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  • Prettify working using python idle but not when using python script

    - by Loclip
    So when I use print soup.prettify() on idle it's prettifying my html but when I calling the script from server the prettify() not working #!/usr/bin/python import cgi, cgitb, urllib2, sys from bs4 import BeautifulSoup styles = [] i = 1 site = "www.example.com" page = urllib2.urlopen(site) soup = BeautifulSoup(page) table = soup.find('table', {'class' :'style5'}) alltd = table.findAll('td') allspans = table.findAll('span') while i<55: styles.append("style" + str(i)) i+=1 for td in alltd: if any(x in td["class"] for x in styles): td["class"] = "align" for span in allspans: span.replaceWithChildren() print "Content-type: text/html" print print "<!DOCTYPE html>" print "<html>" print "<head>" print '<meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">' print '<link rel="stylesheet" href="lightbox/css/lightbox.css" type="text/css" media="screen">' print '<style type="text/css">' print "body {background-color:#b0c4de;}" print '.align {text-align: center;}' print "</style>" print "</head>" print "<body>" print table.pretiffy() print "</body>" print "</html>"

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  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

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  • jquery keypress iterate through each loop?

    - by user239831
    hey guys, probably a simpel question, however couldn't find anything online. i have a list with search results and i want to be able to navigate through the list with my up and down keys. if (e.keyCode == 40) { //down //alert('down'); $('#searchresults ul li').each(function() { }); } if (e.keyCode == 38) { //up //alert('up'); } if (e.keyCode == 13) { //enter //alert('enter'); } the searchresults look like this: <ul> <li class="matched"><a href="link1">link1</a></li> <li class="matched"><a href="link2">link2</a></li> <li class="matched"><a href="link3">link3</a></li> </ul> So basically i just want to be able to navigate through my searchresults with the up and down keys. the selection of the current element should maybe just change the background color and when i press enter the linked and matched element is fired. any idea how i can iterate through the searchresults? thank you

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  • Django sitemap intermittent www

    - by Jen Z
    The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • MKAnnotationView for userLocation pin iPhone

    - by Mauricio Galindo
    I have an application that uses MKMapView and at some point in the app I need to remove all the current pins in the map using [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations] And then I want to show again the current user location mapView.showUserLocation = YES But I can only make it reappear as a regular pin, because the userLocation view class its not public so I cant return views of that type. Here is my code - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)theMapView viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation MKPinAnnotationView* annView = (MKPinAnnotationView *)[mapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; if (!annView) { MKPinAnnotationView *annView=[[MKPinAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:@"currentloc"]; annView.pinColor = MKPinAnnotationColorRed; annView.animatesDrop=TRUE; annView.canShowCallout = YES; annView.calloutOffset = CGPointMake(-5, 5); if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[DraggableAnnotationAM class]] ) annView.draggable = YES; return annView; } else { if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[DraggableAnnotationAM class]] ) annView.draggable = YES; annView.annotation = annotation; return annView; } Also I have found through reflection that MKUserLocationView is the class that is used to display the current location, but because its not public its not safe to use and my app keeps crashing and Im sure theres a easier way. Is it possible to do what I want, or should I just never remove the user location annotation of the mapView? Thanks in advance

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  • iterate trough each selecter jquery

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I'm having problems calculating stuff on my web app. Here is the scenario: I have a html markup like this: <table> <tr> <td><span class="sub_total">10</span></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span class="sub_total">10</span></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span class="sub_total">10</span></td> </tr> </table> <p><span id="total"></span></p> I would like to calculate the main total of all the sub totals: var total; $('.sub_total').each(function(){ total = total + parseInt($(this).text()); }); $('#total').text(total); But I can't get this to work. I get a NaN notification.. Plz help and advice Greeting

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  • How do JVM's implicit memory barriers behave when chaining constructors

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    Referring to my earlier question on incompletely constructed objects, I have a second question. As Jon Skeet pointed out, there's an implicit memory barrier in the end of a constructor that makes sure that final fields are visible to all threads. But what if a constructor calls another constructor; is there such a memory barrier in the end of each of them, or only in one being called from outside? That is, when the "wrong" solution is: public class ThisEscape { public ThisEscape(EventSource source) { source.registerListener( new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } }); } } And the correct one would be a factory method version: public class SafeListener { private final EventListener listener; private SafeListener() { listener = new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } } } public static SafeListener newInstance(EventSource source) { SafeListener safe = new SafeListener(); source.registerListener(safe.listener); return safe; } } Would the following work too, or not? public class MyListener { private final EventListener Listener; private MyListener() { listener = new EventListener() { public void onEvent(Event e) { doSomething(e); } } } public MyListener(EventSource source) { this(); source.register(listener); } }

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  • Django formset doesn't validate

    - by tsoporan
    Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

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  • jquery animation headache

    - by OneNerd
    Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy=true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • jQuery multiple themes on one page

    - by lloydphillips
    This is driving me NUTS! I've followed the post here which just doesn't seem to be working: http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/using_multiple_jquery_ui_themes_on_a_single_page/ I have a base theme, for examples sake it's the Smoothness theme from the jQuery UI gallery. Then I have a 'red' theme which basically colours the buttons red. Here is the theme I created. So I go to download my theme. Choose Advanced settings, set the scope to 'red' and my theme folder name to 'red' and download. First of all I'm not entirely 100% sure which folder I'm to copy over to my project is it the 'development-bundle\themes' folder (which contains my red folder) or the '\css\red' folder? I've tried both. The post above seems to suggest if I copy my themes folder and link to my theme in the css it'll work when I add a class of 'red' to a wrapper div or element. So I've linked the themes like so in my file: <link type="text/css" href="themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <link type="text/css" href="themes/red/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> The base theme loads and works all honkey doorey but the red theme doesn't. I've got a button styled like so: <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" class="red" /> I've also tried: <div class="red"> <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" /> </div> Neither work. When I remove the 'themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css' css file link the button's aren't styled at all. Crazy! I'm pulling my hair out. Where am I going wrong? Surely they should just make it easy enough to download JUST the theme folder and reference the ui.all file.

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  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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  • Why doesn't is operator take in consideration if the explicit operator is overriden when checking ty

    - by Galilyou
    Hey Guys, Consider this code sample: public class Human { public string Value { get; set;} } public class Car { public static explicit operator Human (Car c) { Human h = new Human(); h.Value = "Value from Car"; return h; } } public class Program { public static void Mani() { Car c = new Car(); Human h = (Human)c; Console.WriteLine("h.Value = {0}", h.Value); Console.WriteLine(c is Human); } } Up I provide a possibility of an explicit cast from Car to Human, though Car and Human hierarchically are not related! The above code simply means that "Car is convertible to human" However, if you run the snippet you will find the expression c is Human evaluates to false! I used to believe that the is operator is kinda expensive cause it attempts to do an actual cast that might result in an InvalidCastException. If the operator is trying to cast, then the cast should succeed as there's an operator logic that should perform the cast! What does "is" test? Does test a hierarchical "is-a" relationship? Does test whether a variable type is convertible to a type?

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  • Overloading operator>> to a char buffer in C++ - can I tell the stream length?

    - by exscape
    I'm on a custom C++ crash course. I've known the basics for many years, but I'm currently trying to refresh my memory and learn more. To that end, as my second task (after writing a stack class based on linked lists), I'm writing my own string class. It's gone pretty smoothly until now; I want to overload operator that I can do stuff like cin my_string;. The problem is that I don't know how to read the istream properly (or perhaps the problem is that I don't know streams...). I tried a while (!stream.eof()) loop that .read()s 128 bytes at a time, but as one might expect, it stops only on EOF. I want it to read to a newline, like you get with cin to a std::string. My string class has an alloc(size_t new_size) function that (re)allocates memory, and an append(const char *) function that does that part, but I obviously need to know the amount of memory to allocate before I can write to the buffer. Any advice on how to implement this? I tried getting the istream length with seekg() and tellg(), to no avail (it returns -1), and as I said looping until EOF (doesn't stop reading at a newline) reading one chunk at a time.

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  • Determining the color of a pixel in a bitmap using C# in a WPF app

    - by DanM
    The only way I found so far is System.Drawing.Bitmap.GetPixel(), but Microsoft has warnings for System.Drawing that are making me wonder if this is the "old way" to do it. Are there any alternatives? Here's what Microsoft says about the System.Drawing namespace. I also noticed that the System.Drawing assembly was not automatically added to the references when I created a new WPF project. System.Drawing Namespace The System.Drawing namespace provides access to GDI+ basic graphics functionality. More advanced functionality is provided in the System.Drawing.Drawing2D, System.Drawing.Imaging, and System.Drawing.Text namespaces. The Graphics class provides methods for drawing to the display device. Classes such as Rectangle and Point encapsulate GDI+ primitives. The Pen class is used to draw lines and curves, while classes derived from the abstract class Brush are used to fill the interiors of shapes. Caution Classes within the System.Drawing namespace are not supported for use within a Windows or ASP.NET service. Attempting to use these classes from within one of these application types may produce unexpected problems, such as diminished service performance and run-time exceptions. - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.drawing.aspx

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Rhino Mocks Partial Mock

    - by dotnet crazy kid
    I am trying to test the logic from some existing classes. It is not possible to re-factor the classes at present as they are very complex and in production. What I want to do is create a mock object and test a method that internally calls another method that is very hard to mock. So I want to just set a behaviour for the secondary method call. But when I setup the behaviour for the method, the code of the method is invoked and fails. Am I missing something or is this just not possible to test without re-factoring the class? I have tried all the different mock types (Strick,Stub,Dynamic,Partial ect.) but they all end up calling the method when I try to set up the behaviour. using System; using MbUnit.Framework; using Rhino.Mocks; namespace MMBusinessObjects.Tests { [TestFixture] public class PartialMockExampleFixture { [Test] public void Simple_Partial_Mock_Test() { const string param = "anything"; //setup mocks MockRepository mocks = new MockRepository(); var mockTestClass = mocks.StrictMock<TestClass>(); //record beahviour *** actualy call into the real method stub *** Expect.Call(mockTestClass.MethodToMock(param)).Return(true); //never get to here mocks.ReplayAll(); //this is what i want to test Assert.IsTrue(mockTestClass.MethodIWantToTest(param)); } public class TestClass { public bool MethodToMock(string param) { //some logic that is very hard to mock throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool MethodIWantToTest(string param) { //this method calls the if( MethodToMock(param) ) { //some logic i want to test } return true; } } } }

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  • How do I build a JSON object to send to an AJAX WebService?

    - by Ben McCormack
    After trying to format my JSON data by hand in javascript and failing miserably, I realized there's probably a better way. Here's what the code for the web service method and relevant classes looks like in C#: [WebMethod] public Response ValidateAddress(Request request) { return new test_AddressValidation().GenerateResponse( test_AddressValidation.ResponseType.Ambiguous); } ... public class Request { public Address Address; } public class Address { public string Address1; public string Address2; public string City; public string State; public string Zip; public AddressClassification AddressClassification; } public class AddressClassification { public int Code; public string Description; } The web service works great with using SOAP/XML, but I can't seem to get a valid response using javascript and jQuery because the message I get back from the server has a problem with my hand-coded JSON. I can't use the jQuery getJSON function because the request requires HTTP POST, so I'm using the lower-level ajax function instead: $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://bmccorm-xp/HBUpsAddressValidation/AddressValidation.asmx/ValidateAddress", data: "{\"Address\":{\"Address1\":\"123 Main Street\",\"Address2\":null,\"City\":\"New York\",\"State\":\"NY\",\"Zip\":\"10000\",\"AddressClassification\":null}}", dataType: "json", success: function(response){ alert(response); } }) The ajax function is submitting everything specified in data:, which is where my problem is. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object in javascript so I can plug it in to my ajax call like so: data: theRequest I'll eventually be pulling data out of text inputs in forms, but for now hard-coded test data is fine. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object to send to the web service?

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  • Can not find Driver when using generic database bundle

    - by Marc
    I have a project that is build up from several OSGi bundles. One of them is a generic Database bundle that defines a DataSource that can be used throughout the project. The spring bean definition of this service is: <osgi:service interface="javax.sql.DataSource"> <bean class="org.postgresql.ds.PGPoolingDataSource"> <property name="databaseName" value="xxx" /> <property name="serverName" value="xxx" /> <property name="user" value="xxx" /> <property name="password" value="xxx" /> </bean> </osgi:service> Now, when using this DataSource is a different bundle, we get an error: No suitable driver found for jdbc:postgresql://localhost/xxx I have tried the following to add the org.postgresql.Driver to the DriverManager: Instantiated an empty bean for that Driver in the spring context, like this: <bean class="org.postgresql.Driver" /> Instantiated the Driver statically in one of the classes, like this: Class.forName("org.postgresql.Driver"); Added a file META-INF\services\java.sql.Driver with the content org.postgresql.Driver None of these solutions seems to help.

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  • Parameter based bindings in ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    I want to use conditional binding in ninject, based on passed parameters. I have something like below: public class Subject { } public interface ITarget { } public class Target1 : ITarget { } public class Target2 : ITarget { } And now I need to instantiate ITarget interface: public void MethodName(IKernel kernel) { ITarget target1 = kernel.Get<ITarget>(new Parameter("name", new Subject(), true)); // Should be instance of Target1 ITarget target2 = kernel.Get<ITarget>(); // Should be instance of Target2 } I have problems to define proper bindings. I tried the following: kernel.Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().When(Predicate); kernel.Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); private bool Predicate(IRequest request) { IParameter parameter = request.Parameters.Count == 0 ? null : request.Parameters[0]; if (parameter == null) { return false; } object parameterValue = parameter.GetValue( /*what to put here?*/); return parameterValue != null && parameterValue.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(typeof(Subject)); } but I don't know how to get value of passed parameter. I need to pass IContext instance to GetValue method, but don't know how to get valid instance of IContext. Or maybe there is better way to accomplish my task? Regards

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  • Change with jQuery a cell of a table created with JSF

    - by perissf
    From within a xhtml page created with JSF, I need to use JavaScript / jQuery for changing the content of a cell of a table. I know how to assign a unique id to the div containing the table, and to the tbody. I can also assign unique class names to the div itself and to the target column. The target row is identified by the data-rk attribute. <div id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable" class="ui-datatable ui-widget personsTable"> <table role="grid"> <tbody id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable_data" > <tr data-rk="2" > <td ... /> <td class="lastNameCol" role="gridcell"> <div> To Be Edited </div> </td> <td ... /> </tr> <tr ... /> </tbody> </table> </div> I have tried with many combinations of different jQuery selectors, but I am really lost. I need to search my target row and my target column inside that particular div or inside that particular table, because the xhtml page may contain other tables with different unique ids (and accidentally with the same row and column ids).

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  • How can "today's date" be varied for unit testing purposes?

    - by ck
    I use VS2008 targetting .NET 2.0 Framework, and, just in case, no I can't change this :) I have a DateCalculator class. Its method GetNextExpirationDate attempts to determine the next expiration, internally using DateTime.Today as a baseline date. As I was writing unit tests, I realized that I wanted to test GetNextExpirationDate for different 'today' dates. What's the best way to do this? Here are some alternatives I've considered: Expose a property/overloaded method with argument baselineDate and only use it from the unit test. In actual client code, disregard the property/overloaded method in favour of the method that defaults baselineDate to DateTime.Today. I'm reluctant to do this as it makes the public interface of the DateCalculator class awkward. Create a protected field called baselineDate that is internally set to DateTime.Today. When testing, derive a DateCalculatorForTesting from DateCalculator and set baslineDate via the constructor. It keeps the public interface clean, but still isn't great - baselineDate was made protected and a derived class is required, both solely for testing. Use extension methods. I tried this after adding the ExtensionAttribute, then realized it wouldn't work because extension methods can't access private/protected variables. I initially thought this was really quite an elegant solution. :( I'd be interested in hearing what others think.

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  • Django notification get date one accesses a link

    - by dana
    hi there, i'm making a notification system, so that a user in a virtual community to be announced when someone sends him a message, or starts following him (the follow relation is like a friend relation, but it is not necessarily reciprocal) my view function: def notification_view(request, last_checked): u = Relation.objects.filter(date_follow>Notification.objects.get(last_checked=last_checked)) v = Message.objects.filter(date>Notification.objects.get(last_checked=last_checked)) if u: notification_type = follow if notice_settings == receive_notification or notice_settings == only_follow following = u if v: notification_type = message if notice_settings == receive_notification or notice_settings == only_messages message = v return render_to_response('notification/notification.html', { 'following': following, 'message':message, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) the models.py: class NoticeType(models.Model): follow = models.ForeignKey(Relations, editable = False) message = models.ForeignKey(Messages) classroom_invitation = models.ForeignKey(Classroom) class Notification(models.Model): receiver = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False) date = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True, editable = False) notice_type = models.ForeignKey(NoticeType, editable = False, related_name = "notification_type") sent = models.BooleanField(default = True) last_checked = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True, editable = False) class NotificationSettings(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) receive_notifications = models.BooleanField(default = True) only_follow = models.BooleanField(default = False) only_message = models.BooleanField(default = False) only_classroom = models.BooleanField(default = False) #receive_on_email = models.BooleanField(default = False) my problem is: i want last_checked to be the time when someone acceses a link (the notification link). How can i possibily save that time? how can i get it? thanks in avance!

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  • ArrayList.Sort should be a stable sort with an IComparer but is not?

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    A stable sort is a sort that maintains the relative ordering of elements with the same value. The docs on ArrayList.Sort say that when an IComparer is provided the sort is stable: If comparer is set to null, this method performs a comparison sort (also called an unstable sort); that is, if two elements are equal, their order might not be preserved. In contrast, a stable sort preserves the order of elements that are equal. To perform a stable sort, you must implement a custom IComparer interface. Unless I'm missing something, the following testcase shows that ArrayList.Sort is not using a stable sort: internal class DisplayOrdered { public int ID { get; set; } public int DisplayOrder { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return string.Format("ID: {0}, DisplayOrder: {1}", ID, DisplayOrder); } } internal class DisplayOrderedComparer : IComparer { public int Compare(object x, object y) { return ((DisplayOrdered)x).DisplayOrder - ((DisplayOrdered)y).DisplayOrder; } } [TestFixture] public class ArrayListStableSortTest { [Test] public void TestWeblinkCallArrayListIsSortedUsingStableSort() { var call1 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 1, DisplayOrder = 0}; var call2 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 2, DisplayOrder = 0}; var call3 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 3, DisplayOrder = 2}; var list = new ArrayList {call1, call2, call3}; list.Sort(new DisplayOrderedComparer()); // expected order (by ID): 1, 2, 3 (because the DisplayOrder // is equal for ID's 1 and 2, their ordering should be // maintained for a stable sort.) Assert.AreEqual(call1, list[0]); // Actual: ID=2 ** FAILS Assert.AreEqual(call2, list[1]); // Actual: ID=1 Assert.AreEqual(call3, list[2]); // Actual: ID=3 } } Am I missing something? If not, would this be a documentation bug or a library bug? Apparently using an OrderBy in Linq gives a stable sort.

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