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  • Rebinding and singleton-behaviour [NInject]

    - by Maximilian Csuk
    Hi! I have set up a NInject (using version 1.5) binding like this: Bind<ISessionFactory>().ToMethod<ISessionFactory>(ctx => { try { // create session factory, might fail because of database issues like wrong connection string } catch (Exception e) { throw new DatabaseException(e); } }).Using<SingletonBehavior>(); As you can see, this binding uses a singleton behavior but can also throw exception when something is not configured correctly, like a wrong connection string to the database. Now, when the creation of a session factory fails at first (throwing a database exception), NInject doesn't try to create the object again but always returns null. I would need NInject to check for null first and recreate when the instance is null, but of course not when there already is an instance successfully constructed (keeping it singleton). Like this: var a = Kernel.Get<ISessionFactory>(); // might fail, a = null // ... change some database settings var b = Kernel.Get<ISessionFactory>(); // might not fail anymore, b = ISessionFactory object Would I need to write a custom behavior or am I missing something else? Thanks for your answers!

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  • What does "active directory integration" mean in your .NET app?

    - by flipdoubt
    Our marketing department comes back with "active directory integration" being a key customer request, but our company does not seem to have the attention span to (1) decide on what functional changes we want to make toward this end, (2) interview a broad range of customer to identify the most requested functional changes, and (3) still have this be the "hot potato" issue next week. To help me get beyond the broad topic of "active directory integration," what does it mean in your .NET app, both ASP.NET and WinForms? Here are some sample changes I have to consider: When creating and managing users in your app, are administrators presented with a list of all AD users or just a group of AD users? When creating new security groups within your app (we call them Departments, like "Human Resources"), should this create new AD groups? Do administrators assign users to security groups within your app or outside via AD? Does it matter? Is the user signed on to your app by virtue of being signed on to Windows? If not, do you track users with your own user table and some kind of foreign key into AD? What foreign key do you use to link app users to AD users? Do you have to prove your login process protects user passwords? What foreign key do you use to link app security groups to AD security groups? If you have a WinForms component to your app (we have both ASP.NET and WinForms), do you use the Membership Provider in your WinForms app? Currently, our Membership and Role management predates the framework's version, so we do not use the Membership Provider. Am I missing any other areas of functional changes? Followup question Do apps that support "active directory integration" have the ability to authenticate users against more than one domain? Not that one user would authenticate to more than one domain but that different users of the same system would authenticate against different domains.

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  • CakePHP belongsTo relationship with a variable 'model' field.

    - by gomezuk
    I've got a problem with a belongsTo relationship in CakePHP. I've got an "Action" model that uses the "actions" table and belongs to one of two other models, either "Transaction" or "Tag". The idea being that whenever a user completes a transaction or adds a tag, the action model is created to keep a log of it. I've got that part working, whenever a Transaction or Tag is saved, the aftersave() method also adds an Action record. The problem comes when I try to do a find('all') on the Action model, the related Transaction or Tag record is not being returned. actions: id model model_id created I thought I could use the "conditions" parameter in the belongsTo relationship like this: <?php class Action extends AppModel { var $name = 'Action'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $belongsTo = array( 'Transaction' => array( 'foreignKey' => 'model_id', 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Transaction") ), 'User' => array( 'fields' => array('User.username') ), 'Recommendation' => array( 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Recommendation"), 'foreignKey' => 'model_id' ) ); } ?> But that doesn't work. Am I missing something here, are my relationships wrong (I suspect so)? After Googling this problem I cam across something called Polymorphic Behaviour but I'm not sure this will help me.

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  • Binding UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, updates source at program startup

    - by GTD
    I have following code: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Name, Mode=OneWayToSource, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, FallbackValue=default text}" KeyUp="TextBox_KeyUp" x:Name="textBox1"/> </Grid> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void TextBox_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.Enter) { BindingExpression exp = this.textBox1.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); exp.UpdateSource(); } } } public class ViewModel { public string Name { set { Debug.WriteLine("setting name: " + value); } } } public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); Window1 window = new Window1(); window.DataContext = new ViewModel(); window.Show(); } } I want to update source only when "Enter" key is pressed in textbox. This works fine. However binding updates source at program startup. How can I avoid this? Am I missing something?

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  • PHP - Database schema: version control, branching, migrations.

    - by Billiam
    I'm trying to come up with (or find) a reusable system for database schema versioning in php projects. There are a number of Rails-style migration projects available for php. http://code.google.com/p/mysql-php-migrations/ is a good example. It uses timestamps for migration files, which helps with conflicts between branches. General problem with this kind of system: When development branch A is checked out, and you want to check out branch B instead, B may have new migration files. This is fine, migrating to newer content is straight forward. If branch A has newer migration files, you would need to migrate downwards to the nearest shared patch. If branch A and B have significantly different code bases, you may have to migrate down even further. This may mean: Check out B, determine shared patch number, check out A, migrate downwards to this patch. This must be done from A since the actual applied patches are not available in B. Then, checkout branch B, and migrate to newest B patch. Reverse process again when going from B to A. Proposed system: When migrating upwards, instead of just storing the patch version, serialize the whole patch in database for later use, though I'd probably only need the down() method. When changing branches, compare patches that have been run to patches that are available in the destination branch. Determine nearest shared patch (or oldest difference, maybe) between db table of run patches and patches in destination branch by ID or hash. Could also look for new or missing patches that are buried under a number of shared patches between the two branches. Automatically merge down to the nearest shared patch, using the db table stored down() methods, and then merge up to the branche's latest patch. My question is: Is this system too crazy and/or fraught with consequences to bother developing? My experience with database schema versioning is limited to PHP autopatch, which is an up()-only system requiring filenames with sequential IDs.

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  • Silverlight RIA Services - how to do Windows Authentication?

    - by Gustavo Cavalcanti
    I am building my first Silverlight 3 + RI Services application and need some help. It will be deployed in an controlled corporate intranet, 100% windows clients. I have started from the Silverlight Business Application template. These are my requirements: Upon launch the application needs to recognize the currently logged-in user. The application needs to have access to other properties of the user in AD, such as email, full name, and group membership. Group membership is used to grand certain features in the application. A "login as a different user" link is to be always available - Some machines are available throughout the enterprise, logged-in as a certain generic user (verified by the absence of certain membership groups). In this case one can enter credentials and log in (impersonate) to the application as a user different from the one already logged-into the machine. This user is to be used in service calls I have modified the following in the default Business Application template: App.xaml: appsvc:WindowsAuthentication instead of the default FormsAuthentication Web.config: authentication mode="Windows" With these modifications I resolve requirement #1 (get the currently logged-in user). But when I examine RiaContext.Current.User, I don't have access to other properties from AD, such as group memberships. How can I achieve my other requirements? Thanks for your help.

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  • Creating and using a static lib in xcode (MacOSX)

    - by Alasdair Morrison
    I am trying to create a static library in xcode and link to that static library from another program. So as a test i have created a BSD static C library project and just added the following code: //Test.h int testFunction(); //Test.cpp #include "Test.h" int testFunction() { return 12; } This compiles fine and create a .a file (libTest.a). Now i want to use it in another program so I create a new xcode project (cocoa application) Have the following code: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Testlib.h" int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { // insert code here... std::cout << "Result:\n" <<testFunction(); return 0; } //Testlib.h extern int testFunction(); I right clicked on the project - add - existing framework - add other Selected the .a file and it added it into the project view. I always get this linker error: Build TestUselibrary of project TestUselibrary with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug/TestUselibrary normal x86_64 cd /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.6 /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/../Test/build/Debug -F/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -filelist /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/TestUselibrary.build/Debug/TestUselibrary.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/TestUselibrary.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -lTest -o /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug/TestUselibrary Undefined symbols: "testFunction()", referenced from: _main in main.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status I am new to macosx development and fairly new to c++. I am probably missing something fairly obvious, all my experience comes from creating dlls on the windows platform. I really appreciate any help.

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  • How set accessory type when tabel view is enbled to editing?

    - by Madan Mohan
    Hi Guys, I am using the UITableView properties to edit it. theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; It is working fine, the row is selected and I am getting into the next controller but I need to display the the accessoryType in the row. I am using below line for that but even though it is not working. Is there any property or any thing missing to display the indiactor. cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; I am using the below code for table view. theTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableRect style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; theTableView.delegate = self; theTableView.dataSource = self; theTableView.scrollEnabled=YES; theTableView.separatorColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; theTableView.autoresizingMask=YES; theTableView.allowsSelection=YES; theTableView.sectionHeaderHeight=5; theTableView.sectionFooterHeight=5; [myView addSubview:theTableView]; Please help me. THank You, Madan Mohan

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  • Running Flask framework on App Engine: Could not find module app.cgi

    - by Linc
    I'm running this Flask example app on App Engine: http://github.com/gigq/flasktodo You can see on the github page that app.cgi is in the main directory for this project. However, when I run this code I get an error complaining about a missing app.cgi: ERROR 2010-05-01 16:43:47,006 dev_appserver.py:2109] Encountered error loading module "app.cgi": <type 'exceptions.ImportError'>: Could not find module app.cgi Traceback (most recent call last): File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 2096, in LoadTargetModule module_code = import_hook.get_code(module_fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1956, in get_code full_path, search_path, submodule = self.GetModuleInfo(fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1908, in GetModuleInfo submodule, search_path = self.GetParentSearchPath(fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1887, in GetParentSearchPath parent_package = self.GetParentPackage(fullname) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1279, in Decorate return func(self, *args, **kwargs) File "/opt/google_appengine/google/appengine/tools/dev_appserver.py", line 1864, in GetParentPackage raise ImportError('Could not find module %s' % fullname) ImportError: Could not find module app.cgi How do I indicate to dev_appserver.py where to look to find it?

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  • How to get HTTP status code in HTTPService fault handler

    - by Ankur
    I am calling a server method through HTTPService from client side. The server is a RestFul web service and it might respond with one of many HTTP error codes (say, 400 for one error, 404 for another and 409 for yet another). I have been trying to find out the way to determine what was the exact error code sent by the server. I have walked teh entire object tree for the FaultEvent populated in my fault handler, but no where does it tell me the error code. Is this missing functionality in Flex? My code looks like this: The HTTP Service declaration: <mx:HTTPService id="myServerCall" url="myService" method="GET" resultFormat="e4x" result="myServerCallCallBack(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> <mx:request> <action>myServerCall</action> <docId>{m_sDocId}</docId> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> My fault handler code is like so: private function faultHandler(event : FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.statusCode.toString() + " / " + event.fault.message.toString()); }

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  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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  • Custom UIButton for Iphone.

    - by Amal
    I have an view in my App which has a number of buttons based on the number of items returned by the server. So if the server returns say 10 items, there should be 10 buttons and clicking on each button should call a different person. For the above purpose I created a custom button class deriving from UIButton. @implementation HopitalButton @synthesize index; @synthesize button_type; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { UIImage* img = [UIImage imageNamed:@"dr_btn.png"]; [img stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:10 topCapHeight:10]; [self setBackgroundImage:img forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self setTitleColor:[UIColor colorWithRed:0.698 green:0.118 blue:0.376 alpha:1] forState:UIControlStateNormal] ; [self setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica Bold" size:13]]; self.titleLabel.textColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:178 green:48 blue:95 alpha:1]; self.adjustsImageWhenHighlighted = YES; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Now the problem with the above code is that it does not create buttons that look similar to the buttons created by default in Interface builder. The borders are missing. And I create buttons of the above type by the following code: HopitalButton* hb = [[HopitalButton alloc] init]; hb.button_type = @"call"; hb.frame = CGRectMake(50, 50 + i * 67, 220, 40); [self.scroll_view addSubview:hb]; [hb setTitle:[[[self.office_full_list objectAtIndex:i] objectForKey:@"Staff" ]objectForKey:@"FullName"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; hb.index = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[self.button_items count]]; [self.button_items insertObject:hb atIndex:[self.button_items count]]; [hb addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonClicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; I am not finding a way to set the button type for this custom button. Is there a way i can do it ? Or is there a better way to design the code.

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  • jQuery HOW TO?? pass additional parameters to success callback for $.ajax call ?

    - by dotnetgeek
    Hello jQuery Ninjas! I am trying, in vain it seems, to be able to pass additional parameters back to the success callback method that I have created for a successful ajax call. A little background. I have a page with a number of dynamically created textbox / selectbox pairs. Each pair having a dynamically assigned unique name such as name="unique-pair-1_txt-url" and name="unique-pair-1_selectBox" then the second pair has the same but the prefix is different. In an effort to reuse code, I have crafted the callback to take the data and a reference to the selectbox. However when the callback is fired the reference to the selectbox comes back as 'undefined'. I read here that it should be doable. I have even tried taking advantage of the 'context' option but still nothing. Here is the script block that I am trying to use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function getImages(urlValue, selectBox) { $j.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $j(urlValue).val(), dataType: "jsonp", context: selectBox, success:function(data){ loadImagesInSelect(data, $j(this)) } , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } function loadImagesInSelect(data, selectBox) { //var select = $j('[name=single_input.<?cs var:op_unique_name ?>.selImageList]'); var select = selectBox; select.empty(); $j(data).each(function() { var theValue = $j(this)[0]["@value"]; var theId = $j(this)[0]["@name"]; select.append("<option value='" + theId + "'>" + theValue + "</option>"); }); select.children(":first").attr("selected", true); } From what I have read, I feel I am close but I just cant put my finger on the missing link. Please help in your typical ninja stealthy ways. TIA

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  • Why avoid increment ("++") and decrement ("--") operators in JavaScript?

    - by artlung
    I'm a big fan of Douglas Crockford's writing on JavaScript, particularly his book JavaScript: The Good Parts. It's made me a better JavaScript programmer and a better programmer in general. One of his tips for his jslint tool is this : ++ and -- The ++ (increment) and -- (decrement) operators have been known to contribute to bad code by encouraging excessive trickiness. They are second only to faulty architecture in enabling to viruses and other security menaces. There is a plusplus option that prohibits the use of these operators. This has always struck my gut as "yes, that makes sense," but has annoyed me when I've needed a looping condition and can't figure out a better way to control the loop than a while( a < 10 )do { a++ } or for (var i=0;i<10;i++) { } and use jslint. It's challenged me to write it differently. I also know in the distant past using things, in say PHP like $foo[$bar++] has gotten me in trouble with off-by-one errors. Are there C-like languages or other languages with similarities that that lack the "++" and "--" syntax or handle it differently? Are there other rationales for avoiding "++" and "--" that I might be missing? UPDATE -- April 9, 2010: In the video Crockford on JavaScript -- Part 5: The End of All Things, Douglas Crockford addresses the ++ issue more directly and with more detail. It appears at 1:09:00 in the timeline. Worth a watch.

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  • Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

    - by Dave
    I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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  • How to group data changes by operation with MySQL triggers

    - by Jan-Henk
    I am using triggers in MySQL to log changes to the data. These changes are recorded on a row level. I can now insert an entry in my log table for each row that is changed. However, I also need to record the operation to which the changes belong. For example, a delete operation like "DELETE * FROM table WHERE type=x" can delete multiple rows. With the trigger I can insert an entry for each deleted row into the log table, but I would like to also provide a unique identifier for the operation as a whole, so that the log table looks something like: log_id operation_id tablename fieldname oldvalue newvalue 1 1 table id 1 null 2 1 table type a null 3 1 table id 2 null 4 1 table type a null 5 2 table id 3 null 6 2 table type b null 7 2 table id 4 null 8 2 table type b null Is there a way in MySQL to identify the higher level operation to which the row changes belong? Or is this only possible by means of application level code? In the future it would also be nice to be able to record the transaction to which an operation belongs. Another question is if it is possible to capture the actual SQL query, besides using the query log. I don't think so myself, but maybe I am missing something. It is of course possible to capture these at the application level, but the goal is to keep intrusions to the application level code as minimal as possible. When this is not possible with MySQL, how is this with other database systems? For the current project it is not an option to use something other than MySQL, but it would be nice to know for future projects.

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  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

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  • Entity Framework - Foreign key constraints not added for inherited entity

    - by Tri Q
    Hello, It appears to me that a strange phenomenon is occurring with inherited entities (TPT) in EF4. I have three entities. 1. Asset 2. Property 3. Activity Property is a derived-type of Asset. Property has many activities (many-to-many) When modeling this in my EDMX, everything seems fine until I try to insert a new Property into the database. If the property does not contain any Activity, it works, but all hell breaks loose when I add some new activities to the new Property. As it turns out after 2 days of crawling the web and fiddling around, I noticed that in the EF store (SSDL) some of the constraints between entities were not picked up during the update process. Property_Activity table which links properties and activities show only one constraint FK_Property_Activity_Activity but FK_Property_Activity_Property was missing. I knew this is an Entity Framework anomoly because when I switched the relationship in the database to: Asset <-- Asset_Activity <-- Activity After an update, all foreign key constraints are picked up and the save is successful, with or without activities in the new property. Is this intended or a bug in EF? How do I get around this problem? Should I abandon inheritance altogether?

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  • How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

    - by Krashman5k
    I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

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  • How do I label a group of radio boxes for WCAG / 508 Compliance? Is ASP.NET doing it wrong?

    - by Mark Brittingham
    I am trying to bring an existing web site into greater conformance with WCAG 2.0 Guidelines and am a bit confused over the output emitted by Microsoft (ASP.NET 4.0 although it was the same in 3.5). Suppose you have a question like: "How would you rate your health?" and a set of 5 answers created using an ASP.NET RadioButtonList. I place the question in an asp:Label with an "AssociatedControlID" that matches the ID of the RadioButtonList (e.g. "SelfRatingBox"). Seems pretty easy... Only the output that is generated has an html "label" with a "For" that is equal to the ID of a table that wraps up the RadioButtons. I assumed that this would work with page readers but our 508 compliance guy is saying that the reader isn't associating the label with the radio controls. The WCAG guidelines indicate that you have to use a fieldset around the entire group and a legend to capture the associated text (the question). So what gives? It would be ideal if MS could take my label and the radiobuttonlist and generate the appropriate fieldset and legend tags but it seems pretty clear that to achieve WCAG compliance, I'll have to roll my own. Is this correct or am I missing something?

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  • Users in database server or database tables

    - by Batcat
    Hi all, I came across an interesting issue about client server application design. We have this browser based management application where it has many users using the system. So obvisously within that application we have an user management module within it. I have always thought having an user table in the database to keep all the login details was good enough. However, a senior developer said user management should be done in the database server layer if not then is poorly designed. What he meant was, if a user wants to use the application then a user should be created in the user table AND in the database server as a user account as well. So if I have 50 users using my applications, then I should have 50 database server user logins. I personally think having just one user account in the database server for this database was enough. Just grant this user with the allowed privileges to operate all the necessary operation need by the application. The users that are interacting with the application should have their user accounts created and managed within the database table as they are more related to the application layer. I don't see and agree there is need to create a database server user account for every user created for the application in the user table. A single database server user should be enough to handle all the query sent by the application. Really hope to hear some suggestions / opinions and whether I'm missing something? performance or security issues? Thank you very much.

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  • Enable cross app redirects

    - by Gogster
    Hi all, We have load balancing set up on out two web server, however, a few users are being asked to login when they are being re-directed to a particular server to upload a document (we are trying to keep all uploaded documents on one server only), here is the code from web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="EAAAuthCookie" loginUrl="/login" defaultUrl="/members/home" protection="All" path="/" timeout="60000" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" /> </authentication> <machineKey decryption="AES" validation="SHA1" decryptionKey="7B4EC5B0C83631DF25D5B179EDDBF91B1C175B81C6F52102267D3D097FBF272A" validationKey="7D1F50788629CC342EE4985D85DE3D14F10654695912C0FFD439F54BED64F76A57A2D5E8180BC6FF052E0385C30558F5527D6C197C577A7F32DD8FF1CAC9F794" /> Here is the transfer code to the upload form: $('#addReport').click(function() { if ($.cookie('TransferURL') != '') { $("#iframeUploadReport").attr('src', $.cookie('TransferURL')); }; $('#overlay').fadeIn('slow'); }); <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> void Page_Load() { string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; string userName = Request.Cookies["HiddenUsername"].ToString(); string cookieValue = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie(userName, false).Value; Response.Cookies["TransferURL"].Value = "http://eaa.cms.necinteractive.net/members/media-upload" + String.Format("?{0}={1}", cookieName, cookieValue); } </script> <iframe id="iframeUploadReport" src="http://eaa.cms.necinteractive.net/members/media-upload" width="500px" height="336px" frameborder="0" scrolling="no"></iframe> Can you see any obvious step we are missing? Thanks

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  • Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

    - by Peter
    I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

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  • Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

    - by James
    Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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  • Delphi Mock Wizard

    - by Todd
    Let me preface this by saying I'm fairly new to Unit Testing, Mocks, Stubs, Etc... I've installed Delphi-Mock-Wizard. When I select a unit and "Generate Mock", a new unit is created but it's very basic and not anything what I understand Mocks to be. unit Unit1; (** WARNING - AUTO-GENERATED MOCK! Change this unit if you want to, but be aware that any changes you make will be lost if you regenerate the mock object (for instance, if the interface changes). My advice is to create a descendent class of your auto-generated mock - in a different unit - and override things there. That way you get to keep them. Also, the auto-generate code is not yet smart enough to generate stubs for inherited interfaces. In that case, change your mock declaration to inherit from a mock implementation that implements the missing interface. This, unfortunately, is a violation of the directive above. I'm working on it. You may also need to manually change the unit name, above. Another thing I am working on. **) interface uses PascalMock, TestInterfaces; type IThingy = interface; implementation end. Looking at the source there seems to be quite a bit commented out. I'm wondering, has anyone gotten this to work? My IDE is D2010. Thanks.

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