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• Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

  - by Kevin Buchan

  Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

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• Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

  - by TampaRich

  Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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• Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

  - by evanmortland

  Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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• C#: Passing data to forms UI using BeginInvoke

  - by Bi

  Hi I am a C# newbie and have a class that needs to pass row information to a grid in the windows form. What is the best way to do it? I have put in some example code for better understanding. Thanks. public class GUIController { private My_Main myWindow; public GUIController( My_Main window ) { myWindow = window; } public void UpdateProducts( List<myProduct> newList ) { object[] row = new object[3]; foreach (myProduct product in newList) { row[0] = product.Name; row[1] = product.Status; row[2] = product.Day; //HOW DO I USE BeginInvoke HERE? } } } And the form class below: public class My_Main : Form { //HOW DO I GO ABOUT USING THIS DELEGATE? public delegate void ProductDelegate( string[] row ); public static My_Main theWindow = null; static void Main( ) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); theWindow = new My_Main(); Application.Run(theWindow); } private void My_Main_Load( object sender, EventArgs e ) { /// Create GUIController and pass the window object gui = new GUIController( this ); } public void PopulateGrid( string[] row ) { ProductsGrid.Rows.Add(row); ProductsGrid.Update(); } } Thanks!

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• Error Expected Loop VBScript

  - by Yoko21

  I have a script that opens up an excel file if the password provided is correct. If its wrong, it prompts a message. It works perfectly when I add a loop at the end. However, the problem is whenever the password is wrong the script won't stop asking for the password because of the loop. What I want is the script to quit/close if the password is wrong. I tried to remove the loop and replaced it with "wscript.quit" but it always prompts the message "expected loop". Here is the code I made. password = "pass" do ask=inputbox ("Please enter password:","DProject") select case ask case password answer=true Set xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") xl.Application.Workbooks.Open "C:\Users\test1\Desktop\test.xlsx" xl.Application.Visible = True Set xl = Nothing wscript.quit end select answer=false x=msgbox("Password incorrect... Aborting") loop until answer=true Is it possible to put a message like that counts when aborting. like "Aborting in 3.... 2... 1".

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• Qt: QStackedWidget solution

  - by Martin

  I'm building a Qt application that have about 30 different views (QWidgets). My idea is to use a QStackedWidget to make it easy to switch between the different views in the application. I have two different solutions of how to implement this and use as little memory as possible when the user navigates through the application. Solution 1: Everytime I need to show a view I check if it is already in the stack. (The user might open the same view many times, maybe a view showing an item from a database). If the view is in the stack already it doesn't need to be created again and I can just show the view. The good thing with this solution is that I reuse the views (widgets) so they only need to be created once. This is good as the UI and other stuff should look the same everytime the user show a view, so why not reuse it? The problem with this solution is that every view has childrens. Maybe an object, a QList with objects or other things. A good thing with Qt is that you can use the parent-children mechanism so that the children will be deleted when the parent is deleted. As I never delete the parent (view) I need to handle this myself as the children might need to be deleted from different times when the view is shown. (Maybe the view show a list with objects and the list should be updated from a database each time the view is shown.) Solution 2: Everytime I need to show a QWidget I create a new one and show it. When it is not shown anymore, I delete it from memory. This is a quite easy solution. And as I delete the views when they are not shown both the view and it's children should be deleted from memory so it shouldn't increase memory, am I right? Which one of the solutions do you recommend?

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• [iPhone] Play video not in full screen mode

  - by Kyo

  Hello, First, excuse my english :) I've read on apple developer website that video playback provides by the framework supports only full screen mode. I will need to develop an application where video can be played in reduce screen mode. I've see that Orange TV make something which looks like what i need to do. http://img218.imageshack.us/img218/1228/tvplayerorange.jpg The application is available on app store but you need to have a subscription to test this application. Whatever, to resume it, we can see video (tv stream video) in a reduce mode and if we click on the screen it switch to a full screen mode. So my question, what i want to do is possible (Orange TV made it) but i wonder the difficulty to make it. It seems that I have to make a video player. If it take a bunch of time, I tkink I will use Media Player Framework of iPhone even isn't the optimal solution for me. Feel free to ask me more details ;) Thank you for your answers.

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• How can I create a .jar file?

  - by Roman

  In the tutorial I found out that jar files can be created in the following way: jar cf jar-file input-file(s) However, it was not clear what are the input-file(s). Is that .java files or .class files? From the examples on the same page I can assume that should be .class files. But now it is not clear which .class files should I put there. After the compilation of .java files I have a lot of .class files. One of the reason of that is that I have a lot files like that: GameWindow$2$10class, GameWindow$2$7.class and so on. Should I include all of them into the command line for the creation of the .jar file? To run my application I use java Game. So, my be I need to use only Game.class file when I create a .jar file? On the other hand other class files corresponds to classes used by the application. My software use external libraries (during compilation I specify .jar files of these libraries). Will .jar file of my application be able to run on the computer which does not contain the .jar file of used library?

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• finding the maximum in series

  - by peril brain

  I need to know a code that will automatically:- search a specific word in excel notes it row or column number (depends on data arrangement) searches numerical type values in the respective row or column with that numeric value(suppose a[7][0]or a[0][7]) it compares all other values of respective row or column(ie. a[i][0] or a[0][i]) sets that value to the highest value only if IT HAS GOT NO FORMULA FOR DERIVATION i know most of coding but at a few places i got myself stuck... i'm writing a part of my program upto which i know: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; using Microsoft.Office.Interop; using Excel = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel; Excel.Application oExcelApp; namespace a{ class b{ static void main(){ try { oExcelApp = (Excel.Application)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.GetActiveObject("Excel.Application"); ; if(oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook != null) {Excel.Workbook xlwkbook = (Excel.Workbook)oExcelApp.ActiveWorkbook; Excel.Worksheet ws = (Excel.Worksheet)xlwkbook.ActiveSheet; Excel.Range rn; rn = ws.Cells.Find("maximum", Type.Missing, Excel.XlFindLookIn.xlValues, Excel.XlLookAt.xlPart,Excel.XlSearchOrder.xlByRows, Excel.XlSearchDirection.xlNext, false, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); }}} now ahead of this i only know tat i have to use cell.value2 ,cell.hasformula methods..... & no more idea can any one help me with this..

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• Asynchronously get user data in facebook tab?

  - by Kristoffer Nolgren

  Using the php sdk, I check if a user inside a tab likes the corresponding page. If i put the following code inside index.php and use that page as my page-tab-url, <?php require_once("facebook/facebook.php"); // Create our application instance // (replace this with your appId and secret). $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '1399475990283166', 'secret' => 'mysercret', 'cookie' => true )); $signed_request = $facebook->getSignedRequest(); echo $signed_request['page']['liked']; ?> it outputs '1'. I would like to achieve this asynchronously instead, so I put the php in a separate file and try to access it using ajax instead $http.post('/facebook/likes.php'). success(function(data){ console.log(data); }).error(function(data){ console.log(data); } ); This sample is using angular, but what javascript library i'm using probably doesn't matter. When I access the info with javascript Facebook doesn't seem to get the info that I liked the page. Adding a print_r($facebook); on the page I'm retreiving the same values as if i'm not in a facebook-tab: ( [sharedSessionID:protected] => [appId:protected] => 1399475990283166 [appSecret:protected] => 679fb0ab947c2b98e818f9240bc793da [user:protected] => [signedRequest:protected] => [state:protected] => [accessToken:protected] => [fileUploadSupport:protected] => [trustForwarded:protected] => ) Can I access theese values asynchronosly somehow?

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• ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant.

  - by Water Cooler v2

  What does the statement mean? From here ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant. 1) Does it mean that the following can not be done. public class SomeClass<R, A>: IVariant<R, A> { public virtual R DoSomething( ref A args ) { return null; } } 2) Or does it mean I cannot have the following. public delegate R Reader<out R, in A>(A arg, string s); public static void AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref Reader<object, Peon> pReader) { pReader = ReadFromPeon; } static object ReadFromPeon(Peon p, string propertyName) { return p.GetType().GetField(propertyName).GetValue(p); } static Reader<object, Peon> pReader; static void Main(string[] args) { AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref pReader); bCanReadWrite = (bool)pReader(peon, "CanReadWrite"); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } I tried (2) and it worked.

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• How with lambda function in MVC3

  - by doogdeb

  I have a model which contains view models for each view. This model is held in session and is initialised when application starts. I need to be able to populate a field from one view model with the value from another so have used a lambda function. Below is my model. I am using a lambda so that when I get Test2.MyProperty it will use the FunctionTestProperty to retrieve the value from Test1.TestProperty. public class Model { public Model() { Test1 = new Test1() Test2 = new Test2(FunctionTestProperty () => Test1.TestProperty) } } public class Test1 { public string TestProperty { get; set; } } public class Test2 { public Test2() : this (() => string.Empty) {} public Test2(Func<string> functionTestProperty) { FunctionTestProperty = functionTestProperty; } public Func<string> FunctionTestProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty { get{ return FunctionTestProperty() ?? string.Empty; } } } This works perfectly when I first run the application and navigate from Test1 to Test2; I can see that when I get the value for MyProperty it calls back to Model constructor and retrieves the Test1.TestProperty value. However when I then submit the form (Test2) it calls the default constructor which sets it to string.Empty. So if I go back to Test1 and back to Test2 again it always then calls the Test2 default constructor. Does anyone know why this works when first running the application but not after the view is submitted, or if I have made an obvious mistake?

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• Does RazorEngine require MVC3 to be installed?

  - by tkha007

  I am working on a web project that uses MVC2. I decided to try out RazorEngine to do some e-mail templating. This appeared to work fine when I was protyping using an MVC2 project so I assumed that RazorEngine will work fine for my e-mail templating solution. What I had forgotten at the time was that I actually had MVC3 installed on my local development machine. After deploying the project on a pre-test server I get the following error in the logs when the application attempts to do anything with RazorEngine: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' at RazorEngine.Compilation.DefaultCompilerServiceFactory.CreateCompilerService(Language language) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplateType(String razorTemplate, Type modelType) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplate[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Razor.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at System.Dynamic.UpdateDelegates.UpdateAndExecute3[T0,T1,T2,TRet](CallSite site, T0 arg0, T1 arg1, T2 arg2) at Persistence.Utility.RazorEngineHelper.Parse(String templateName, Object model) in The fact that it can't find 'System.Web.Razor' means that this DLL does not exist on the deployed server. The only difference I can think of between the deployment server and my local dev machine is that the deployment server does not have MVC3 installed but I may be mistaken because the deployment server is not something I normally control and as such I don't have a lot of information about it. It is meant to host this particular application so there have been previous deployments of this application to this server. This is the first time I'm making a deployment with RazorEngine as a dependency.

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• Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

  - by Will

  I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

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• How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

  - by Quigrim

  Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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• What is the best way of doing this? (WCF 4)

  - by Jason Porter

  I have a multith-threaded, continusly running application that connects with multiple devices via TCP/IP sockets and exposes a set of WCF API's for controlling, monitoring and reporting on these devices. I would like to host this on IIS for the ususal reasons of not having to worry about re-starting the app in case of errors. So the issue I have is the main application running in parallel with the WCF Servies. To accomplish this I use the static AppInitialize class to start a thread which has the main applicaiton loop. The WCF services mostly report or control the shared objects with this thread. There are two problems that I see with this approach. One is that if the thread dies, IIS has no clue to re-start it so I have to play some tricks with some WCF calls. The other is that the backrgound thread deals with potentially thousands of devices that are connected permanently (typically a thread per socket connection). So I am not sure if IIS is buying me anything in this case. Another approach that I am thinking is to use WF for the main application that deals with the sockets and host both the WF and my WCF services in IIS using AppFabric. Since I have not use WF or AppFabric I am reaching out to see if this would be good approach or there are better alternative.

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• Very Urgent :How to start a new session if a user click on the new tab in IE or mozilla on websphere

  - by ha22109

  Hi, I have one "user search" portlet on the home page of one application running on websphere portal server.Which display the matching user records as per the search criteria filled in the search form.I have requirement to have a "back to search input" link on the results page which onclick should show the filled form on the input jsp. The issue which i am facing is if i open the application in two diff tab of same IE browser and start giving some search criteria and submit and same time search for some other input from other IE tab (in the same browser)and then go back to previous tab and click on "back to search input" link then instead of showing me the first input it will show me the imput which i entered in the next IE tab. I am setting and getting the bean(form bean) through portlet session.but in the two diff tab of same IE it will be the sae user session (and may be the same portlet session..) Please tell me solution for this. The one thing to be notice here is i can access this "user search" application even without doing login also.so it must be taking the default portlet session in this case. what wil happen once i login and then search,will it going to overwrite the portlet session and http session or howz is that?

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• What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

  - by int3

  I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

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• How do I simplify my code?

  - by Mitchell Skurnik

  I just finished creating my first major application in C#/Silverlight. In the end the total line count came out to over 12,000 lines of code. Considering this was a rewrite of a php/javascript application I created 2 years that was over 28,000 lines I am actually quite proud of my accomplishment. After reading many questions and answers here on stackoverflow and other sites online, I followed many posters advice: I created classes, procedures, and such for things that I would have a year ago copied and pasted; I created logic charts to figure out complex functions; making sure there are no crazy hidden characters (used tabs instead of spaces); and a few others things; place comments where necessary (I have lots of comments). My application consists of 4 tiles laid out horizontally that have user controls loaded into each slice. You can have between one and four slices loaded at anytime. If you have once slice loaded, the slice takes up the entire artboard...if you have 2 loaded, each take up half, 3 a third, 4 a quarter. Each one of these slices represent (for the sake of this example) a light control. Each slice has 3 slider controls in it. Now when I coded the functionality of the sliders, I used a switch/case statement inside of a public function that would run the command on the specified slice/slider. The made for some duplicate code but I saw no way around it as each slice was named differently. So I would do slice1.my.commands(); slice2.my.commands(); etc. My question to you is how do I clean up my code even futher? (Sadly I cannot post any of my code). Is there any way to take this repetion out of my code?

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• (closed) nodejs responding an image (via pipe and response.end()) leads into strange behaviour

  - by johannesboyne

  What the Problem was: I had 2 different writeStreams! If WriteStram#1 is closed, the second should be closed too and then it all should be piped... BUT node is asynchronious so while one has been closed, the other one hasn't. Even the stream.end() was called... well you always should wait for the close event! thx guys for your help! I am at my wit's end. I used this code to pipe an image to my clients: req.pipe(fs.createReadStream(__dirname+'/imgen/cached_images/' + link).pipe(res)) it does work but sometimes the image is not transferred completely. But no error is thrown neither on client side (browser) nor on server side (node.js). My second try was var img = fs.readFileSync(__dirname+'/imgen/cached_images/' + link); res.writeHead(200, { 'Content-Type' : 'image/png' }); res.end(img, 'binary'); but it leads to the same strange behaviour... Does anyone got a clue for me? Regards! (abstracted code...) var http = require('http'); http.createServer(function (req, res) { Imgen.generateNew( 'virtualtwins/www_leonardocampus_de/overview/28', 'www.leonardocampus.de', 'overview', '28', null, [], [], function (link) { fs.stat(__dirname+'/imgen/cached_images/' + link, function(err, file_info) { if (err) { console.log('err', err); } console.log('file info', file_info.size); res.writeHead(200, 'image/png'); fs.createReadStream(__dirname+'/imgen/cached_images/' + link).pipe(res); }); } ); }).listen(13337, '127.0.0.1'); Imgen.generateNew just creates a new file, saves it to the disk and gives back the path (link)

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• Where to create/keep secret files for license information/trials on Windows/Mac OS X/Linux?

  - by BastiBense

  I'm writing a commercial product which uses a simple registration mechanism and allows the user to use the application for a demo period before purchasing. My application must somewhere store the registration information (if entered) and/or the date of the first launch to calculate if the user is still within the demo/trail period. While I'm pretty much finished with the registration mechanism itself, I now have to find a good way to store the registration information on the user's disk. The most obvious idea would be to store the trial period in the preferences file, but since user tend to delete/tinker with those from time to time, it might be a good idea to keep the registration information in a separate, more hidden file. So here's my question: What is the best place/strategy to keep and create such hidden files on Windows, Mac OS X and Linux? Here is what came to my mind so far: Linux/Mac OS X Most Unix-like systems are rather locked down when it comes to places a user can write files to. In most cases this is only the /tmp directory and the user's home directory. I guess the easiest here is probably to create a file with a dot-prefix to make it less visible, then give it a name that won't make it obvious that it's associated with my application. Windows Probably much like Linux/Mac OS X - more recent Windows versions become more restrictive when it comes to file system permissions. Anyway, I'd like to hear your ideas and thoughs. Even better if you have already implemented something similar in the past. Thanks! Update For me the places for such files is more relevant than the discussion of the question if this way for copy protection is good or bad.

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• No result when Rally.data.WsapiDataStore lacks permissions

  - by user1195996

  I'm calling Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', params), and looking for results with the load event. I'm requesting a number of objects across programs that the user may or may not have read permission for. This works fine for queries where the user has permissions. But in the case where the user does not have permission and presumably gets zero results back, the load event does not seem to fire at all. I would expect it to fire with the unsuccessful flag or else to return with empty results. Since I don't know that the request has failed, my program waits and waits. How can I tell if a this request fails to return because of security? BTW, looking at the network stats, I believe all my requests get a "200 OK" status back. Here is the method I use to create the various data stores: _createDataStore: function(params) { this.openRequests++; var createParams = { model: params.type, autoLoad: true, // So I can later determine which query type it is, and which program requestType: params.requestType == undefined ? params.type : params.requestType, program: this.program, listeners: { load: this._onDataLoaded, scope: this }, filters: params.filters, pageSize: params.pageSize, fetch: params.fetch, context: { project: this.project, projectScopeUp: false, projectScopeDown: true }, pageSize: 1 // We only need the count }; console.log('_createDataStore', this.program, createParams.requestType); Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', createParams); }, And here is the _onDataLoaded method: _onDataLoaded: function(store, data, successB) { console.log('_onDataLoaded', this.program, successB); ... I only see this function called for those queries for which the account has permissions.

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• Google App Engine/GWT/Eclipse Plugin Newbie Question- how to autobuild client side resources?

  - by Dieter Hanover

  Hi there, I'm tinkering with the default GWT application generated by the Google Eclipse plugin when I click the Google "New Web Application Project" button in Eclipse 3.5. This will no doubt be familiar to many of you.. basically there is an h1 title stating "Web Application Starter Project," a text field, and a Send button. What I've found is that whenever I make changes to the client side resources, e.g. change the text on the Send button to "Submit" in the .java file, Eclipse does not appear to autobuild these resources. In fact I have to rebuild the entire project in order for these changes to be reflected in my browser. I do have "build automatically" selected in eclipse. I should state that this is my second GWT project, the first was almost entirely server side (restlet on GAE) and everything built automatically nicely. When I first tried this new project with updated client resources, on refreshing my browser, the browser stated "you may need to (re)compile your project." I'm not sure if this is relevant but I thought I'd mention it all the same. So what's going on? How do I get Eclipse/GWT to autobuild these client side resources? Cheers for any help you can offer! :-)

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• Calling an Overridden Method from a Parent-Class Constructor

  - by Vaibhav Bajpai

  I tried calling an overridden method from a constructor of a parent class and noticed different behavior across languages. C++ - echoes A.foo() class A{ public: A(){foo();} virtual void foo(){cout<<"A.foo()";} }; class B : public A{ public: B(){} void foo(){cout<<"B.foo()";} }; int main(){ B *b = new B(); } Java - echoes B.foo() class A{ public A(){foo();} public void foo(){System.out.println("A.foo()");} } class B extends A{ public void foo(){System.out.println("B.foo()");} } class Demo{ public static void main(String args[]){ B b = new B(); } } C# - echoes B.foo() class A{ public A(){foo();} public virtual void foo(){Console.WriteLine("A.foo()");} } class B : A{ public override void foo(){Console.WriteLine("B.foo()");} } class MainClass { public static void Main (string[] args) { B b = new B(); } } I realize that in C++ objects are created from top-most parent going down the hierarchy, so when the constructor calls the overridden method, B does not even exist, so it calls the A' version of the method. However, I am not sure why I am getting different behavior in Java and C#.

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• Initializing ExportFactory using MEF

  - by Riz

  Scenario Application has multiple parts. Each part is in separate dll and implements interface IFoo All such dlls are present in same directory (plugins) The application can instantiate multiple instances of each part Below is the code snippet for the interfaces, part(export) and the import. The problem I am running into is, the "factories" object is initialized with empty list. However, if I try container.Resolve(typeof(IEnumerable< IFoo )) I do get object with the part. But that doesn't serve my purpose (point 4). Can anyone point what I am doing wrong here? public interface IFoo { string Name { get; } } public interface IFooMeta { string CompType { get; } } Implementation of IFoo in separate Dll [ExportMetadata("CompType", "Foo1")] [Export(typeof(IFoo), RequiredCreationPolicy = CreationPolicy.NonShared))] public class Foo1 : IFoo { public string Name { get { return this.GetType().ToString(); } } } Main application that loads all the parts and instantiate them as needed class PartsManager { [ImportMany] private IEnumerable<ExportFactory<IFoo, IFooMeta>> factories; public PartsManager() { IContainer container = ConstructContainer(); factories = (IEnumerable<ExportFactory<IFoo, IFooMeta>>) container.Resolve(typeof(IEnumerable<ExportFactory<IFoo, IFooMeta>>)); } private static IContainer ConstructContainer() { var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog(@"C:\plugins\"); var builder = new ContainerBuilder(); builder.RegisterComposablePartCatalog(catalog); return builder.Build(); } public IFoo GetPart(string compType) { var matchingFactory = factories.FirstOrDefault( x => x.Metadata.CompType == compType); if (factories == null) { return null; } else { IFoo foo = matchingFactory.CreateExport().Value; return foo; } } }

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