Search Results

Search found 56327 results on 2254 pages for 'console application'.

Page 741/2254 | < Previous Page | 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748  | Next Page >

• How to avoid mouse move on Touch

  - by VirtualBlackFox

  I have a WPF application that is capable of being used both with a mouse and using Touch. I disable all windows "enhancements" to just have touch events : Stylus.IsPressAndHoldEnabled="False" Stylus.IsTapFeedbackEnabled="False" Stylus.IsTouchFeedbackEnabled="False" Stylus.IsFlicksEnabled="False" The result is that a click behave like I want except on two points : The small "touch" cursor (little white star) appears where clicked an when dragging. Completely useless as the user finger is already at this location no feedback is required (Except my element potentially changing color if actionable). Elements stay in the "Hover" state after the movement / Click ends. Both are the consequences of the fact that while windows transmit correctly touch events, he still move the mouse to the last main-touch-event. I don't want windows to move the mouse at all when I use touch inside my application. Is there a way to completely avoid that? Notes: Handling touch events change nothing to this. Using SetCursorPos to move the mouse away make the cursor blink and isn't really user-friendly. Disabling the touch panel to act as an input device completely disable all events (And I also prefer an application-local solution, not system wide). I don't care if the solution involve COM/PInvoke or is provided in C/C++ i'll translate. If it is necessary to patch/hook some windows dlls so be it, the software will run on a dedicated device anyway. I'm investigating the surface SDK but I doubt that it'll show any solution. As a surface is a pure-touch device there is no risk of bad interaction with the mouse.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to install into Program Files with limited privileges?

  - by Marek

  I have an application that will be deployed as MSI package (authored in WiX). I am deciding whether to specify elevated or limited privileges as required for the installer. The application does not include anything requiring elevated privileges besides the default install location, which is under Program Files. Now the problem: If I specify elevated privileges, then the user is prompted by UAC for administrator password during the installation. This is not required and prevents non-admin users from installing. If I specify limited privileges, then the user is presented with a dialog to select install location with Program Files being default. In case they do not change the install location (95 % of end users probably won't), then the installer will fail with a message that they should contact the Administrator or run the application as administrator. If they launch the installer as Administrator then they can install into Program Files without problem - but most of the users won't probably know how to launch an installer as administrator. I can potentially set the default install location to e.g. C:\Company name\Program\, but this seems nonstandard to me and majority of users will not probably like this (they are probably used to installing into Program Files). How do you solve this problem with installing applications under limited user accounts?

  Read the article

• Publishing WCF .NET 3.5 to IIS 5.1

  - by Adam

  I've been developing a WCF web service using .NET 3.5 with IIS7 and it works perfectly on my local computer. I tried publishing it to a server running IIS 5.1 and even though I can view the WSDL in my browser, the client application doesn't seem to be connecting to it correctly. I launched a packet sniffing app (Charles Proxy) and the response for the first message comes back to the client empty (0 bytes). Every message after the first one times out. The WCF service is part of a larger application that uses ASP .NET 3.5. That application has been working fine on IIS 5.1 for awhile now so I think it's something specific to WCF. I also tried throwing an exception in the SVC file to see if it made it that far and the exception never got thrown so I have a feeling it's something more low level that's not working. Any thoughts? Is there anything I need to install on the IIS5 server? If so how am I still able to view the WSDL in my browser?

  Read the article

• How to make write operation idempotent?

  - by Morgan Cheng

  I'm reading article about recently release Gizzard sharding framework by twitter(http://engineering.twitter.com/2010/04/introducing-gizzard-framework-for.html). It mentions that all write operations must be idempotent to make sure high reliability. According to wikipedia, "Idempotent operations are operations that can be applied multiple times without changing the result." But, IMHO, in Gazzard case, idempotent write operation should be operations that sequence doesn't matter. Now, my question is: How to make write operation idempotent? The only thing I can image is to have a version number attached to each write. For example, in blog system. Each blog must have a $blog_id and $content. In application level, we always write a blog content like this write($blog_id, $content, $version). The $version is determined to be unique in application level. So, if application first try to set one blog to "Hello world" and second want it to be "Goodbye", the write is idempotent. We have such two write operations: write($blog_id, "Hello world", 1); write($blog_id, "Goodbye", 2); These two operations are supposed to changed two different records in DB. So, no matter how many times and what sequence these two operations executed, the results are same. This is just my understanding. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

  Read the article

• Why can't I open a JBoss vfs:/ URL?

  - by skiphoppy

  We are upgrading our application from JBoss 4 to JBoss 6. A couple of pieces of our application get delivered to the client in an unusual way: jars are looked up inside of our application and sent to the client from a servlet, where the client extracts them in order to run certain support functions. In JBoss 4 we would look these jars up with the classloader and find a jar:// URL which would be used to read the jar and send its contents to the client. In JBoss 6 when we perform the lookup we get a vfs:/ URL. I understand that this is from the org.jboss.vfs package. Unfortunately when I call openStream() on this URL and read from the stream, I immediately get an EOF (read() returns -1). What gives? Why can't I read the resource this URL refers to? I've tried trying to access the underlying VFS packages to open the file through the JBoss VFS API, but most of the API appears to be private, and I couldn't find a routine to translate from a vfs:/ URL to a VFS VirtualFile object, so I couldn't get anywhere. I can try to find the file on disk within JBoss, but that approach sounds very failure prone on upgrade. Our old approach was to use Java Web Start to distribute the jars to the client and then look them up within Java Web Start's cache to extract them. But that broke on every minor upgrade of Java because the layout of the cache changed.

  Read the article

• C# -Fluent interface implementation Help

  - by nettguy

  I am implementing the following piece of code using Fluent Interface design in C# 3.0. The code is working fine. public interface ITrainable { ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill); } public interface ISearchSkill { ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer emp,string[] _skills); } public abstract class Person { public Person(){} protected string Name { get; set; } } public class SoftwareEngineer:Person,ITrainable { protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } public SoftwareEngineer() { } public SoftwareEngineer(string name) { Name=name; skillSet = new List<string>(); } public ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill) { skillSet.Add(_skill); return this; } } public class HRExecutive :Person,ISearchSkill { SoftwareEngineer _employee; public HRExecutive() { _employee=new SoftwareEngineer(); } public ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer _employee,string[] skills) { this._employee= _employee; foreach (string _skill in skills) { if (_employee.skillSet.Contains(_skill)) { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is trained on " + _skill); } else { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is not trained on " + _skill); } } return this; } } Execution SoftwareEngineer emp1 = new SoftwareEngineer("JonSkeet"); emp1.AddSkill("java").AddSkill("C#").AddSkill("F#"); HRExecutive hr = new HRExecutive(); hr.SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "java", "C#" }). SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "Oracle", "F#" }); Question : I don't want the skillSet of SoftwareEngineer being accessed by some XXX class.It could be accessed by limited classes.But protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } is the only option (i think) i can declare in order to access the skillSet from HRExecutive.If i do so other XXX class can still access it. How to rewrite the code to prevent it?

  Read the article

• Reference a GNU C DLL built in GCC against Cygwin, from C#/NET

  - by Dale Halliwell

  Here is what I want: I have a huge legacy C/C++ codebase written for POSIX, including some very POSIX specific stuff like pthreads. This can be compiled on Cygwin/GCC and run as an executable under Windows with the Cygwin DLL. What I would like to do is build the codebase itself into a Windows DLL that I can then reference from C# and write a wrapper around it to access some parts of it programatically. I have tried this approach with the very simple "hello world" example at http://www.cygwin.com/cygwin-ug-net/dll.html and it doesn't seem to work. #include <stdio.h> extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int hello(); int hello() { printf ("Hello World!\n"); return 42; } I believe I should be able to reference a DLL built with the above code in C# using something like: [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr LoadLibrary(string dllToLoad); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr GetProcAddress(IntPtr hModule, string procedureName); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern bool FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private delegate int hello(); static void Main(string[] args) { var path = Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "helloworld.dll"); IntPtr pDll = LoadLibrary(path); IntPtr pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll, "hello"); hello hello = (hello)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer( pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(hello)); int theResult = hello(); Console.WriteLine(theResult.ToString()); bool result = FreeLibrary(pDll); Console.ReadKey(); } But this approach doesn't seem to work. LoadLibrary returns null. It can find the DLL (helloworld.dll), it is just like it can't load it or find the exported function. I am sure that if I get this basic case working I can reference the rest of my codebase in this way. Any suggestions or pointers, or does anyone know if what I want is even possible? Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to round-off hours based on Minutes(hours+0 if min<30, hours+1 otherwise) ?

  - by infant programmer

  I need to round-off the hours based on the minutes in a DateTime variable. The condition is: if minutes are less than 30, then minutes must be set to zero and no changes to hours, else if minutes =30, then hours must be set to hours+1 and minutes are again set to zero. Seconds are ignored. example: 11/08/2008 04:30:49 should become 11/08/2008 05:00:00 and 11/08/2008 04:29:49 should become 11/08/2008 04:00:00 I have written code which works perfectly fine, but just wanted to know a better method if could be written and also would appreciate alternative method(s). string date1 = "11/08/2008 04:30:49"; DateTime startTime; DateTime.TryParseExact(date1, "MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss", null, System.Globalization.DateTimeStyles.None, out startTime); if (Convert.ToInt32((startTime.Minute.ToString())) > 29) { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); startTime = startTime.Add(TimeSpan.Parse("01:00:00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); } else { startTime = DateTime.Parse(string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2} {3}:{4}:{5}", startTime.Month.ToString(), startTime.Day.ToString(), startTime.Year.ToString(), startTime.Hour.ToString(), "00", "00")); Console.WriteLine("startTime is :: {0}", startTime.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss")); }

  Read the article

• C# Homework - control structures (for, if)

  - by Freakingout

  I got a homework assignment today: "Create a program that calculates out how many ways you can add three numbers so that they equal 1000." I think this code should work, but it doesn't write out anything. using System; namespace ConsoleApp02 { class Program { public static void Main(string[] args) { for(int a = 0; a < 1000; a++) { for(int b = 0; b < 1000; b++) { for(int c = 0; c < 1000; c++) { for(int puls = a + b + c; puls < 1000; puls++) { if(puls == 1000) { Console.WriteLine("{0} + {1} + {2} = 1000", a, b, c); } } } } } Console.ReadKey(true); } } } What am I doing wrong? Any tips or solution?

  Read the article

• Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

  - by sevennineteen

  This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

  Read the article

• Need help regarding lwuit

  - by rajiv

  Hi, I have project, already developed using canvas and lib used is LCDUI. It's for nokia keyboard supported devices. Now I want to incorporate same application for touch devices. I have used touch methods like pointerpressed, etc. For normal functionality that worked pretty well. But it creates problem in commands. My application is in fullscreen mode. Commands I have created using user defined menu list. Probles is that I can not directly identify that which command has been clicked. Setting coordinates for every command is not thr feasible solution for me. I come across the new lib LWUIT, but i found out that it supports only forms(Can't we use on canvas?). and integrating LCDUI and LWUIT is also not possible(please give suggestion that can we use both in same application?). Is it possible to create form under canvas itself? Any other lib support available? thank you.

  Read the article

• JSF, writeAttribute("value", str, null) fails with strings obtained through ValueExpression.getValue

  - by Roma

  Hello, I'm having a somewhat weird problem with custom JSF component. Here's my renderer code: public class Test extends Renderer { public void encodeBegin(final FacesContext context, final UIComponent component) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.startElement("textarea", component); String clientId = component.getClientId(context); if (clientId != null) writer.writeAttribute("name", clientId, null); ValueExpression exp = component.getValueExpression("value"); if (exp != null && exp.getValue(context.getELContext()) != null) { String val = (String) exp.getValue(context.getELContext()); System.out.println("Value: " + val); writer.writeAttribute("value", val, null); } writer.endElement("textarea"); writer.flush(); } } The code generates: <textarea name="j_id2:j_id12:j_id19" value=""></textarea> Property binding contains "test" and as it should be, "Value: test" is successfully printed to console. Now, if I change the code to: public void encodeBegin(final FacesContext context, final UIComponent component) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.startElement("textarea", component); String clientId = component.getClientId(context); if (clientId != null) writer.writeAttribute("name", clientId, null); ValueExpression exp = component.getValueExpression("value"); if (exp != null && exp.getValue(context.getELContext()) != null) { String val = (String) exp.getValue(context.getELContext()); String str = "new string"; System.out.println("Value1: " + val + ", Value2: " + str); writer.writeAttribute("value", str, null); } writer.endElement("textarea"); writer.flush(); } generated html is: <textarea name="j_id2:j_id12:j_id19" value="new string"></textarea> and console output is "Value1: test, Value2: new string" What's going on here? This doesn't make sense. Why would writeAttribute differentiate between the two strings? Additional info: The component extends UIComponentBase I am using it with facelets

  Read the article

• Formatting the output of a custom tool so I can double click an error in Visual Studio and the file opens

  - by Ben Scott

  I've written a command line tool that preprocesses a number of files then compiles them using CodeDom. The tool writes a copyright notice and some progress text to the standard output, then writes any errors from the compilation step using the following format: foreach (var err in results.Errors) { // err is CompilerError var filename = "Path\To\input_file.xprt"; Console.WriteLine(string.Format( "{0} ({1},{2}): {3}{4} ({5})", filename, err.Line, err.Column, err.IsWarning ? "" : "ERROR: ", err.ErrorText, err.ErrorNumber)); } It then writes the number of errors, like "14 errors". This is an example of how the error appears in the console: Path\To\input_file.xrpt (73,28): ERROR: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, or property 'Some.Object.get' (CS0120) When I run this as a custom tool in VS2008 (by calling it in the post-build event command line of one of my project's assemblies), the errors appear nicely formatted in the Error List, with the correct text in each column. When I roll over the filename the fully qualified path pops up. The line and column are different to the source file because of the preprocessing which is fine. The only thing that stands out is that the Project given in the list is the one that has the post-build event. The problem is that when I double click an error, nothing happens. I would have expected the file to open in the editor. I'm vaugely aware of the Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.Interop namespace but I think it should be possible just by writing to the standard output.

  Read the article

• AIR File.resolvePath won't work anymore

  - by Palleas

  Hi all, I'm having a very strange issue, it looks like my application can't create file anymore. It works w/ directories, but the so-many-times-used resolvePath() methods doesn't. Here is what I do : var databaseFileContent : File = new File(File.desktopDirectory.nativePath + "/testing"); databaseFileContent.createDirectory(); databaseFileContent.resolvePath("test"); (Here I'm trying on desktop but that's the same w/ applicationStorageDirectory) When I execute this, it works only for the "testing" folder which is actually created, but my file isn't. I tried to create another application, doing this : trace(File.desktopDirectory.resolvePath("maiswtf.db").exists); trace(File.applicationStorageDirectory.resolvePath("wtf.db").exists); Both are displaying "false". Am I missing something here? I have another application with this code : var databaseFileContent : File = File.applicationStorageDirectory.resolvePath(File.separator + "sitra.db"); When I run this one, it works perfectly! My file is created at /sitra.db! Any hints? I thinks I'm going mad :/ Thanks!

  Read the article

• RPC command to initiate a software install

  - by ericmayo

  I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

  Read the article

• Need some advice before starting coding my next iPhone app...

  - by Tom

  Hi! I need some advice about how should I start coding something. So here is the context: I've just finished building a CMS that manage a SQLite database. My application will be picking this database and use its content as the application's content. So far it's pretty simple. The application will have a navigation that will browse through various workflows, and once at the end workflow, it'll show contents from the database. A consultation kind a thing, example: Liquids - Juice - Orange Juice - Informations about Orange Juice. For my SQLite transactions, so far I believe I'll be using fmdb. It looks like a great wrapper. Here's a simple schema from one of the database: Workflow: id: { type: integer(3), primary: true, autoincrement: true } workflow_id: { type: integer(1) } name: { type: string(255) } That table's rows will be my navigations. Do you believe I should use a navigation controller? If so, then how could I generate the navigation tree from it? I have a good working knowledge of Objective-C and Foundation framework, but never went too far with it so that is why I'm asking before starting in the wrong direction :) Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• C# Linq to SQL connection string (newbie)

  - by Chris'o

  i am a new linq to sql learner and this is my very first attempt to create a data viewer program. The idea is simple, i'd like to create a software that is able to view content of a table in a database. That's it. I got an early problem here already and i have seen many tutes and articles online but I still cant fix the bug. Here is my code: static void Main(string[] args) { string cs = "Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=somedb;Integrated Security=SSPI;"; var db = new DataClasses1DataContext(cs); db.Connection.Open(); foreach (var b in db.Mapping.GetTables()) Console.WriteLine(b.TableName); Console.ReadKey(true); } When I tried to check db.connection.equals(null); it returns false, so i thought i have connected successfully to the database since there is no error at all. But the code above doesn't print anything out to the screen. I kind of lost and don't know what's going on here. Does anyone know what is going wrong here?

  Read the article

• Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

  - by Oded

  I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

  Read the article

• linq to xml enumerating over descendants

  - by gh9

  Hi trying to write a simple linq query from a tutorial I read. But i cannot seem to get it to work. I am trying to display both the address in the attached xml document, but can only display the first one. Can someone help me figure out why both aren't being printed. Thank you very much <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Emails> <Email group="FooBar"> <Subject>Test subject</Subject> <Content>Test Content</Content> <EmailTo> <Address>[email protected]</Address> <Address>[email protected]</Address> </EmailTo> </Email> </Emails> Dim steve = (From email In emailList.Descendants("Email") _ Where (email.Attribute("group").Value.Equals("FooBar")) _ Select content = email.Element("EmailTo").Descendants("Address")).ToList() If Not steve Is Nothing Then For Each addr In steve Console.WriteLine(addr.Value) Next Console.ReadLine() End If

  Read the article

• Why does this tooltip appear *below* a transclucent form?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I'm testing on an XP system with .NET 3.5. If you don't see this problem on your system, let me know what operating system and version of .NET you have. I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

  Read the article

• Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

  - by mannish

  I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• SSIS String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated.

  - by Subbarao

  When I run SSIS package from BIDS it runs fine without any error / problem. When I try to call it through a ASP.NET website I get the following error - "String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated." I checked all the columns / data to see if anything is exceeding the limit, everything is fine. I can run the package through command line using dtexec C:dtexec /f "C:\temp\MyTempPackage.dtsx", it executes without any problem . The problem is when I try to run it through ASP.NET. The following is the code that I am trying to use - //DTS Runtime Application Application app = new Application(); //DTS Package Package package = app.LoadPackage(packagePath, null); //Execute and Get the result DTSExecResult result = package.Execute(); I am making a call to a webservice from asp.net which has the above code. Both the webservice and website have identity impersonation enabled. I have identity enabled in my web.config for this <identity impersonate="true" userName="MyUserName" password="MyPassword"/> This problem is only when I am trying to import a Excel file (.xlsx) when I import a .txt file everything is fine. Excel Import blew up in both 32bit and 64bit enviornments. Help on how to make this to work is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Updating a field in a record dyanamically in extjs

  - by Daemon

  Scenario I want to update the column data of particular record in grid having store with static data. Here is my store: : : extend : 'Ext.data.Store', model : 'MyModel', autoLoad:true, proxy: { type: 'ajax', url:'app/data/data.json', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'users' } }, My data.json { 'users': [ { QMgrStatus:"active", QMgrName: 'R01QN00_LQYV', ChannelStatus:'active', ChannelName : 'LQYV.L.CLNT', MxConn: 50 } ] } What I am doing to update the record : var grid = Ext.getCmp('MyGrid'); var store = Ext.getStore('Mystore'); store.each(function(record,idx){ val = record.get('ChannelName'); if(val == "LQYV.L.CLNT"){ record.set('ChannelStatus','inactive'); record.commit(); } }); console.log(store); grid.getView().refresh(); MY PROBLEM I am getting the record updated over here.It is not getting reflected in my grid panel.The grid is using the same old store(static).Is the problem of static data? Or am I missing something or going somewhere wrong? Please help me out with this issue.Thanks a lot. MY EDIT I am tryng to color code the column based on the status.But here I am always getting the status="active" even though I am updating the store. What I am trying to do in my grid { xtype : 'grid', itemId : 'InterfaceQueueGrid', id :'MyGrid', store : 'Mytore', height : 216, width : 600, columns : [ { text: 'QueueMgr Status', dataIndex: 'QMgrStatus' , width:80 }, { text: 'Queue Manager \n Name', dataIndex: 'QMgrName' , width: 138}, { text: 'Channel Status',dataIndex: 'ChannelStatus' , width: 78,align:'center', renderer: function(value, meta, record) { var val = record.get('ChannelStatus'); console.log(val); // Here I am always getting status="active". if (val == 'inactive') { return '<img src="redIcon.png"/>'; }else if (val == 'active') { return '<img src="greenIcon.png"/>'; } } }, { text: 'Channel Name', align:'center', dataIndex: 'ChannelName', width: 80} { text: 'Max Connections', align:'center', dataIndex: 'MxConn', width: 80} ] }

  Read the article

• Program freezing when syncing a ldap database (100+ entries added)

  - by djerry

  Hey guys, I'm updating a ldap database. I need to add a list of users to the db. I've written a simple foreach loop. There are about 180 users i need to add, but at the 128th user, the program freezes. I know ldap is really used for querying (fast), and that adding and modifying entries will not go as smooth as a search query, but is it normal that the program freezes while doing this? I'll post some code just in case. public static void SyncLDAPWithMySql(Novell.Directory.Ldap.LdapConnection _conn) { List<User> users = GetUsers(); int iteller = 0; foreach (User user in users) { if (!UserAlreadyInLdap(user, _conn)) { TelUser teluser = new TelUser(); teluser.Telephone = user.E164; teluser.Uid = user.E164; teluser.Company = "/"; teluser.Dn = ""; teluser.Name = "/"; teluser.DisplayName = "/"; teluser.FirstName = "/"; TelephoneDA.InsertUser(_conn, teluser ); } Console.WriteLine(iteller + " : " + user.E164); iteller++; } } private static bool UserAlreadyInLdap(User user, Novell.Directory.Ldap.LdapConnection _conn) { List<TelUser> users = TelephoneDA.GetAllEntries(_conn); foreach (TelUser teluser in users) { if (teluser.Telephone.Equals(user.E164)) return true; } return false; } public static int InsertUser(LdapConnection conn, TelUser user) { int iResponse = IsTelNumberUnique(conn, user.Dn, user.Telephone); if (iResponse == 0) { LdapAttributeSet attrSet = MakeAttSet(user); string dnForPhonebook = configurationManager.AppSettings.Get("phonebookDn"); LdapEntry ent = new LdapEntry("uid=" + user.Uid + "," + dnforPhonebook, attrSet); try { conn.Add(ent); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } return iResponse; } Am i adding too many entries at a time??? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Strategies for Synchronizing Data Between a Rails App and iPhone App

  - by jessecurry

  I've written many iPhone Applications that have pulled data from web services and I've worked on synchronizing data between an iPhone App and a Web Application, but I've always felt that there is probably a better way to handle the synchronization. I'd like to know what strategies you have used to synchronize data between your iPhone(read: mobile) Apps and your Rails(read: web) Applications. Are there any strategies that scale particularly well? How have you dealt with large amounts of data? (Do you use paged responses?) How do you make sure that data is not overwritten? Is there a reason to avoid Ruby on Rails? if so, can you suggest an alternative? What is better about the alternative? What strategies have failed? Why do you believe that those strategies failed? I would like to be able to keep all of the data modifications on the server, but the particular application I am about to start work on will need the ability to operate while disconnected from the network. The user will be able to update data on the mobile device and update data through the web application. When the user's mobile device connects to the server any local changes will be pushed to the server.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748  | Next Page >