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  • Sending buffered images between Java client and Twisted Python socket server

    - by PattimusPrime
    I have a server-side function that draws an image with the Python Imaging Library. The Java client requests an image, which is returned via socket and converted to a BufferedImage. I prefix the data with the size of the image to be sent, followed by a CR. I then read this number of bytes from the socket input stream and attempt to use ImageIO to convert to a BufferedImage. In abbreviated code for the client: public String writeAndReadSocket(String request) { // Write text to the socket BufferedWriter bufferedWriter = new BufferedWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(socket.getOutputStream())); bufferedWriter.write(request); bufferedWriter.flush(); // Read text from the socket BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); // Read the prefixed size int size = Integer.parseInt(bufferedReader.readLine()); // Get that many bytes from the stream char[] buf = new char[size]; bufferedReader.read(buf, 0, size); return new String(buf); } public BufferedImage stringToBufferedImage(String imageBytes) { return ImageIO.read(new ByteArrayInputStream(s.getBytes())); } and the server: # Twisted server code here # The analog of the following method is called with the proper client # request and the result is written to the socket. def worker_thread(): img = draw_function() buf = StringIO.StringIO() img.save(buf, format="PNG") img_string = buf.getvalue() return "%i\r%s" % (sys.getsizeof(img_string), img_string) This works for sending and receiving Strings, but image conversion (usually) fails. I'm trying to understand why the images are not being read properly. My best guess is that the client is not reading the proper number of bytes, but I honestly don't know why that would be the case. Side notes: I realize that the char[]-to-String-to-bytes-to-BufferedImage Java logic is roundabout, but reading the bytestream directly produces the same errors. I have a version of this working where the client socket isn't persistent, ie. the request is processed and the connection is dropped. That version works fine, as I don't need to care about the image size, but I want to learn why the proposed approach doesn't work.

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  • How can I strip Python logging calls without commenting them out?

    - by cdleary
    Today I was thinking about a Python project I wrote about a year back where I used logging pretty extensively. I remember having to comment out a lot of logging calls in inner-loop-like scenarios (the 90% code) because of the overhead (hotshot indicated it was one of my biggest bottlenecks). I wonder now if there's some canonical way to programmatically strip out logging calls in Python applications without commenting and uncommenting all the time. I'd think you could use inspection/recompilation or bytecode manipulation to do something like this and target only the code objects that are causing bottlenecks. This way, you could add a manipulator as a post-compilation step and use a centralized configuration file, like so: [Leave ERROR and above] my_module.SomeClass.method_with_lots_of_warn_calls [Leave WARN and above] my_module.SomeOtherClass.method_with_lots_of_info_calls [Leave INFO and above] my_module.SomeWeirdClass.method_with_lots_of_debug_calls Of course, you'd want to use it sparingly and probably with per-function granularity -- only for code objects that have shown logging to be a bottleneck. Anybody know of anything like this? Note: There are a few things that make this more difficult to do in a performant manner because of dynamic typing and late binding. For example, any calls to a method named debug may have to be wrapped with an if not isinstance(log, Logger). In any case, I'm assuming all of the minor details can be overcome, either by a gentleman's agreement or some run-time checking. :-)

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  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

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  • smallest mysql type that accomodates single decimal

    - by donpal
    Database newbie here. I'm setting up a mysql table. One of the fields will accept a value in increment of a 0.5. e.g. 0.5, 1.0, 1.5, 2.0, .... 200.5, etc. I've tried int but it doesn't capture the decimals. `value` int(10), What would be the smallest type that can accommodate this value, considering it's only a single decimal. I also was considering that because the decimal will always be 0.5 if at all, I could store it in a separate boolean field? So I would have 2 fields instead. Is this a stupid or somewhat over complicated idea? I don't know if it really saves me any memory, and it might get slower now that I'm accessing 2 fields instead of 1 `value` int(10), `half` bool, //or something similar to boolean What are your suggestions guys? Is the first option better, and what's the smallest data type in that case that would get me the 0.5?

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • What does it mean to double license?

    - by Adrian Panasiuk
    What does it mean to double license code? I can't just put both licenses in the source files. That would mean that I mandate users to follow the rules of both of them, but the licenses will probably be contradictory (otherwise there'd be no reason to double license). I guess this is something like in cryptographic chaining, cipher = crypt_2(crypt_1(clear)) (generally) means, that cipher is neither the output of crypt_2 on clear nor the output of crypt_1 on clear. It's the output of the composition. Likewise, in double-licensing, in reality my code has one license, it's just that this new license says please follow all of the rules of license1, or all of the rules of license2, and you are hereby granted the right to redistribute this application under this "double" license, license1 or license2, or any license under which license1 or license2 allow you to redistribute this software, in which case you shall replace the relevant licensing information in this application with that of the new license. (Does this mean that before someone may use the app under license1, he has to perform the operation of redistributing to self? How would he document the fact that he did that operation?) Am I correct. What LICENSE file and what text to put in the source files would I need if I wanted to double license on, for the sake of example, Apachev2 and GPLv3 ?

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  • Help with accessing a pre-existing window AFTER opener is refreshed!

    - by Wilhelm Murdoch
    Alright, I'm at my wit's end on this issue. First, backstory. I'm working on a video management system where we're allowing users, when adding new content, to upload and, optionally, transcode a media file. We're using Java applet for the browser-based FTP client. What I want to do is allow a user to initiate an upload and then send the FTP connection instance to a popup window. This window will act as a job queue for the FTP transfer process. This will allow users to move about the main interface without having to stay on the original page until an individual file transfer is complete. For the most part I have all of this working, but here's a problem. If the window is closed, all connections are dropped and the upload process for all queued files will be canceled. So, if Window One opens the Popup Window, adds stuff to the queue, refreshes the screen or moves to a different page, how will I access the Popup Window? The popup window and its contents must remain persistent while the user navigates through the original window. The original window must be able to access the popup to add a new job to the queue. The popup window itself is independent of the opening window, so communication only happens in one direction: Parent - Popup Not Parent <- Popup Window.open(null, 'WINDOW_NAME'); will not work in this case. I need to check if a window exists BEFORE using window.open. Help!?!?

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  • Hide the last children of an XML data provider (not to be displayed in mx:Tree)

    - by Andree
    Hi there! I have an hierachical XML data, and I want to display it as a tree. The XML data is something like this: <services> <service name="TestService" endpoint=""> <method name="sayHi"> <parameter name="firstName" /> <parameter name="lastName" /> </method> <method name="sayGoodbye"> <parameter name="firstName" /> <parameter name="lastName" /> </method> </service> <service name="AnotherTestService"> <method name="getName" /> <method name="setName"> <parameter name="name" /> </method> </service> </services> However, I don't want to display the last elements (parameters) in the tree because, well, it is not meant to be displayed, but still it has to be there. Any advice on how can I achieve that? I am thinking of either extending DefaultDataDescriptor or create a class which implement ITreeDataDescriptor. Which approach will be suitable in this case?

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  • What happens when value types are created?

    - by Bob
    I'm developing a game using XNA and C# and was attempting to avoid calling new struct() type code each frame as I thought it would freak the GC out. "But wait," I said to myself, "struct is a value type. The GC shouldn't get called then, right?" Well, that's why I'm asking here. I only have a very vague idea of what happens to value types. If I create a new struct within a function call, is the struct being created on the stack? Will it simply get pushed and popped and performance not take a hit? Further, would there be some memory limit or performance implications if, say, I need to create many instances in a single call? Take, for instance, this code: spriteBatch.Draw(tex, new Rectangle(x, y, width, height), Color.White); Rectangle in this case is a struct. What happens when that new Rectangle is created? What are the implications of having to repeat that line many times (say, thousands of times)? Is this Rectangle created, a copy sent to the Draw method, and then discarded (meaning no memory getting eaten up the more Draw is called in that manner in the same function)? P.S. I know this may be pre-mature optimization, but I'm mostly curious and wish to have a better understanding of what is happening.

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  • How to Perform Continues Iteration over Shared Dictionary in Multi-threaded Environment

    - by Mubashar Ahmad
    Dear Gurus. Note Pls do not tell me regarding alternative to custom session, Pls answer only relative to the Pattern Scenario I have Done Custom Session Management in my application(WCF Service) for this I have a Dictionary shared to all thread. When a specific function Gets called I add a New Session and Issue SessionId to the client so it can use that sessionId for rest of his calls until it calls another specific function, which terminates this session and removes the session from the Dictionary. Due to any reason Client may not call session terminator function so i have to implement time expiration logic so that i can remove all such sessions from the memory. For this I added a Timer Object which calls ClearExpiredSessions function after the specific period of time. which iterates on the dictionary. Problem: As this dictionary gets modified every time new client comes and leaves so i can't lock the whole dictionary while iterating over it. And if i do not lock the dictionary while iteration, if dictionary gets modified from other thread while iterating, Enumerator will throw exception on MoveNext(). So can anybody tell me what kind of Design i should follow in this case. Is there any standard pattern available.

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  • DataReader already open when using LINQ

    - by Jamie Dixon
    I've got a static class containing a static field which makes reference to a wrapper object of a DataContext. The DataContext is basically generated by Visual Studio when we created a dbml file & contains methods for each of the stored procedures we have in the DB. Our class basically has a bunch of static methods that fire off each of these stored proc methods & then returns an array based on a LINQ query. Example: public static TwoFieldBarData[] GetAgesReportData(string pct) { return DataContext .BreakdownOfUsersByAge(Constants.USER_MEDICAL_PROFILE_KEY, pct) .Select(x => new TwoFieldBarData(x.DisplayName, x.LeftValue, x.RightValue, x.TotalCount)) .ToArray(); } Every now and then, we get the following error: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed firs This is happening intermittently and I'm curious as to what is going on. My guess is that when there's some lag between one method executing and the next one firing, it's locking up the DataContext and throwing the error. Could this be a case for wrapping each of the DataContext LINQ calls in a lock(){} to obtain exclusivity to that type and ensure other requests are queued?

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  • Building Stored Procedure to group data into ranges with roughly equal results in each bucket

    - by Len
    I am trying to build one procedure to take a large amount of data and create 5 range buckets to display the data. the buckets ranges will have to be set according to the results. Here is my existing SP GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] Script Date: 03/28/2010 19:50:45 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_GetRangeCounts] @idMenu int AS declare @myMin decimal(19,2), @myMax decimal(19,2), @myDif decimal(19,2), @range1 decimal(19,2), @range2 decimal(19,2), @range3 decimal(19,2), @range4 decimal(19,2), @range5 decimal(19,2), @range6 decimal(19,2) SELECT @myMin=Min(modelpropvalue), @myMax=Max(modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues where modelPropUnitDescriptionID=@idMenu set @myDif=(@myMax-@myMin)/5 set @range1=@myMin set @range2=@myMin+@myDif set @range3=@range2+@myDif set @range4=@range3+@myDif set @range5=@range4+@myDif set @range6=@range5+@myDif select @myMin,@myMax,@myDif,@range1,@range2,@range3,@range4,@range5,@range6 select t.range as myRange, count(*) as myCount from ( select case when modelpropvalue between @range1 and @range2 then 'range1' when modelpropvalue between @range2 and @range3 then 'range2' when modelpropvalue between @range3 and @range4 then 'range3' when modelpropvalue between @range4 and @range5 then 'range4' when modelpropvalue between @range5 and @range6 then 'range5' end as range from xmodelpropertyvalues where modelpropunitDescriptionID=@idmenu) t group by t.range order by t.range This calculates the min and max value from my table, works out the difference between the two and creates 5 buckets. The problem is that if there are a small amount of very high (or very low) values then the buckets will appear very distorted - as in these results... range1 2806 range2 296 range3 75 range5 1 Basically I want to rebuild the SP so it creates buckets with equal amounts of results in each. I have played around with some of the following approaches without quite nailing it... SELECT modelpropvalue, NTILE(5) OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) FROM xmodelpropertyvalues - this creates a new column with either 1,2,3,4 or 5 in it ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range1 and @range2 ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY modelpropvalue) between @range2 and @range3 or maybe i could allocate every record a row number then divide into ranges from this?

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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  • Graphical glitches when adding cells and scrolling with UITableView

    - by Daniel I-S
    I am using a UITableView to display the results of a series of calculations. When the user hits 'calculate', I wish to add the latest result to the screen. This is done by adding a new cell to a 'results' section. The UITableViewCell object is added to an array, and then I use the following code to add this new row to what is displayed on the screen: [thisView beginUpdates]; [thisView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newIndexPath] withRowAnimation: UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [thisView endUpdates]; This results in the new cell being displayed. However, I then want to immediately scroll the screen down so that the new cell is the lowermost cell on-screen. I use the following code: [thisView scrollToRowAtIndexPath:newIndexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionBottom animated:YES]; This almost works great. However, the first time a cell is added and scrolled to, it appears onscreen only briefly before vanishing. The view scrolls down to the correct place, but the cell is not there. Scrolling the view by hand until this invisible new cell's position is offscreen, then back again, causes the cell to appear - after which it behaves normally. This only happens the first time a cell is added; subsequent cells don't have this problem. It also happens regardless of the combination of scrollToRowAtIndexPath and insertRowsAtIndexPath animation settings. There is also a problem where, if new cells are added repeatedly and quickly, the new cells stop 'connecting up'. The lowermost cell in a group is supposed to have rounded corners, and when a new cell is added these turn into square corners so that there is a clean join with the next cell in the group. In this case, however, a cell often does not lose its rounded edges despite not being the last cell anymore. This also gets corrected once the affected area moves offscreen and back. This method of adding and scrolling would be perfect for my application if it weren't for these weird glitches. Any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong?

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  • Reversing a circular deque without a sentinel

    - by SDLFunTimes
    Hey Stackoverflow I'm working on my homework and I'm trying to reverse a circular-linked deque without a sentinel. Here are my data structures: struct DLink { TYPE value; struct DLink * next; struct DLink * prev; }; struct cirListDeque { int size; struct DLink *back; }; Here's my approach to reversing the deque: void reverseCirListDeque(struct cirListDeque* q) { struct DLink* current; struct DLink* temp; temp = q->back->next; q->back->next = q->back->prev; q->back->prev = temp; current = q->back->next; while(current != q->back->next) { temp = current->next; current->next = current->prev; current->prev = temp; current = current->next; } } However when I run it and put values 1, 2 and 3 on it (TYPE is just a alias for int in this case) and reverse it I get 2, 3, null. Does anyone have any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • WCF service reference namespace differs from original

    - by Thorarin
    I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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  • How to not use JavaScript with in the elements events attributes but still load via AJAX

    - by thecoshman
    I am currently loading HTMl content via AJAX. I have code for things on different elements onclick attributes (and other event attributes). It does work, but I am starting to find that the code is getting rather large, and hard to read. I have also read that it is considered bad practice to have the event code 'inline' like this and that I should really do by element.onclick = foobar and have foobar defined somewhere else. I understand how with a static page it is fairly easy to do this, just have a script tag at the bottom of the page and once the page is loaded have it executed. This can then attach any and all events as you need them. But how can I get this sort of affect when loading content via AJAX. There is also the slight case that the content loaded can very depending on what is in the database, some times certain sections of HTML, such as tables of results, will not even be displayed there will be something else entirely. I can post some samples of code if any body needs them, but I have no idea what sort of things would help people with this one. I will point out, that I am using Jquery already so if it has some helpful little functions that would be rather sweet¬

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  • UIButton receives touches at the wrong position after CABasicAnimaton applied

    - by Dmitry
    I need to add an animation to UIButton - simple moving animation. When I do this, the button moves, but the click area of that button remains at old position: UIButton *slideButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [slideButton addTarget:self action:@selector(clicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [slideButton setFrame:CGRectMake(50, 50, 50, 50)]; [self.view addSubview:slideButton]; CABasicAnimation *slideAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; [slideAnimation setRemovedOnCompletion:NO]; [slideAnimation setDuration:1]; [slideAnimation setFillMode:kCAFillModeBoth]; [slideAnimation setAutoreverses:NO]; slideAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; slideAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(100, 100)]; [slideButton.layer addAnimation:slideAnimation forKey:@"slide"]; I already saw an answer to change the frame of the button at the end of the animation (like here UIButton receives touchEvents at the wrong position after a CABasicAnimaton) But it's not my case because I should give possibility to user to click on the button while it's moving... Also, I can't use another approaches (like NSTimer) as a replacement for CABasicAnimation because I will have a complex path to move the object... Thanks for Your help!

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  • Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Ajax Auto Complete in ASP.Net MVC project - How to display a an object's name but actually save it's

    - by Ben
    I have implemented the Ajax Autocomplete feature in my application using a web service file that querys my database and it works great. One problem I am having is allowing the user to see the item's name, as that's what they are typing in the textbox, but when they select it, it saves the item's ID number instead of the actual name. I want it to behave much like a dropdown list, where I can specify what is seen and entered vs. what is actually saved in the database (in this case, the product ID instead of it's name.) I have this text box in my view, along with the script: <script type="text/javascript"> Sys.Application.add_init(function() { $create( AjaxControlToolkit.AutoCompleteBehavior, { serviceMethod: 'ProductSearch', servicePath: '/ProductService.asmx', minimumPrefixLength: 1, completionSetCount: 10 }, null, null, $get('ProductID')) }); </script> <p> <label for="ProductID">Product:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("ProductID", Model.Products)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("ProductID", "*")%> </p> Here's what is in my asmx file: public class ProductService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string[] ProductSearch(string prefixText, int count) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); string[] products = (from product in db.Products where product.ProductName.StartsWith(prefixText) select product.ProductName).Take(count).ToArray(); return products; } } Can anyone help me figure this out? I'm using this so they can just start typing instead of having a dropdown list that's a mile long...

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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  • How do I remove HTML that I place dynamically with JQuery

    - by Vivek
    lets say i have fallowing html... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> what i want to do is, add a html on onclick of these links, if you click on first link output should look like <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> means hide the original html of that li and append new html for ex. a span as i have written above...and if i clicked on second link the first li should get it's original html and appended html should get removed and get appended to current li bieng clicked..in this case output should look like... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> i tried to achieve this thing through variuos way...but could not find out the correct way.. please help me out guys.. Thanks in advance!!!!

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  • Very slow guards in my monadic random implementation (haskell)

    - by danpriduha
    Hi! I was tried to write one random number generator implementation, based on number class. I also add there Monad and MonadPlus instance. What mean "MonadPlus" and why I add this instance? Because of I want to use guards like here: -- test.hs -- import RandomMonad import Control.Monad import System.Random x = Rand (randomR (1 ::Integer, 3)) ::Rand StdGen Integer y = do a <-x guard (a /=2) guard (a /=1) return a here comes RandomMonad.hs file contents: -- RandomMonad.hs -- module RandomMonad where import Control.Monad import System.Random import Data.List data RandomGen g => Rand g a = Rand (g ->(a,g)) | RandZero instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => Monad (Rand g) where return x = Rand (\g ->(x,g)) (RandZero)>>= _ = RandZero (Rand argTransformer)>>=(parametricRandom) = Rand funTransformer where funTransformer g | isZero x = funTransformer g1 | otherwise = (getRandom x g1,getGen x g1) where x = parametricRandom val (val,g1) = argTransformer g isZero RandZero = True isZero _ = False instance (Show g, RandomGen g) => MonadPlus (Rand g) where mzero = RandZero RandZero `mplus` x = x x `mplus` RandZero = x x `mplus` y = x getRandom :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g ->a getRandom (Rand f) g = (fst (f g)) getGen :: RandomGen g => Rand g a ->g -> g getGen (Rand f) g = snd (f g) when I run ghci interpreter, and give following command getRandom y (mkStdGen 2000000000) I can see memory overflow on my computer (1G). It's not expected, and if I delete one guard, it works very fast. Why in this case it works too slow? What I do wrong?

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