Search Results

Search found 22300 results on 892 pages for 'half bit'.

Page 738/892 | < Previous Page | 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745  | Next Page >

  • C#: Is it possible to use expressions or functions as keys in a dictionary?

    - by Svish
    Would it work to use Expression<Func<T>> or Func<T> as keys in a dictionary? For example to cache the result of heavy calculations. For example, changing my very basic cache from a different question of mine a bit: public static class Cache<T> { // Alternatively using Expression<Func<T>> instead private static Dictionary<Func<T>, T> cache; static Cache() { cache = new Dictionary<Func<T>, T>(); } public static T GetResult(Func<T> f) { if (cache.ContainsKey(f)) return cache[f]; return cache[f] = f(); } } Would this even work? Edit: After a quick test, it seems like it actually works. But I discovered that it could probably be more generic, since it would now be one cache per return type... not sure how to change it so that wouldn't happen though... hmm Edit 2: Noo, wait... it actually doesn't. Well, for regular methods it does. But not for lambdas. They get various random method names even if they look the same. Oh well c",)

    Read the article

  • How to scroll the horizontal scrollbar in an iFrame from the parent frame?

    - by Mohammad
    Is there any cross browser way to scroll the horizontal scroll bar of an IFrame with super wide content with Javascript inside the parent frame. Also I need it to be attached to the mouse wheel event. This is what I have so far, it's a bit copy and paste at the moment and doesn't work unfortunately. //var myIframe = document.getElementById('iframeWithWideContent'); //myIframe.onload = function (myIframe) { var mouseWheelEvt = function (e){ var event = e || window.event; if (document.body.doScroll){ document.body.doScroll(event.wheelDelta>0?"left":"right"); }else if ((event.wheelDelta || event.detail) > 0){ document.body.scrollLeft -= 10; }else{ document.body.scrollLeft += 10; } return false; } if ("onmousewheel" in document.body){ document.body.onmousewheel = mouseWheelEvt; }else{ document.body.addEventListener("DOMMouseScroll", mouseWheelEvt); } //}? I probably should uncomment that code, replace document.body with myIframe though I wouldn't know what I'm doing wrong. Demo on JSBIN link fixed Any help from you JavaScript Lords would be very appreciated. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Looping through recordset with VBA

    - by Robert
    I am trying to assign salespeople (rsSalespeople) to customers (rsCustomers) in a round-robin fashion in the following manner: Navigate to first Customer, assign the first SalesPerson to the Customer. Move to Next Customer. If rsSalesPersons is not at EOF, move to Next SalesPerson; if rsSalesPersons is at EOF, MoveFirst to loop back to the first SalesPerson. Assign this (current) SalesPerson to the (current) Customer. Repeat step 2 until rsCustomers is at EOF (EOF = True, i.e. End-Of-Recordset). It's been awhile since I dealt with VBA, so I'm a bit rusty, but here is what I have come up with, so far: Private Sub Command31_Click() 'On Error GoTo ErrHandler Dim intCustomer As Integer Dim intSalesperson As Integer Dim rsCustomers As DAO.Recordset Dim rsSalespeople As DAO.Recordset Dim strSQL As String strSQL = "SELECT CustomerID, SalespersonID FROM Customers WHERE SalespersonID Is Null" Set rsCustomers = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset(strSQL) strSQL = "SELECT SalespersonID FROM Salespeople" Set rsSalespeople = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset(strSQL) rsCustomers.MoveFirst rsSalespeople.MoveFirst Do While Not rsCustomers.EOF intCustomers = rsCustomers!CustomerID intSalesperson = rsSalespeople!SalespersonID strSQL = "UPDATE Customers SET SalespersonID = " & intSalesperson & " WHERE CustomerID = " & intCustomer DoCmd.RunSQL (strSQL) rsCustomers.MoveNext If Not rsSalespeople.EOF Then rsSalespeople.MoveNext Else rsSalespeople.MoveFirst End If Loop ExitHandler: Set rsCustomers = Nothing Set rsSalespeople = Nothing Exit Sub ErrHandler: MsgBox (Err.Description) Resume ExitHandler End Sub My tables are defined like so: Customers --CustomerID --Name --SalespersonID Salespeople --SalespersonID --Name With ten customers and 5 salespeople, my intended result would like like: CustomerID--Name--SalespersonID 1---A---1 2---B---2 3---C---3 4---D---4 5---E---5 6---F---1 7---G---2 8---H---3 9---I---4 10---J---5 The above code works for the intitial loop through the Salespeople recordset, but errors out when the end of the recordset is found. Regardless of the EOF, it appears it still tries to execute the rsSalespeople.MoveFirst command. Am I not checking for the rsSalespeople.EOF properly? Any ideas to get this code to work?

    Read the article

  • How to get current datetime on windows command line, in a suitable format for using in a filename?

    - by Rory
    What's a windows command line statement(s) I can use to get the current datetime in a format that I can put into a filename? I want to have a .bat file that zips up a directory into an archive with the current date & time as part of the name, eg "Code_2008-10-14_2257.zip". Is there any easy way I can do this, independent of the regional settings of the machine? I don't really mind about the date format, ideally it'd be yyyy-mm-dd but anything simple is fine. So far I've got this, which on my machine gives me "Tue_10_14_2008_230050_91" rem Get the datetime in a format that can go in a filename. set _my_datetime=%date%_%time% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime: =_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime::=% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:/=_% set _my_datetime=%_my_datetime:.=_% rem now use the timestamp by in a new zip file name "d:\Program Files\7-Zip\7z.exe" a -r Code_%_my_datetime%.zip Code I can live with this but it seems a bit clunky. Ideally it'd be briefer and have the format mentioned earlier. I'm using Windows Server 2003 and Win XP Pro. I don't want to install additional utilities to achieve this (although I realise there are some that will do nice date formatting).

    Read the article

  • Item rendered via a DataTemplate with any Background Brush renders selection coloring behind item.

    - by Mike L
    I have a ListBox which uses a DataTemplate to render databound items. The XAML for the datatemplate is as follows: <DataTemplate x:Key="NameResultTemplate"> <WrapPanel x:Name="PersonResultWrapper" Margin="0" Orientation="Vertical" Background="{Binding Converter={StaticResource NameResultToColor}, Mode=OneWay}" > <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseDown"> <cmd:EventToCommand x:Name="SelectPersonEventCommand" Command="{Binding Search.SelectedPersonCommand, Mode=OneWay, Source={StaticResource Locator}}" CommandParameter="{Binding Mode=OneWay}" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> <TextBlock x:Name="txtPersonName" TextWrapping="Wrap" Margin="0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Text="{Binding PersonName}" FontSize="24" Foreground="Black" /> <TextBlock x:Name="txtAgencyName" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding AgencyName}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Margin="0" FontStyle="Italic" Foreground="Black" /> <TextBlock x:Name="txtPIDORI" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding PIDORI}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Margin="0" FontStyle="Italic" Foreground="Black" /> <TextBlock x:Name="txtDescriptors" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="{Binding DisplayDescriptors}" Margin="0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Foreground="Black"/> <Separator Margin="0" Width="400" /> </WrapPanel> </DataTemplate> Note that there is a value converter called NameResultToColor which changes the background brush of the rendered WrapPanel to gradient brush depending on certain scenarios. All of this works as I'd expect, except when you click on any of the rendered ListBox items. When you click one, there is only the slightest sign of the selection coloring (the default bluish color). I can see a trace bit of it underneath my gradient-brushed item. If I reset the background brush to "no brush" then the selection rendering works properly. If I set the background brush to a solid color, it also fails to render as I'd expect. How can I get the selection coloring to be on top? What is trumping the selection rendering?

    Read the article

  • UIView frame origin doesn't set good

    - by Infinity
    Hi guys! Here is my code: frame = _pageContentView.frame; NSLog(@"%f; %f; %f; %f;", frame.origin.x, frame.origin.y, frame.size.width, frame.size.height); frame.size.height = pageContentView.frame.size.height; NSLog(@"%f; %f; %f; %f;", frame.origin.x, frame.origin.y, frame.size.width, frame.size.height); _pageContentView.frame = frame; NSLog(@"%f; %f; %f; %f;", _pageContentView.frame.origin.x, _pageContentView.frame.origin.y, _pageContentView.frame.size.width, _pageContentView.frame.size.height); And the NSLog outputs these values: 0.000000; 0.000000; 317.648956; 0.000000; 0.000000; 0.000000; 317.648956; 768.000000; 0.000007; 0.000004; 317.648956; 768.000000; Can you see? In the last row the x and y coordinates are a bit crazy... Where do these number come frome? What's the problem here?

    Read the article

  • How can I print a web page on a server?

    - by Gavin Schultz
    Suppose I develop a web page using the cool Google visualization API, and it does everything the user wants. They can the parameters, look at the graphs, and print the page to get a reasonable-looking report. All good. Now suppose I want to do the same thing server-side. For example, say we need a set of report generated at a specific time of day, printed to a PDF and emailed to a manager. It's not a user-initiated action, so we don't have a user's browser or their printer. We have a URL that would render the report if we had a browser, and that's it. Is there a good way to do this server-side? Is this just foolish? Has anyone done anything like that before? Do any of the major browsers have APIs that might provide such functionality? Keep in mind too that it's not just static HTML; probably javascript will be running first to shift the DOM around. I know we could implement a whole different reporting engine on the server side to do this, but that will (a) generate reports that look a bit different, and (b) require me to build/maintain two sets of functionality. Instead, I'd be happy if I could just render the page / pages I want in an invisible server-side browser and print it to a PDF (let's mostly ignore that step - I know any number of PDF printer drivers that could do this). I don't really want to do it ugly either - i.e. by starting a browser process and then sending keystrokes directly to the window either - that's just bound to fall apart with a slight nudge. The only related question I found had an answer like that. Any advice appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Munging non-printable characters to dots using string.translate()

    - by Jim Dennis
    So I've done this before and it's a surprising ugly bit of code for such a seemingly simple task. The goal is to translate any non-printable character into a . (dot). For my purposes "printable" does exclude the last few characters from string.printable (new-lines, tabs, and so on). This is for printing things like the old MS-DOS debug "hex dump" format ... or anything similar to that (where additional whitespace will mangle the intended dump layout). I know I can use string.translate() and, to use that, I need a translation table. So I use string.maketrans() for that. Here's the best I could come up with: filter = string.maketrans( string.translate(string.maketrans('',''), string.maketrans('',''),string.printable[:-5]), '.'*len(string.translate(string.maketrans('',''), string.maketrans('',''),string.printable[:-5]))) ... which is an unreadable mess (though it does work). From there you can call use something like: for each_line in sometext: print string.translate(each_line, filter) ... and be happy. (So long as you don't look under the hood). Now it is more readable if I break that horrid expression into separate statements: ascii = string.maketrans('','') # The whole ASCII character set nonprintable = string.translate(ascii, ascii, string.printable[:-5]) # Optional delchars argument filter = string.maketrans(nonprintable, '.' * len(nonprintable)) And it's tempting to do that just for legibility. However, I keep thinking there has to be a more elegant way to express this!

    Read the article

  • What's the most DRY-appropriate way to execute an SQL command?

    - by Sean U
    I'm looking to figure out the best way to execute a database query using the least amount of boilerplate code. The method suggested in the SqlCommand documentation: private static void ReadOrderData(string connectionString) { string queryString = "SELECT OrderID, CustomerID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); try { while (reader.Read()) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}", reader[0], reader[1])); } } finally { reader.Close(); } } } mostly consists of code that would have to be repeated in every method that interacts with the database. I'm already in the habit of factoring out the establishment of a connection, which would yield code more like the following. (I'm also modifying it so that it returns data, in order to make the example a bit less trivial.) private SQLConnection CreateConnection() { var connection = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); connection.Open(); return connection; } private List<int> ReadOrderData() { using(var connection = CreateConnection()) using(var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "SELECT OrderID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using(var reader = command.ExecuteReader()) { var results = new List<int>(); while(reader.Read()) results.Add(reader.GetInt32(0)); return results; } } } That's an improvement, but there's still enough boilerplate to nag at me. Can this be reduced further? In particular, I'd like to do something about the first two lines of the procedure. I don't feel like the method should be in charge of creating the SqlCommand. It's a tiny piece of repetition as it is in the example, but it seems to grow if transactions are being managed manually or timeouts are being altered or anything like that.

    Read the article

  • Netty options for real-time distribution of small messages to a large number of clients?

    - by user439407
    I am designing a (near) real-time Netty server to distribute a large number of very small messages to a large number of clients across the internet. In internal, go as fast as you can testing, I found that I could do 10k clients no sweat, but now that we are trying to go across the internet, where the latency, bandwidth etc varies pretty wildly we are running into the dreaded outOfMemory issues, even with 2 gigs of RAM. I have tried various workarounds(setting the socket stack sizes smaller, setting high and low water marks, cancelling things that are too old), and they help a little, but they seem to only help a little bit. What would some good ways to optimize Netty for sending large #s of small messages without significant delays? Also, the bulk of the message only consists of one kind of message that I don't particularly care if it doesn't arrive. I would use UDP but because we don't control the client, thats not really a possibility. Is it possible to set a separate timeout solely for this kind of message without affecting the other messages? Any insight you could offer would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How is a relative JMP (x86) implemented in an Assembler?

    - by Pindatjuh
    While building my assembler for the x86 platform I encountered some problems with encoding the JMP instruction: enc inst size in bytes EB cb JMP rel8 2 E9 cw JMP rel16 4 (because of 0x66 16-bit prefix) E9 cd JMP rel32 5 ... (from my favourite x86 instruction website, http://siyobik.info/index.php?module=x86&id=147) All are relative jumps, where the size of each encoding (operation + operand) is in the third column. Now my original (and thus fault because of this) design reserved the maximum (5 bytes) space for each instruction. The operand is not yet known, because it's a jump to a yet unknown location. So I've implemented a "rewrite" mechanism, that rewrites the operands in the correct location in memory, if the location of the jump is known, and fills the rest with NOPs. This is a somewhat serious concern in tight-loops. Now my problem is with the following situation: b: XXX c: JMP a e: XXX ... XXX d: JMP b a: XXX (where XXX is any instruction, depending on the to-be assembled program) The problem is that I want the smallest possible encoding for a JMP instruction (and no NOP filling). I have to know the size of the instruction at c before I can calculate the relative distance between a and b for the operand at d. The same applies for the JMP at c: it needs to know the size of d before it can calculate the relative distance between e and a. How do existing assemblers implement this, or how would you implement this? This is what I am thinking which solves the problem: First encode all the instructions to opcodes between the JMP and it's target, and if this region contains a variable-sized opcode, use the maximum size, i.e. 5 for JMP. Then in some conditions, the JMP is oversized (because it may fit in a smaller encoding): so another pass will search for oversized JMPs, shrink them, and move all instructions ahead), and set absolute branching instructions (i.e. external CALLs) after this pass is completed. I wonder, perhaps this is an over-engineered solution, that's why I ask this question.

    Read the article

  • Deselect dates in ASP.NET Calendar Control

    - by yomismo
    I'm trying to select and de-select dates on a C# Web Calendar control. The problem I have is that I can select or deselect dates except when there is only a single date selected. Clicking on it does not trigger the selection changed event, so Ineed to do something on the dayrender event but I'm not sure what or how. Edit: Added the Pre_Render event code. This seems to work now, however it seems a little bit erratic,e.g. select date A : OK Select date B :OK deselect them both: OK select date A: Does not work, need to select it twice deselect date A : Ok Select Date C: dates A and c are selected @John Yes, I am aware that the control is part of the .NET 2.0 framework and nothing to do with C# per se. Code so far: public static List<DateTime> list = new List<DateTime>(); protected void Calendar1_DayRender(object sender, DayRenderEventArgs e) { if (e.Day.IsSelected == true) { list.Add(e.Day.Date); } Session["SelectedDates"] = list; } protected void Calendar1_SelectionChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime selection = Calendar1.SelectedDate; if (Session["SelectedDates"] != null) { List<DateTime> newList = (List<DateTime>)Session["SelectedDates"]; foreach (DateTime dt in newList) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Add(dt); } if (searchdate(selection, newList)) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Remove(selection); } list.Clear(); } } public bool searchdate(DateTime date, List<DateTime> dates) { var query = from o in dates where o.Date == date select o; if (query.ToList().Count == 0) { return false; } else { return true; } } protected void Calendar1_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Calendar1.SelectedDates.Count == 1) { foreach (DateTime dt in list) { if (searchdate(dt, list) && list.Count == 1) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Clear(); break; } } } }

    Read the article

  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

    Read the article

  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

    Read the article

  • Pros and cons of MPMoviePlayerController versus launching UIWebView to stream movie

    - by Nosredna
    I have a client who has video content for the web in Flash format. My task is to help them show the videos in an iPhone app. I realize that step one is to get these videos into the appropriate Quicktime format for the iPhone. Then I'm going to have to help the client figure out how or where to host these files. If that's tricky I assume they can be hosted at YouTube. My chief concern, though, is which approach to take to stream the video. What are the pros and cons of MPMoviePlayerController versus launching UIWebView with the URL of the stream? Is there any difference? Is one of them more or less forgiving? Is one of them a better user experience? Any gotchas I might expect to run into? I'm assuming playing video is pretty easy on the iPhone. Is it reasonable to try both and have one available as a fallback, or would that be a waste of time? I'm trying to schedule this out a bit, so I'd love to hear real-world experiences from anyone who's done this.

    Read the article

  • how to indicate a change in list elements' order using jquery?

    - by keisimone
    i am using jquery sortable. right now i have a list of items that i can ALREADY use drag and drop. which is cool. i will use a submit button at the bottom of the list to submit the new order. the change in the list is not automatically submitted. All i need is somehow indicate that an element's position has changed. I googled quite a bit. no answer. original list: item1 item2 item3 item4 item5 submitbutton here. changed list: i moved item 2 below item3 for eg. item1 item3 item2 * item4 item5 submitbutton here. how do i use the sortable in jquery for me to display a sign on the item 2? i think should be the change event of sortable but i still do not know how to use it since i am a newbie in jquery. http://docs.jquery.com/UI/Sortable#event-change thank you.

    Read the article

  • Flex 3: should I provide prepared data to my component or make it to process data before display?

    - by grapkulec
    I'm starting to learn a little Flex just for fun and maybe to prove that I still can learn something new :) I have some idea for a project and one of its parts is a tree component which could display data in different ways depending on configuration. The idea There is list of objects having properties like id, date, time, name, description. And sometimes list should be displayed like this: first level: date second level: time third level: name and sometimes like this: first level: year second level: month third level: day fourth level: time and name By level I mean level of nesting of course. So, we can have years, that have months, that have days, that have hours and so forth. The problem What could be the best way to do it? I mean, should I prepare data for different ways of nesting outside of component or even outside of flex? I can do it at web service level in C# where I plan to have database access layer and send to flex nice and ready to display XML or array of objects. But I wonder if that won't cause additional and maybe unneccessary network traffic. I tried to hack some code in my component to convert my data objects into XML or ArrayCollection but I don't know enough of Flex and got stuck on elimination of duplicates or getting specific data by some key value. Usually to do such things I have STL with maps, sets and vectors and I find Flex arrays and even Dictionary a little bit confusing (I've read language reference and googled without any significant luck). The question So, to sum things up: should I give my tree component data prepared just for chosen type of display or should I try to do it internally inside component (or some helper class written in ActionScript)?

    Read the article

  • Manipulating collections & the ViewModel pattern

    - by Kragen
    I'm relatively new to WPF, and I'm having trouble with what I'm fairly certain is a relatively simple problem. I have my underlying data object, a Person: class Person { public string Surname {get; set; } public string Firstname {get; set; } public List<Address> Addresses {get; } } And I wish to display and edit this object in my WPF app. To this end I've created a ViewModel that I bind to in my xaml: class PersonViewModel { public string Fullname {get; } public ObservableCollection<AddressViewModel> Addresses {get; } } This is fine, except when it comes to manipulating my Address collection, where I can't work out what I should be doing: Should I add methods AddAddress, RemoveAddress etc... to my PersonViewModel class for manipulating my collection with instances of AddressViewModel Should I just add instances of AddressViewModel to my Addresses observable collection Both of the above seem a bit messy - is there a better way of dealing with collections?

    Read the article

  • Combining properties made available via webservices profile service aspnet

    - by Adam
    I really wasn't sure what the title for my question could be, so sorry if it's a bit vague. I'm working on an application that uses client application services for authentication/profile management etc. In web.config for my website, I have the following profile properties like this: <properties> <add name="FirstName" type="string" defaultValue="" customProviderData="FirstName;nvarchar"/> ... Basic things like first name, last name etc. I'm exposing properties for my client app like this: <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices> <authenticationService enabled="true" requireSSL="false"/> <profileService enabled="true" readAccessProperties="UserProfile" writeAccessProperties="UserProfile"/> <roleService enabled="true"/> </webServices> </scripting> </system.web.extensions> What I'm wondering is whether it's possible to bundle all the individual profile properties into a single object for client apps to utilize? I originally had all my profile data stored as members of a single class (UserProfile) but I broke it all out so that I could use the SqlTableProfileProvider to store each field as individual columns in relevant tables. I know I can create an class with members for each type, I'm just not sure if there's an easy way to create an object with all my property values (other than assigning values to this object whenever I assign to the the standalone properties). I don't think I'm explaining this very well, so I'll try an example. Say in my website profile I have FirstName and LastName as properties. For my client application profileService I want to have one ReadAccessProperty FullName. Is there some way to automatically create FullName from the existing FirstName and LastName properties without having to also have a seperate FullName property (and manually assign data to it whenever I assign data to FirstName and LastName)?

    Read the article

  • Generate an ID via COM interop

    - by Erik van Brakel
    At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

    Read the article

  • How to download file from inside Seam PDF

    - by Shervin
    Hello. In out project we are creating a pdf by using seam pdf and storing that pdf in the database. The user can then search up the pdf and view it in their pdf viewer. This is a small portion of the code that is generated to pdf: <p:html> <a:repeat var="file" value="#{attachment.files}" rowKeyVar="row"> <s:link action="#{fileHandler.downloadById()}" value="#{file.name}" > <f:param name="fileId" value="#{file.id}"/> </s:link> </a:repeat> When the pdf is rendered, a link is generated that points to: /project/skjenkebevilling/status/status_pdf.seam?fileId=42&actionMethod=skjenkebevilling%2Fstatus%2Fstatus_pdf.xhtml%3AfileHandler.downloadById()&cid=16 As you can see this link doesnt say much, and the servletpath seems to be missing. If I change /project with the servletpath localhost:8080/saksapp/skjenkebevilling/status/status_pdf.seam?fileId=42&actionMethod=skjenkebevilling%2Fstatus%2Fstatus_pdf.xhtml%3AfileHandler.downloadById%28%29&cid=16 Than the download file dialog appears. So my question is, does anyone know how I can input the correct link? And why this s:link doesnt seem to work? If I cannot do that, then I will need to somehow do search replace and edit the pdf, but that seems like a bit of a hack. (This is running under JBoss) Thank you for your time....

    Read the article

  • Return and Save XML Object From Sharepoint List Web Service

    - by HurnsMobile
    I am trying to populate a variable with an XML response from an ajax call on page load so that on keyup I can filter through that list without making repeated get requests (think very rudimentary autocomplete). The trouble that I am having seems to be potentially related to variable scoping but I am fairly new to js/jQuery so I am not quite certain. The following code doesn't do anything on key up and adding alerts to it tells me that it is executing leadResults() on keyup and that the variable is returning an XML response object but it appears to be empty. The strange bit is that if I move the leadResults() call into the getResults() function the UL is populated with the results correctly. Im beating my head against the wall on this one, please help! var resultsXml; $(document).ready( function() { var leadLookupCaml = "<Query> \ <Where> \ <Eq> \ <FieldRef Name=\"Lead_x0020_Status\"/> \ <Value Type=\"Text\">Active</Value> \ </Eq> \ </Where> \ </Query>" $().SPServices({ operation: "GetListItems", webURL: "http://sharepoint/departments/sales", listName: "Leads", CAMLQuery: leadLookupCaml, CAMLRowLimit: 0, completefunc: getResults }); }) $("#lead_search").keyup( function(e) { leadResults(); }) function getResults(xData, status) { resultsXml = xData; } function leadResults() { xData = resultsXml; $("#lead_results li").remove(); $(xData.responseXML).find("z\\:row").each(function() { var selectHtml = "<li>" + "<a href=\"http://sharepoint/departments/sales/Lists/Lead%20Groups/DispForm.aspx?ID=" + $(this).attr("ows_ID") + ">" + $(this).attr("ows_Title")+" : " + $(this).attr("ows_Phone") + "</a>\ </li>"; $("#lead_results").append(selectHtml); }); }

    Read the article

  • spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

    - by mdma
    I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

    Read the article

  • How would you go about parsing markdown?

    - by John Leidegren
    You can find the syntax here. The thing is, the source that follows with the download is written in perl. Which I have no intentions of honoring. It is riddled with regex and it relies on MD5 hashes to escape certain characters. Something is just wrong about that! I'm about to hard code a parser for markdown and I'm wonder if someone had some experience with this? Edit: If you don't have anything meaningful to say about the actual parsing of markdown, spare me the time. (This might sound harsh, but yes, I'm looking for insight, not a solution i.e. third-party library). To help a bit with the answers, regex are meant to identify patterns! NOT to parse an entire grammar. That people consider doing so is foobar. If you think about markdown, it's fundamentally based around the concept of paragraphs. As such, a reasonable approach might be to split the input into paragraphs. There are many kinds of paragraphs e.g. heading, text, list, blockquote, code. The challenge is thus to identify these paragraphs and in what context they occur. I'll be back with a solution, once I find it's worthy to be shared.

    Read the article

  • What is the header of an array in .NET

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I have a little bit seen the representation of an array in memory with Windbg and SOS plugin. Here it is the c# : class myobj{ public int[] arr; } class Program{ static void Main(string[] args){ myobj o = new myobj(); o.arr = new int[7]; o.arr[0] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[1] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[2] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[3] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[4] = 0xFFFFFF; } } I break at final of Main, and I observ : 0:000> !clrstack -l OS Thread Id: 0xc3c (0) ESP EIP 0015f0cc 0043d1cf test.Program.Main(System.String[]) LOCALS: 0x0015f0d8 = 0x018a2f58 0:000 !do 0x018a2f58 Name: test.myobj MethodTable: 0026309c EEClass: 00261380 Size: 12(0xc) bytes (C:\Users\admin\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\test\test\bin\Debug\test.exe) Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 01324530 4000001 4 System.Int32[] 0 instance 018a2f64 tab 0:000 dd 018a2f64 018a2f64 01324530 00000007 00ffffff 00ffffff 018a2f74 00ffffff 00ffffff 00ffffff 00000000 018a2f84 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2f94 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fa4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fb4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fc4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fd4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 I can see that the header contains the size of the array (00000007) but my question is : what is the value 01324530 ? Thanks !

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 734 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745  | Next Page >