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  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

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  • How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

    - by Daniel Schneller
    In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • Style row banding and selection in tr:table using CSS

    - by Alex Larzelere
    I've got a tr:table that I need to style using CSS. All the normal style functions of a table are working, but row banding and row selection aren't coming up. When I view the rendered source, I'm not seeing a difference in the rows for an id or class to grab on to, and the official documentation doesn't have any attributes for declaring a style class for either. Is this possible and if so what do I need to do to get my CSS to grab onto it? <tr:table id="myTable" value="#{tableValues}" rowBandingInterval="1"> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> <tr:column> ##Stuff## </tr:column> </tr:table> Edit Let me try to clairfy what's happening. First, using the declaration above tells jsf to generate a table, and the attribute rowBandingInterval tells it to give each row alternating colors (If it was set to 2, then it would do 2 rows one color, 2 rows another, 2 rows the original, etc.) Once the page gets rendered into standard html, trinidad (and jsf) apply their own classes and IDs to the html. My normal procedure is to look at the rendered html, find the class that it is appling and add CSS rules for it. However in this case, no additional styles are added (nothing in the rendered html denotes one row to be different from another). So the question is, how do I tell trinidad to either give alternating rows and the user selected row different classes/IDs for me to grab on to with CSS?

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  • How to "reduce" a hash?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

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  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

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  • Will Learning C++ Help for Building Fast/No-Additional-Requirements Desktop Applications?

    - by vito
    Will learning C++ help me build native applications with good speed? Will it help me as a programmer, and what are the other benefits? The reason why I want to learn C++ is because I'm disappointed with the UI performances of applications built on top of JVM and .NET. They feel slow, and start slow too. Of course, a really bad programmer can create a slower and sluggish application using C++ too, but I'm not considering that case. One of my favorite Windows utility application is Launchy. And in the Readme.pdf file, the author of the program wrote this: 0.6 This is the first C++ release. As I became frustrated with C#’s large .NET framework requirements and users lack of desire to install it, I decided to switch back to the faster language. I totally agree with the author of Launchy about the .NET framework requirement or even a JRE requirement for desktop applications. Let alone the specific version of them. And some of the best and my favorite desktop applications don't need .NET or Java to run. They just run after installing. Are they mostly built using C++? Is C++ the only option for good and fast GUI based applications? And, I'm also very interested in hearing the other benefits of learning C++.

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  • .NET Regex - Replace multiple characters at once without overwriting?

    - by Everaldo Aguiar
    I'm implementing a c# program that should automatize a Mono-alphabetic substitution cipher. The functionality i'm working on at the moment is the simplest one: The user will provide a plain text and a cipher alphabet, for example: Plain text(input): THIS IS A TEST Cipher alphabet: A - Y, H - Z, I - K, S - L, E - J, T - Q Cipher Text(output): QZKL KL QJLQ I thought of using regular expressions since I've been programming in perl for a while, but I'm encountering some problems on c#. First I would like to know if someone would have a suggestion for a regular expression that would replace all occurrence of each letter by its corresponding cipher letter (provided by user) at once and without overwriting anything. Example: In this case, user provides plaintext "TEST", and on his cipher alphabet, he wishes to have all his T's replaced with E's, E's replaced with Y and S replaced with J. My first thought was to substitute each occurrence of a letter with an individual character and then replace that character by the cipherletter corresponding to the plaintext letter provided. Using the same example word "TEST", the steps taken by the program to provide an answer would be: 1 - replace T's with (lets say) @ 2 - replace E's with # 3 - replace S's with & 4 - Replace @ with E, # with Y, & with j 5 - Output = EYJE This solution doesn't seem to work for large texts. I would like to know if anyone can think of a single regular expression that would allow me to replace each letter in a given text by its corresponding letter in a 26-letter cipher alphabet without the need of splitting the task in an intermediate step as I mentioned. If it helps visualize the process, this is a print screen of my GUI for the program:

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  • Linux network stack : adding protocols with an LKM and dev_add_pack

    - by agent0range
    Hello, I have recently been trying to familiarize myself with the Linux Networking stack and device drivers (have both similarly named O'Reilly books) with the eventual goal of offloading UDP. I have already implemented UDP on the NIC but now the hard part... Rather than ask for assistance on this larger goal I was hoping someone could clarify for me a particular snippet I found that is part of a LKM which registeres a new protocol (OTP) that acts as a filter between the device driver and network stack. http://www.phrack.org/archives/55/p55_0x0c_Building%20Into%20The%20Linux%20Network%20Layer_by_lifeline%20&%20kossak.txt (Note: this Phrack article contains three different modules, code for the OTP is at the bottom of the page) In the init function of his example he has: otp_proto.type = htons(ETH_P_ALL); otp_proto.func = otp_func; dev_add_pack(&otp_proto); which (if I understand correctly) should register otp_proto as a packet sniffer and put it into the ptype_all data structure. My question is about the dev_add_pack. Is it the case that the protocol being registered as a filter will always be placed at this layer between L2 and the device driver? Or, for instance could I make such a filtering occur between the application and transport layers (analyze socket parameters) using the same process? I apologize if this is confusing - I am having some trouble wrapping my head around the bigger picture when it comes to modules altering kernel stack functionality. Thanks

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

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  • Syntactical analysis with Flex/Bison part 2

    - by Imran
    Hallo, I need help in Lex/Yacc Programming. I wrote a compiler for a syntactical analysis for inputs of many statements. Now i have a special problem. In case of an Input the compiler gives the right output, which statement is uses, constant operator or a jmp instructor to which label, now i have to write so, if now a if statement comes, first the first command (before the else) must be give out when the assignment of the if is yes then it must jump to the end because the command after the else isnt needed, so after this jmp then the second command must be give out. I show it in an example maybe you understand what i mean. Input adr. Output if(x==0) 10 if(x==0) Wait 5 20 WAIT 5 else 30 JMP 50 Wait 1 40 WAIT 1 end 50 END like so. I have an idea, maybe i can do it whith a special if statement like IF exp jmp_stmt_end stmt_seq END when the if statement is given in the input the compiler has to recognize the end ofthe statement and like my jmp_stmt in my compiler ( you have to download the files from http://bitbucket.org/matrix/changed-tiny) only to jump to the end. I hope you understand my problem.thanks.

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  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

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  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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  • Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

    - by Bob
    What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

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  • C Programing - Return libcurl http response to string to the calling function

    - by empty set
    I have a homework and i need somehow to compare two http responses. I am writing it on C (dumb decision) and i use libcurl to make things easier. I am calling the function that uses libcurl to http request and response from another function and i want to return the http response to it. Anyway, the code below doesn't work, any ideas? #include <stdio.h> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <string.h> size_t write_data(void *ptr, size_t size, size_t nmemb, void *stream) { size_t written; written = fwrite(ptr, size, nmemb, stream); return written; } char *handle_url(void) { CURL *curl; char *fp; CURLcode res; char *url = "http://www.yahoo.com"; curl = curl_easy_init(); if (curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, url); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, write_data); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, fp); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); if(res != CURLE_OK) fprintf(stderr, "curl_easy_perform() failed: %s\n", curl_easy_strerror(res)); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); //printf("\n%s", fp); } return fp; } This solution C libcurl get output into a string works, but not in my case because i want to return this string to the calling function.

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  • Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

    - by alex
    I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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  • Serializing and deserializing a map with key as string

    - by Grace K
    Hi! I am intending to serialize and deserialize a hashmap whose key is a string. From Josh Bloch's Effective Java, I understand the following. P.222 "For example, consider the case of a harsh table. The physical representation is a sequence of hash buckets containing key-value entries. Which bucket an entry is placed in is a function of the hash code of the key, which is not, in general guaranteed to be the same from JVM implementation to JVM implementation. In fact, it isn't even guranteed to be the same from run to run on the same JVM implementation. Therefore accepting the default serialized form for a hash table would constitute a serious bug. Serializing and deserializing the hash table could yield an object whose invariants were seriously corrupt." My questions are: 1) In general, would overriding the equals and hashcode of the key class of the map resolve this issue and the map can be correctly restored? 2) If my key is a String and the String class is already overriding the hashCode() method, would I still have problem described above. (I am seeing a bug which makes me think this is probably still a problem even though the key is String with overriding hashCode.) 3)Previously, I get around this issue by serializing an array of entries (key, value) and when deserializing I would reconstruct the map. I am wondering if there is a better approach. 4) If the answers to question 1 and 2 are that I still can't be guaranteed. Could someone explain why? If the hashCodes are the same would they go to the same buckets across JVMs? Thanks, Grace

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

    - by Raul
    i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

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  • Ruby: Why is Array.sort slow for large objects?

    - by David Waller
    A colleague needed to sort an array of ActiveRecord objects in a Rails app. He tried the obvious Array.sort! but it seemed surprisingly slow, taking 32s for an array of 3700 objects. So just in case it was these big fat objects slowing things down, he reimplemented the sort by sorting an array of small objects, then reordering the original array of ActiveRecord objects to match - as shown in the code below. Tada! The sort now takes 700ms. That really surprised me. Does Ruby's sort method end up copying objects about the place rather than just references? He's using Ruby 1.8.6/7. def self.sort_events(events) event_sorters = Array.new(events.length) {|i| EventSorter.new(i, events[i])} event_sorters.sort! event_sorters.collect {|es| events[es.index]} end private # Class used by sort_events class EventSorter attr_reader :sqn attr_reader :time attr_reader :index def initialize(index, event) @index = index @sqn = event.sqn @time = event.time end def <=>(b) @time != b.time ? @time <=> b.time : @sqn <=> b.sqn end end

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  • How do I remove HTML that I place dynamically with JQuery

    - by Vivek
    lets say i have fallowing html... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> what i want to do is, add a html on onclick of these links, if you click on first link output should look like <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> <li><a href="#" id='ApplicationNotes' >Application Notes</a><fontclass="leftNavHitsFont">- (6)</font></li> means hide the original html of that li and append new html for ex. a span as i have written above...and if i clicked on second link the first li should get it's original html and appended html should get removed and get appended to current li bieng clicked..in this case output should look like... <li><a href="#" id='DataSheets' >Data Sheets</a><font class="leftNavHitsFont">- (1)</font></li> <li><span>ajksdfskaj</span></li> i tried to achieve this thing through variuos way...but could not find out the correct way.. please help me out guys.. Thanks in advance!!!!

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  • IIS6, ASP.NET MVC 1 and random slowdowns

    - by Mr Snuffle
    I've recently deployed a MVC application to an IIS6 web server. One strange behaviour I've been having is the load times will randomly blow up to 30sec+ and then return to normal. Our tests have shown this occurring on multiple connections at the same time. Once the wait has passed, the site become responsive again. It's completely random when this will occur, but will probably happen about once every 15 minutes or so. My first thought was the application was being restarted by the web server for some reason, but I determined this wasn't the case because the process recycling is set very infrequently, and I placed some logging in the application startup. It's also nothing to do with the database connection. This slowdown happens simply by moving between static pages too. I've watched the database with a SQL profiler, and nothing is hitting it when these slowdowns occur. Finally, I've placed entry and exit logging on my controller actions, the slowdown always happens outside of the controller. The entry and exit time for a controller action is always appropriately fast. Does anyone have any ideas of what could be causing this? I've tried running it locally on IIS7 and I haven't had the issue. I can only think it's something to do with our hosting provider.

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  • Bookmarkable URLs after Ajax for Wicket

    - by Wolfgang
    There is this well-known problem that browsers don't put Ajax request in the request history and cause problems for bookmarkability, forward/back button, and refresh. Also, there is a common solution to that problem that appends the hash symbol # and some additional parameters to the URL by using Javascript window.location.hash = .... In this question a basic solution to this problem is proposed, for example. = My question is if such a solution has been integrated in Wicket, so that existing Wicket facilities are used and no custom Javascript had to be added. If not, I'd be interested in how this could be done. Such a solution had to answer the question what should be put after the hash. I like the idea that the bookmarkable URL that (in the non-Ajax case) were in front of the hash could be put behind it. For example, when you are on http://host/catalog and reach a page http://host/product/xyz the Ajax-triggered URL would be http://host/catalog#/product/xyz. Then it would be easy to write an onload handler that checks for the # and does a redirect to the URL after the hash.

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