinking this has to do with the number of bits per character/character set/encoding or something related. So is there some way to convert the 40-character SHA1 hashes to 20-character hashes which I can then transfer to the new ASP.NET membership data table? I'm pretty familiar with ASP.NET membership by now but I feel like I'm just missing this one piece. However, it may also be known that SHA1 in Ruby and SHA1 in .NET are incompatible, so I'm fighting a losing battle... Thanks in advance for any insight.

    Read the article

  • Creating and using a static lib in xcode (MacOSX)

    - by Alasdair Morrison
    I am trying to create a static library in xcode and link to that static library from another program. So as a test i have created a BSD static C library project and just added the following code: //Test.h int testFunction(); //Test.cpp #include "Test.h" int testFunction() { return 12; } This compiles fine and create a .a file (libTest.a). Now i want to use it in another program so I create a new xcode project (cocoa application) Have the following code: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Testlib.h" int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { // insert code here... std::cout << "Result:\n" <<testFunction(); return 0; } //Testlib.h extern int testFunction(); I right clicked on the project - add - existing framework - add other Selected the .a file and it added it into the project view. I always get this linker error: Build TestUselibrary of project TestUselibrary with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug/TestUselibrary normal x86_64 cd /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.6 /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/../Test/build/Debug -F/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -filelist /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/TestUselibrary.build/Debug/TestUselibrary.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/TestUselibrary.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -lTest -o /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug/TestUselibrary Undefined symbols: "testFunction()", referenced from: _main in main.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status I am new to macosx development and fairly new to c++. I am probably missing something fairly obvious, all my experience comes from creating dlls on the windows platform. I really appreciate any help.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742  | Next Page >