Search Results

Search found 19878 results on 796 pages for 'multiple dispatch'.

Page 743/796 | < Previous Page | 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

    - by David Lively
    I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

    Read the article

  • python Socket.IO client for sending broadcast messages to TornadIO2 server

    - by Alp
    I am building a realtime web application. I want to be able to send broadcast messages from the server-side implementation of my python application. Here is the setup: socketio.js on the client-side TornadIO2 server as Socket.IO server python on the server-side (Django framework) I can succesfully send socket.io messages from the client to the server. The server handles these and can send a response. In the following i will describe how i did that. Current Setup and Code First, we need to define a Connection which handles socket.io events: class BaseConnection(tornadio2.SocketConnection): def on_message(self, message): pass # will be run if client uses socket.emit('connect', username) @event def connect(self, username): # send answer to client which will be handled by socket.on('log', function) self.emit('log', 'hello ' + username) Starting the server is done by a Django management custom method: class Command(BaseCommand): args = '' help = 'Starts the TornadIO2 server for handling socket.io connections' def handle(self, *args, **kwargs): autoreload.main(self.run, args, kwargs) def run(self, *args, **kwargs): port = settings.SOCKETIO_PORT router = tornadio2.TornadioRouter(BaseConnection) application = tornado.web.Application( router.urls, socket_io_port = port ) print 'Starting socket.io server on port %s' % port server = SocketServer(application) Very well, the server runs now. Let's add the client code: <script type="text/javascript"> var sio = io.connect('localhost:9000'); sio.on('connect', function(data) { console.log('connected'); sio.emit('connect', '{{ user.username }}'); }); sio.on('log', function(data) { console.log("log: " + data); }); </script> Obviously, {{ user.username }} will be replaced by the username of the currently logged in user, in this example the username is "alp". Now, every time the page gets refreshed, the console output is: connected log: hello alp Therefore, invoking messages and sending responses works. But now comes the tricky part. Problems The response "hello alp" is sent only to the invoker of the socket.io message. I want to broadcast a message to all connected clients, so that they can be informed in realtime if a new user joins the party (for example in a chat application). So, here are my questions: How can i send a broadcast message to all connected clients? How can i send a broadcast message to multiple connected clients that are subscribed on a specific channel? How can i send a broadcast message anywhere in my python code (outside of the BaseConnection class)? Would this require some sort of Socket.IO client for python or is this builtin with TornadIO2? All these broadcasts should be done in a reliable way, so i guess websockets are the best choice. But i am open to all good solutions.

    Read the article

  • Using OpenID as the only authentication method

    - by iconiK
    I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

    Read the article

  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

    Read the article

  • VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

    Read the article

  • TVirtualStringTree - resetting non-visual nodes and memory comsumption

    - by Remy Lebeau - TeamB
    I have an app that loads records from a binary log file and displays them in a virtual TListView. There are potentially millions of records in a file, and the display can be filtered by the user, so I do not load all of the records in memory at one time, and the ListView item indexes are not a 1-to-1 relation with the file record offsets (List item 1 may be file record 100, for instance). I use the ListView's OnDataHint event to load records for just the items the ListView is actually interested in. As the user scrolls around, the range specified by OnDataHint changes, allowing me to free records that are not in the new range, and allocate new records as needed. This works fine, speed is tolerable, and the memory footprint is very low. I am currently evaluating TVirtualStringTree as a replacement for the TListView, mainly because I want to add the ability to expand/collapse records that span multiple lines (I can fudge it with the TListView by incrementing/decrementing the item count dynamically, but this is not as straight forward as using a real tree). For the most part, I have been able to port the TListView logic and have everything work as I need. I notice that TVirtualStringTree's virtual paridigm is vastly different, though. It does not have the same kind of OnDataHint functionality that TListView does (I can use the OnScroll event to fake it, which allows my memory buffer logic to continue working), and I can use the OnInitializeNode event to associate nodes with records that are allocated. However, once a tree node is initialized, it sees that it remains initialized for the lifetime of the tree. That is not good for me. As the user scrolls around and I remove records from memory, I need to reset those non-visual nodes without removing them from the tree completely, or losing their expand/collapse states. When the user scrolls them back into view, I can re-allocate the records and re-initialize the nodes. Basically, I want to make TVirtualStringTree act as much like TListView as possible, as far as its virtualization is concerned. I have seen that TVirtualStringTree has a ResetNode() method, but I encounter various errors whenever I try to use it. I must be using it wrong. I also thought of just storing a data pointer inside each node to my record buffers, and I allocate and free memory, update those pointers accordingly. The end effect does not work so well, either. Worse, my largest test log file has ~5 million records in it. If I initialize the TVirtualStringTree with that many nodes at one time (when the log display is unfiltered), the tree's internal overhead for its nodes takes up a whopping 260MB of memory (without any records being allocated yet). Whereas with the TListView, loading the same log file and all the memory logic behind it, I can get away with using just a few MBs. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

    Read the article

  • Render a view as a string

    - by Dan Atkinson
    Hi all! I'm wanting to output two different views (one as a string that will be sent as an email), and the other the page displayed to a user. Is this possible in ASP.NET MVC beta? I've tried multiple examples: RenderPartial to String in ASP.NET MVC Beta If I use this example, I receive the "Cannot redirect after HTTP headers have been sent.". MVC Framework: Capturing the output of a view If I use this, I seem to be unable to do a redirectToAction, as it tries to render a view that may not exist. If I do return the view, it is completely messed up and doesn't look right at all. Does anyone have any ideas/solutions to these issues i have, or have any suggestions for better ones? Many thanks! Below is an example. What I'm trying to do is create the GetViewForEmail method: public ActionResult OrderResult(string ref) { //Get the order Order order = OrderService.GetOrder(ref); //The email helper would do the meat and veg by getting the view as a string //Pass the control name (OrderResultEmail) and the model (order) string emailView = GetViewForEmail("OrderResultEmail", order); //Email the order out EmailHelper(order, emailView); return View("OrderResult", order); } Accepted answer from Tim Scott (changed and formatted a little by me): public virtual string RenderViewToString( ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath, ViewDataDictionary viewData, TempDataDictionary tempData) { Stream filter = null; ViewPage viewPage = new ViewPage(); //Right, create our view viewPage.ViewContext = new ViewContext(controllerContext, new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath), viewData, tempData); //Get the response context, flush it and get the response filter. var response = viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response; response.Flush(); var oldFilter = response.Filter; try { //Put a new filter into the response filter = new MemoryStream(); response.Filter = filter; //Now render the view into the memorystream and flush the response viewPage.ViewContext.View.Render(viewPage.ViewContext, viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response.Output); response.Flush(); //Now read the rendered view. filter.Position = 0; var reader = new StreamReader(filter, response.ContentEncoding); return reader.ReadToEnd(); } finally { //Clean up. if (filter != null) { filter.Dispose(); } //Now replace the response filter response.Filter = oldFilter; } } Example usage Assuming a call from the controller to get the order confirmation email, passing the Site.Master location. string myString = RenderViewToString(this.ControllerContext, "~/Views/Order/OrderResultEmail.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/Site.Master", this.ViewData, this.TempData);

    Read the article

  • objective-c Add to/Edit .plist file

    - by Dave
    Does writeToFile:atomically, add data to an existing .plist? Is it possible to modify a value in a .plist ? SHould the app be recompiled to take effect the change? I have a custom .plist list in my app. The structure is as below: <array> <dict> <key>Title</key> <string>MyTitle</string> <key>Measurement</key> <dict> <key>prop1</key> <real>28.86392</real> <key>prop2</key> <real>75.12451</real> </dict> <key>Distance</key> <dict> <key>prop3</key> <real>37.49229</real> <key>prop4</key> <real>58.64502</real> </dict> </dict> </array> The array tag holds multiple items with same structure. I need to add items to the existing .plist. Is that possible? I can write a UIView to do just that, if so. *EDIT - OK, I just tried to writetofile hoping it would atleast overwrite if not add to it. Strangely, the following code selects different path while reading and writing. NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; The .plist file is in my project. I can read from it. When I write to it, it is creating a .plist file and saving it in my /users/.../library/! Does this make sense to anyone?

    Read the article

  • Javascript childNodes does not find all children of a div when appendchild has been used

    - by yesterdayze
    Alright, I am hoping someone can help me out. I apologize up front that this one may be confusing. I have included an example to try to help ease the confusion as this is better seen then heard. I have created a webpage that contains a group or set of groups. Each group has a subgroup. In a nutshell what is happening is this page will allow me to combine multiple groups containing subgroups into a new group. The page will give the chance to rename the old subgroups before they are combined into new groups in order to avoid confusion. When a group is renamed it will check to make sure there is not already a group with that name. If there is it will copy itself out of it's own group and into that group and then delete the original. If the group does not already exist it will create that group, copy itself in and then delete the original. Subgroups can also be renamed at which point they will move into the group with the same name if it exists, or create a new one if it doesn't. The page has a main div. The main div contains 'new sub group' divs. Inside each of those is another div containing the 'old sub group' divs. I use a loop through the child nodes of the 'new sub group' div when renaming a group in order to find each child node. These are then copied into a new div within the main div. The crux of the problem is this. If I loop through a DIV and copy all of the DIVs in it into a new or existing DIV all is well. When I then try to take that DIV and copy all of it's DIVs into another or new DIV it always skips one of the moved DIVs. For simplicity I have copied the entire working code below. To recreate the issue click the spot where the image should appear next to the name ewrewrwe and rename it to something else. All is well. Now click that new group the same way and name it something else. You will see it skip one each time. I have linked the page here: http://vtbikenight.com/test.html The link is clean, it is my personal website I use for a local motorycle group I am part of. Thanks for the help everyone!!! Please let me know if I can clarify on anything. I know the code is not the best right now, it is just demo code and my intent is to get the concept working then streamline it all.

    Read the article

  • C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

    - by ryeguy
    When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

    Read the article

  • "EXC_BAD_ACCESS: Unable to restore previously selected frame" Error, Array size?

    - by Job
    Hi there, I have an algorithm for creating the sieve of Eratosthenes and pulling primes from it. It lets you enter a max value for the sieve and the algorithm gives you the primes below that value and stores these in a c-style array. Problem: Everything works fine with values up to 500.000, however when I enter a large value -while running- it gives me the following error message in xcode: Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. warning: Unable to restore previously selected frame. Data Formatters temporarily unavailable, will re-try after a 'continue'. (Not safe to call dlopen at this time.) My first idea was that I didn't use large enough variables, but as I am using 'unsigned long long int', this should not be the problem. Also the debugger points me to a point in my code where a point in the array get assigned a value. Therefore I wonder is there a maximum limit to an array? If yes: should I use NSArray instead? If no, then what is causing this error based on this information? EDIT: This is what the code looks like (it's not complete, for it fails at the last line posted). I'm using garbage collection. /*--------------------------SET UP--------------------------*/ unsigned long long int upperLimit = 550000; // unsigned long long int sieve[upperLimit]; unsigned long long int primes[upperLimit]; unsigned long long int indexCEX; unsigned long long int primesCounter = 0; // Fill sieve with 2 to upperLimit for(unsigned long long int indexA = 0; indexA < upperLimit-1; ++indexA) { sieve[indexA] = indexA+2; } unsigned long long int prime = 2; /*-------------------------CHECK & FIND----------------------------*/ while(!((prime*prime) > upperLimit)) { //check off all multiples of prime for(unsigned long long int indexB = prime-2; indexB < upperLimit-1; ++indexB) { // Multiple of prime = 0 if(sieve[indexB] != 0) { if(sieve[indexB] % prime == 0) { sieve[indexB] = 0; } } } /*---------------- Search for next prime ---------------*/ // index of current prime + 1 unsigned long long int indexC = prime - 1; while(sieve[indexC] == 0) { ++indexC; } prime = sieve[indexC]; // Store prime in primes[] primes[primesCounter] = prime; // This is where the code fails if upperLimit > 500000 ++primesCounter; indexCEX = indexC + 1; } As you may or may not see, is that I am -very much- a beginner. Any other suggestions are welcome of course :)

    Read the article

  • ItemsControl ItemTemplate Binding

    - by Wonko the Sane
    Hi All, In WPF4.0, I have a class that contains other class types as properties (combining multiple data types for display). Something like: public partial class Owner { public string OwnerName { get; set; } public int OwnerId { get; set; } } partial class ForDisplay { public Owner OwnerData { get; set; } public int Credit { get; set; } } In my window, I have an ItemsControl with the following (clipped for clarity): <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I then get a collection of display information from the data layer, and set the DataContext of the ItemsControl to this collection. The "Credit" property gets displayed correctly, but the OwnerName property does not. Instead, I get a binding error: Error 40: BindingExpression path error: 'OwnerName' property not found on 'object' ''ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874)'. BindingExpression:Path=OwnerName; DataItem='ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874); target element is 'TextBlock' (Name=txtOwnerName'); target property is 'Text' (type 'String') I don't understand why this is attempting to look for the OwnerName property in the ForDisplay class, rather than in the Owner class from the ForDisplay OwnerData property. Edit It appears that it has something to do with using the custom control. If I bind the same properties to a TextBlock, they work correctly. <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OwnerData.OwnerName}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Credit}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> Thanks, wTs

    Read the article

  • Adding unique objects to Core Data

    - by absolut
    I'm working on an iPhone app that gets a number of objects from a database. I'd like to store these using Core Data, but I'm having problems with my relationships. A Detail contains any number of POIs (points of interest). When I fetch a set of POI's from the server, they contain a detail ID. In order to associate the POI with the Detail (by ID), my process is as follows: Query the ManagedObjectContext for the detailID. If that detail exists, add the poi to it. If it doesn't, create the detail (it has other properties that will be populated lazily). The problem with this is performance. Performing constant queries to Core Data is slow, to the point where adding a list of 150 POI's takes a minute thanks to the multiple relationships involved. In my old model, before Core Data (various NSDictionary cache objects) this process was super fast (look up a key in a dictionary, then create it if it doesn't exist) I have more relationships than just this one, but pretty much every one has to do this check (some are many to many, and they have a real problem). Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can help this? I could perform fewer queries (by searching for a number of different ID's), but I'm not sure how much this will help. Some code: POI *poi = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"POI" inManagedObjectContext:[(AppDelegate*)[UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate managedObjectContext]]; poi.POIid = [attributeDict objectForKey:kAttributeID]; poi.detailId = [attributeDict objectForKey:kAttributeDetailID]; Detail *detail = [self findDetailForID:poi.POIid]; if(detail == nil) { detail = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Detail" inManagedObjectContext:[(AppDelegate*)[UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate managedObjectContext]]; detail.title = poi.POIid; detail.subtitle = @""; detail.detailType = [attributeDict objectForKey:kAttributeType]; } -(Detail*)findDetailForID:(NSString*)detailID { NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [[UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Detail" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"detailid == %@", detailID]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSLog(@"%@", [predicate description]); NSError *error; NSArray *array = [moc executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; if (array == nil || [array count] != 1) { // Deal with error... return nil; } return [array objectAtIndex:0]; }

    Read the article

  • Tomcat JNDI Connection Pool docs - Random Connection Closed Exceptions

    - by Andy Faibishenko
    I found this in the Tomcat documentation here What I don't understand is why they close all the JDBC objects twice - once in the try{} block and once in the finally{} block. Why not just close them once in the finally{} clause? This is the relevant docs: Random Connection Closed Exceptions These can occur when one request gets a db connection from the connection pool and closes it twice. When using a connection pool, closing the connection just returns it to the pool for reuse by another request, it doesn't close the connection. And Tomcat uses multiple threads to handle concurrent requests. Here is an example of the sequence of events which could cause this error in Tomcat: Request 1 running in Thread 1 gets a db connection. Request 1 closes the db connection. The JVM switches the running thread to Thread 2 Request 2 running in Thread 2 gets a db connection (the same db connection just closed by Request 1). The JVM switches the running thread back to Thread 1 Request 1 closes the db connection a second time in a finally block. The JVM switches the running thread back to Thread 2 Request 2 Thread 2 tries to use the db connection but fails because Request 1 closed it. Here is an example of properly written code to use a db connection obtained from a connection pool: Connection conn = null; Statement stmt = null; // Or PreparedStatement if needed ResultSet rs = null; try { conn = ... get connection from connection pool ... stmt = conn.createStatement("select ..."); rs = stmt.executeQuery(); ... iterate through the result set ... rs.close(); rs = null; stmt.close(); stmt = null; conn.close(); // Return to connection pool conn = null; // Make sure we don't close it twice } catch (SQLException e) { ... deal with errors ... } finally { // Always make sure result sets and statements are closed, // and the connection is returned to the pool if (rs != null) { try { rs.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } rs = null; } if (stmt != null) { try { stmt.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } stmt = null; } if (conn != null) { try { conn.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } conn = null; } }

    Read the article

  • Jquery Cycle issue or css issue in Chrome/Safari for Mac

    - by Mark
    Hi i have used the jquery cycle plugin to create multiple simple sliding galleries. In Chrome/Safair on Mac the browser is not loading the images. Here is the link the js i am using is here, although it could be a css issue..? I am struggling to find the real problem. $(document).ready(function() { $('.slides').each(function() { var $this = $(this), $ss = $this.closest('.slideshow'); var prev = $ss.find('a.prev'), next = $ss.find('a.next'); $this.cycle({ prev: prev, next: next, fx: 'scrollLeft', speed: 'fast', timeout: 0 }); }); }); CSS .slideshow { width:476px; height:287px; float:left; margin-right:30px; position:relative; z-index:0; margin-bottom:20px; } .slides { position:absolute; top:0; left:0; z-index:1; } a.prev { display:block; width:23px; height:22px; background:red; position:absolute; z-index:1000; background: url(../images/next_prev.png) no-repeat 0 0; top:133px; left:-11px; } a.next { display:block; width:23px; height:22px; background:red; position:absolute; z-index:1000; background: url(../images/next_prev.png) no-repeat -23px 0; top:133px; right:-11px; } Markup: <div class="slideshow"> <div class="slides"> <img src="images/chief_st_1.jpg" alt="CHIEF stationery + literature" /> <img src="images/chief_st_3.jpg" alt="CHIEF stationery + literature" /> <img src="images/chief_st_2.jpg" alt="CHIEF stationery + literature" /> </div> <a class="prev" href="#"></a> <a class="next" href="#"></a> </div> Any help would be appreciated. thanks

    Read the article

  • VS2008: File creation fails randomly in unit testing?

    - by Tim
    I'm working on implementing a reasonably simple XML serializer/deserializer (log file parser) application in C# .NET with VS 2008. I have about 50 unit tests right now for various parts of the code (mostly for the various serialization operations), and some of them seem to be failing mostly at random when they deal with file I/O. The way the tests are structured is that in the test setup method, I create a new empty file at a certain predetermined location, and close the stream I get back. Then I run some basic tests on the file (varying by what exactly is under test). In the cleanup method, I delete the file again. A large portion (usually 30 or more, though the number varies run to run) of my unit tests will fail at the initialize method, claiming they can't access the file I'm trying to create. I can't pin down the exact reason, since a test that will work one run fails the next; they all succeed when run individually. What's the problem here? Why can't I access this file across multiple unit tests? Relevant methods for a unit test that will fail some of the time: [TestInitialize()] public void LogFileTestInitialize() { this.testFolder = System.Environment.GetFolderPath( System.Environment.SpecialFolder.LocalApplicationData ); this.testPath = this.testFolder + "\\empty.lfp"; System.IO.File.Create(this.testPath); } [TestMethod()] public void LogFileConstructorTest() { string filePath = this.testPath; LogFile target = new LogFile(filePath); Assert.AreNotEqual(null, target); Assert.AreEqual(this.testPath, target.filePath); Assert.AreEqual("empty.lfp", target.fileName); Assert.AreEqual(this.testFolder + "\\empty.lfp.lfpdat", target.metaPath); } [TestCleanup()] public void LogFileTestCleanup() { System.IO.File.Delete(this.testPath); } And the LogFile() constructor: public LogFile(String filePath) { this.entries = new List<Entry>(); this.filePath = filePath; this.metaPath = filePath + ".lfpdat"; this.fileName = filePath.Substring(filePath.LastIndexOf("\\") + 1); } The precise error message: Initialization method LogFileParserTester.LogFileTest.LogFileTestInitialize threw exception. System.IO.IOException: System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Users\<user>\AppData\Local\empty.lfp' because it is being used by another process..

    Read the article

  • CSS selectors : should I make my CSS easier to read or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It make my .css file harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

    Read the article

  • TcpListener is queuing connections faster than I can clear them

    - by Matthew Brindley
    As I understand it, TcpListener will queue connections once you call Start(). Each time you call AcceptTcpClient (or BeginAcceptTcpClient), it will dequeue one item from the queue. If we load test our TcpListener app by sending 1,000 connections to it at once, the queue builds far faster than we can clear it, leading (eventually) to timeouts from the client because it didn't get a response because its connection was still in the queue. However, the server doesn't appear to be under much pressure, our app isn't consuming much CPU time and the other monitored resources on the machine aren't breaking a sweat. It feels like we're not running efficiently enough right now. We're calling BeginAcceptTcpListener and then immediately handing over to a ThreadPool thread to actually do the work, then calling BeginAcceptTcpClient again. The work involved doesn't seem to put any pressure on the machine, it's basically just a 3 second sleep followed by a dictionary lookup and then a 100 byte write to the TcpClient's stream. Here's the TcpListener code we're using: // Thread signal. private static ManualResetEvent tcpClientConnected = new ManualResetEvent(false); public void DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(TcpListener listener) { // Set the event to nonsignaled state. tcpClientConnected.Reset(); listener.BeginAcceptTcpClient( new AsyncCallback(DoAcceptTcpClientCallback), listener); // Wait for signal tcpClientConnected.WaitOne(); } public void DoAcceptTcpClientCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // Get the listener that handles the client request, and the TcpClient TcpListener listener = (TcpListener)ar.AsyncState; TcpClient client = listener.EndAcceptTcpClient(ar); if (inProduction) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client, serverCertificate)); // With SSL else ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client)); // Without SSL // Signal the calling thread to continue. tcpClientConnected.Set(); } public void Start() { currentHandledRequests = 0; tcpListener = new TcpListener(IPAddress.Any, 10000); try { tcpListener.Start(); while (true) DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(tcpListener); } catch (SocketException) { // The TcpListener is shutting down, exit gracefully CheckBuffer(); return; } } I'm assuming the answer will be related to using Sockets instead of TcpListener, or at least using TcpListener.AcceptSocket, but I wondered how we'd go about doing that? One idea we had was to call AcceptTcpClient and immediately Enqueue the TcpClient into one of multiple Queue<TcpClient> objects. That way, we could poll those queues on separate threads (one queue per thread), without running into monitors that might block the thread while waiting for other Dequeue operations. Each queue thread could then use ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem to have the work done in a ThreadPool thread and then move onto dequeuing the next TcpClient in its queue. Would you recommend this approach, or is our problem that we're using TcpListener and no amount of rapid dequeueing is going to fix that?

    Read the article

  • Unable to add SSH pub key for GitHub

    - by Kaushik
    I am trying to set up a new GitHub account as part of learning ruby on rails. My OS is windows. I am having the following problem while trying to add my public key to the GitHub SSH public keys. When I put the key in the text area, supply a name, and click 'Add Key', I am taken to the Job profile page without any confirmation that the key has been added.(I am using SSH client GUI to generate RSA keys). When I come back to the SSH public keys page, I see that the key is not there. I tried this multiple times...without any result. Just as a test, I tried to ssh to the GitHub account using 'ssh -v [email protected]' and here is the verbose output: OpenSSH_4.6p1, OpenSSL 0.9.8e 23 Feb 2007 debug1: Connecting to github.com [207.97.227.239] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/identity type -1 debug1: identity file /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_rsa type -1 debug1: identity file /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_dsa type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-5github2 debug1: match: OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-5github2 pat OpenSSH* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_4.6 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-cbc hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-cbc hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'github.com' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/known_hosts:1 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/identity debug1: Trying private key: /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Trying private key: /c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). Also, why is it looking for the keys in c/Users/Administrator/.ssh/ Is there a possibility of changing this default location? EDIT: With Mozila, I get error msg: Oops! The key has already been taken. The key is invalid. It must begin with 'ssh-rsa' or 'ssh-dss'. My key looks like: ---- BEGIN SSH2 PUBLIC KEY ---- Comment: "[2048-bit rsa, Administrator@Kaushik-THINK, Sun Jan 02 2011 \ 02:40:03]" AAAAB3NzaC1yc2EAAAADAQABAAABAQDoA5xqJozKmAHTGh9hgmagsFOl2hdPzS8ZPV9Ta1 xU0JiUnHef38Rvz/5oqL1wW7SjmZbc/+tCPOfU1lg3UisFXajJhek2bjJ2qsKd4Sjax2Nj ZMYD7djPb8rokUYSKW3bdYyJHtJH+murz04UGdCcZ8HqkMTzqlh3zAIK7SIlCy+mtAi5A/ sm0JbqlNGHB6YrL1aWIcOSolIx2HWt8cWhlK77guT9dPgd0HT59Gn0uhO7UWGLrNdJut0x ian3HdvNYMUXoO/SkNlxvWRgZ1UOhaB+qf4hw5RCGcBbqP3fM4LKpurHZx4wEpgmM0e4EM +2PYdf46uxChNdBl7J5sZF ---- END SSH2 PUBLIC KEY ---- I still can't see the key..so not sure how it says it is already taken.

    Read the article

  • sql to xml using linq - nested collections

    - by nelsonwebs
    I have a table of data that looks something like this. name, hour, price1, price2, price3, price4, price5 fred, 3, 12.5, 13.5, 14, 15, 16 dave, 6, 8, 12, 18, 20.2, 25 fred, 6, 10, 11, 14, 15, 19.7 This table needs to be output to an xml file that looks like this. <timeCost> <person name="fred"> <time hour="5"> <cost price="12.5" /> <cost price="13.5" /> <cost price="14" /> <cost price="15" /> <cost price="16" /> </time> <time hour="6"> <cost price="10" /> <cost price="11" /> <cost price="14" /> <cost price="15" /> <cost price="19.7" /> </time> </person> <person name="dave"> <time hour="6"> <cost price="8" /> <cost price="12" /> <cost price="18" /> <cost price="20.2" /> <cost price="25" /> </time> </person> </timeCost> I have a linq query to get the data from SQL something like this. // initialize data context var people = from p in dc.people orderby p.name, p.hour select p; However, I'm having trouble writing the xml out using linq (csharp). Specifically, the problem is I don't know how to deal with having multiple time nodes under each name node (nested loops/collections). How can this be done? This is a sql 08 ent db if it matters to anyone.

    Read the article

  • Register all GUI components as Observers or pass current object to next object as a constructor argu

    - by Jack
    First, I'd like to say that I think this is a common issue and there may be a simple or common solution that I am unaware of. Many have probably encountered a similar problem. Thanks for reading. I am creating a GUI where each component needs to communicate (or at least be updated) by multiple other components. Currently, I'm using a Singleton class to accomplish this goal. Each GUI component gets the instance of the singleton and registers itself. When updates need to be made, the singleton can call public methods in the registered class. I think this is similar to an Observer pattern, but the singleton has more control. Currently, the program is set up something like this: class c1 { CommClass cc; c1() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC1( this ); C2 c2 = new c2(); } } class c2 { CommClass cc; c2() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC2( this ); C3 c3 = new c3(); } } class c3 { CommClass cc; c3() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC3( this ); C4 c4 = new c4(); } } etc. Unfortunately, the singleton class keeps growing larger as more communication is required between the components. I was wondering if it's a good idea to instead of using this singleton, pass the higher order GUI components as arguments in the constructors of each GUI component: class c1 { c1() { C2 c2 = new c2( this ); } } class c2 { C1 c1; c2( C1 c1 ) { this.c1 = c1 C3 c3 = new c3( c1, this ); } } class c3 { C1 c1; C2 c2; c3( C1 c1, C2 c2 ) { this.c1 = c1; this.c2 = c2; C4 c4 = new c4( c1, c2, this ); } } etc. The second version relies less on the CommClass, but it's still very messy as the private member variables increase in number and the constructors grow in length. Each class contains GUI components that need to communicate through CommClass, but I can't think of a good way to do it. If this seems strange or horribly inefficient, please describe some method of communication between classes that will continue to work as the project grows. Also, if this doesn't make any sense to anyone, I'll try to give actual code snippets in the future and think of a better way to ask the question. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Java - How to make a set of JInternalFrame independant of each other?

    - by Amokrane
    Hello, I'm programming a short Paint program like and I'm trying to make an MDI architecture for it. To make that happen, I used JInternalFrame inside a JDesktopPane. Although I kind of obtain multiple frames, there are not really working properly. Basically, if I have 2 JInternalFrame I can draw only on the last one. The other one seems to be disabled. Here is a short video illustrating the problem. http://bit.ly/9ydiwM Here are some part of the code. Panneau.java public class Panneau extends JDesktopPane { /** La liste de fenêtres ouvertes */ private static ArrayList<Cadre> cadres; /** Le pannel comportant la liste des formes à dessiner*/ private Pannel pannel; /** La barre d'outils */ private ToolBox toolBox; public Panneau() { this.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); // Initialisations des listes de cadres cadres = new ArrayList<Cadre>(); // En haut ToolBox toolBox = new ToolBox(); this.add(toolBox, BorderLayout.NORTH); **// Intialisation de la première internal frame Cadre cadre = new Cadre(); this.add(cadre, BorderLayout.CENTER);** cadres.add(cadre); // Ajout du pannel à gauche pannel = new Pannel(); this.add(pannel, BorderLayout.WEST); } /** * Crée une nouvelle fenêtre de dessin * */ **public void createNewInternalFrame() { Cadre cadre = new Cadre(); this.add(cadre, BorderLayout.CENTER); cadres.add(cadre); }** } public class Cadre extends JInternalFrame { /** Largeur par d'une fenêtre interne */ private int width; /** Hauteur d'une fenêtre interne */ private int height; /** Titre d'une fenêtre interne */ private String title; /** Toile associée à la fenêtre interne */ private Toile toile; public Cadre() { width = 400; height = 400; title = "Form"; toile = new Toile(); this.setTitle(title); this.setSize(width, height); this.setEnabled(true); this.setResizable(true); this.setAutoscrolls(true); this.setClosable(true); this.setIconifiable(true); this.setDoubleBuffered(true); this.setContentPane(toile); this.setVisible(true); this.pack(); } } Basically, Panneau is the main Window that contains all the differents parts of the GUI. I can create as much JInternalFrame that I want, using : Panneau.createNewInternalFrame(). Toile is basically where I draw my shapes. Any idea ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Absolute reRendering using RichFaces

    - by wheelie
    Hey there, I am implementing copy/paste functionality for a complex object tree, this means you can copy an object and paste it where the object type is the same. Therefore I need to reRender the <a4j:commandLink>-s which are performing the paste action (so it will show on the GUI or not). Simplified example: Problem is that copy links are deep in the tree. How is it possible to reRender on a higher level in the component tree? (very)Simplified example: ... <h:form id="form1"> ... <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste1" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste2" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> <a4j:outputPanel> <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true"> <a4j:commandLink value="Copy" reRender=":paste1, :paste2, :paste3" /> <a4j:commandLink id="paste3" value="Paste" rendered="#{myBean.myHashMap.key}" /> </a4j:region> </a4j:outputPanel> </a4j:outputPanel> ... </h:form> Something like that. In practise this differs in that a rich:tree is displayed. Also, there can be multiple instances of the same paste link: object:0::paste3, object:1::paste3. private final String pasteIDs = ":xxPaste, ... , :xyPaste"; According to the RichFaces reference, putting the separator to the beginning of the ID means it is an "absolute" search expression, however this way i get the same result: only the 'local' paste link gets rerendered, the others not. Every copy-paste link pair is encapsulated in <a4j:region renderRegionOnly="true">, because it is necessary for other components to restrict the reRender to that region. Could this be blocking the reRender I want to make? Also I want to rerender exactly those paste links, so no other rerender action is triggered. Hope it is clear what i want to achieve. Any help would be appreciated! Daniel

    Read the article

  • Jquery Dialog - div disappears after initialization

    - by Zuber
    JQuery Dialog is giving me lots of pain lately. I have the following div which I want to be popped up. (Ignore that the classes do not show the double quotes in the syntax) TABLE class=widget-title-table border=0 cellSpacing=0 cellPadding=0> <TBODY> <TR> <TD class=widget-title><SPAN class=widget-title>Basic Info</SPAN></TD> <TD class=widget-action> <DIV id=edit-actions jQuery1266325647362="3"> <UL class="linkbutton-menu read-mode"> <LI class="control-actions"> <A id="action-button" class="mouse-over-pointer linkbutton">Delete this stakeholder</A> <DIV id="confirmation" class="confirmation-dialog title=Confirmation"> Are you sure you want to delete this stakeholder? </DIV> </LI></UL></DIV></TD></TR></TBODY></TABLE> The JQuery for this is ... $(document).ready(function() { $('#confirmation').dialog({ bgiframe: true, modal: true, autoOpen: false, closeOnEscape: false, draggable: true, position: 'center', resizable: false, width: 400, height: 150 }); }); And the dialog is 'open'ed by var confirmationBox = $('#confirmation',actionContent); if (confirmationBox.length > 0) { //Confirmation Needed $(confirmationBox).dialog('option', 'buttons', { 'No': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'Yes': function() { $('ul.read-mode').hide(); $.post(requestUrl, {}, ActionCallback(context[0], renderFormUrl), 'json'); $(this).dialog('close'); } }); $(confirmationBox).dialog('open'); } The problem starts in the initialization itself. When the document loads, the <div #confirmation> is deleted from the markup! I had a similar issue earlier, but I cannot use that solution here. On this page I can have multiple PopUp divs. When I added the initialization in just before opening it; the form popped up. But after I close it, the div is removed; so I am not able to see the popup again.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750  | Next Page >