Search Results

Search found 20211 results on 809 pages for 'language implementation'.

Page 744/809 | < Previous Page | 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751  | Next Page >

  • Unique_ptr compiler errors

    - by Godric Seer
    I am designing and entity-component system for a project, and C++ memory management is giving me a few issues. I just want to make sure my design is legitimate. So to start I have an Entity class which stores a vector of Components: class Entity { private: std::vector<std::unique_ptr<Component> > components; public: Entity() { }; void AddComponent(Component* component) { this -> components.push_back(std::unique_ptr<Component>(component)); } ~Entity(); }; Which if I am not mistaken means that when the destructor is called (even the default, compiler created one), the destructor for the Entity, will call ~components, which will call ~std::unique_ptr for each element in the vector, and lead to the destruction of each Component, which is what I want. The component class has virtual methods, but the important part is its constructor: Component::Component(Entity parent) { parent.addComponent(this) // I am not sure if this would work like I expect // Other things here } As long as passing this to the method works, this also does what I want. My confusion is in the factory. What I want to do is something along the lines of: std::shared_ptr<Entity> createEntity() { std::shared_ptr<Entity> entityPtr(new Entity()); new Component(*parent); // Initialize more, and other types of Components return entityPtr; } Now, I believe that this setup will leave the ownership of the Component in the hands of its Parent Entity, which is what I want. First a small question, do I need to pass the entity into the Component constructor by reference or pointer or something? If I understand C++, it would pass by value, which means it gets copied, and the copied entity would die at the end of the constructor. The second, and main question is that code based on this sample will not compile. The complete error is too large to print here, however I think I know somewhat of what is going on. The compiler's error says I can't delete an incomplete type. My Component class has a purely virtual destructor with an implementation: inline Component::~Component() { }; at the end of the header. However since the whole point is that Component is actually an interface. I know from here that a complete type is required for unique_ptr destruction. The question is, how do I work around this? For reference I am using gcc 4.4.6.

    Read the article

  • WTF is wtf? (in WebKit code base)

    - by Motti
    I downloaded Chromium's code base and ran across the WTF namespace. namespace WTF { /* * C++'s idea of a reinterpret_cast lacks sufficient cojones. */ template<typename TO, typename FROM> TO bitwise_cast(FROM in) { COMPILE_ASSERT(sizeof(TO) == sizeof(FROM), WTF_wtf_reinterpret_cast_sizeof_types_is_equal); union { FROM from; TO to; } u; u.from = in; return u.to; } } // namespace WTF Does this mean what I think it means? Could be so, the bitwise_cast implementation specified here will not compile if either TO or FROM is not a POD and is not (AFAIK) more powerful than C++ built in reinterpret_cast. The only point of light I see here is the nobody seems to be using bitwise_cast in the Chromium project. I see there's some legalese so I'll put in the little letters to keep out of trouble. /* * Copyright (C) 2008 Apple Inc. All Rights Reserved. * * Redistribution and use in source and binary forms, with or without * modification, are permitted provided that the following conditions * are met: * 1. Redistributions of source code must retain the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer. * 2. Redistributions in binary form must reproduce the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer in the * documentation and/or other materials provided with the distribution. * * THIS SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED BY APPLE INC. ``AS IS'' AND ANY * EXPRESS OR IMPLIED WARRANTIES, INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, THE * IMPLIED WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY AND FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR * PURPOSE ARE DISCLAIMED. IN NO EVENT SHALL APPLE INC. OR * CONTRIBUTORS BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT, INDIRECT, INCIDENTAL, SPECIAL, * EXEMPLARY, OR CONSEQUENTIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, * PROCUREMENT OF SUBSTITUTE GOODS OR SERVICES; LOSS OF USE, DATA, OR * PROFITS; OR BUSINESS INTERRUPTION) HOWEVER CAUSED AND ON ANY THEORY * OF LIABILITY, WHETHER IN CONTRACT, STRICT LIABILITY, OR TORT * (INCLUDING NEGLIGENCE OR OTHERWISE) ARISING IN ANY WAY OUT OF THE USE * OF THIS SOFTWARE, EVEN IF ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGE. */

    Read the article

  • Grouping geographical shapes

    - by grenade
    I am using Dundas Maps and attempting to draw a map of the world where countries are grouped into regions that are specific to a business implementation. I have shape data (points and segments) for each country in the world. I can combine countries into regions by adding all points and segments for countries within a region to a new region shape. foreach(var region in GetAllRegions()){ var regionShape = new Shape { Name = region.Name }; foreach(var country in GetCountriesInRegion(region.Id)){ var countryShape = GetCountryShape(country.Id); regionShape.AddSegments(countryShape.ShapeData.Points, countryShape.ShapeData.Segments); } map.Shapes.Add(regionShape); } The problem is that the country border lines still show up within a region and I want to remove them so that only regional borders show up. Dundas polygons must start and end at the same point. This is the case for all the country shapes. Now I need an algorithm that can: Determine where country borders intersect at a regional border, so that I can join the regional border segments. Determine which country borders are not regional borders so that I can discard them. Sort the resulting regional points so that they sequentialy describe the shape boundaries. Below is where I have gotten to so far with the map. You can see that the country borders still need to be removed. For example, the border between Mongolia and China should be discarded whereas the border between Mongolia and Russia should be retained. The reason I need to retain a regional border is that the region colors will be significant in conveying information but adjacent regions may be the same color. The regions can change to include or exclude countries and this is why the regional shaping must be dynamic. EDIT: I now know that I what I am looking for is a UNION of polygons. David Lean explains how to do it using the spatial functions in SQL Server 2008 which might be an option but my efforts have come to a halt because the resulting polygon union is so complex that SQL truncates it at 43,680 characters. I'm now trying to either find a workaround for that or find a way of doing the union in code.

    Read the article

  • Opinion on "loop invariants", and are these frequently used in the industry?

    - by Michael Aaron Safyan
    I was thinking back to my freshman year at college (five years ago) when I took an exam to place-out of intro-level computer science. There was a question about loop invariants, and I was wondering if loop invariants are really necessary in this case or if the question was simply a bad example... the question was to write an iterative definition for a factorial function, and then to prove that the function was correct. The code that I provided for the factorial function was as follows: public static int factorial(int x) { if ( x < 0 ){ throw new IllegalArgumentException("Parameter must be = 0"); }else if ( x == 0 ){ return 1; }else{ int result = 1; for ( int i = 1; i <= x; i++ ){ result*=i; } return result; } } My own proof of correctness was a proof by cases, and in each I asserted that it was correct by definition (x! is undefined for negative values, 0! is 1, and x! is 1*2*3...*x for a positive value of x). The professor wanted me to prove the loop using a loop invariant; however, my argument was that it was correct "by definition", because the definition of "x!" for a positive integer x is "the product of the integers from 1... x", and the for-loop in the else clause is simply a literal translation of this definition. Is a loop invariant really needed as a proof of correctness in this case? How complicated must a loop be before a loop invariant (and proper initialization and termination conditions) become necessary for a proof of correctness? Additionally, I was wondering... how often are such formal proofs used in the industry? I have found that about half of my courses are very theoretical and proof-heavy and about half are very implementation and coding-heavy, without any formal or theoretical material. How much do these overlap in practice? If you do use proofs in the industry, when do you apply them (always, only if it's complicated, rarely, never)?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic data-entry value store

    - by simendsjo
    I'm creating a data-entry application where users are allowed to create the entry schema. My first version of this just created a single table per entry schema with each entry spanning a single or multiple columns (for complex types) with the appropriate data type. This allowed for "fast" querying (on small datasets as I didn't index all columns) and simple synchronization where the data-entry was distributed on several databases. I'm not quite happy with this solution though; the only positive thing is the simplicity... I can only store a fixed number of columns. I need to create indexes on all columns. I need to recreate the table on schema changes. Some of my key design criterias are: Very fast querying (Using a simple domain specific query language) Writes doesn't have to be fast Many concurrent users Schemas will change often Schemas might contain many thousand columns The data-entries might be distributed and needs syncronization. Preferable MySQL and SQLite - Databases like DB2 and Oracle is out of the question. Using .Net/Mono I've been thinking of a couple of possible designs, but none of them seems like a good choice. Solution 1: Union like table containing a Type column and one nullable column per type. This avoids joins, but will definitly use a lot of space. Solution 2: Key/value store. All values are stored as string and converted when needed. Also use a lot of space, and of course, I hate having to convert everything to string. Solution 3: Use an xml database or store values as xml. Without any experience I would think this is quite slow (at least for the relational model unless there is some very good xpath support). I also would like to avoid an xml database as other parts of the application fits better as a relational model, and being able to join the data is helpful. I cannot help to think that someone has solved (some of) this already, but I'm unable to find anything. Not quite sure what to search for either... I know market research is doing something like this for their questionnaires, but there are few open source implementations, and the ones I've found doesn't quite fit the bill. PSPP has much of the logic I'm thinking of; primitive column types, many columns, many rows, fast querying and merging. Too bad it doesn't work against a database.. And of course... I don't need 99% of the provided functionality, but a lot of stuff not included. I'm not sure this is the right place to ask such a design related question, but I hope someone here has some tips, know of any existing work, or can point me to a better place to ask such a question. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Failed to obtain JDBC Driver for MySQL under Tomcat environment

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've been trying to obtain the Driver class for JDBC connection to MySQL. The workstation is running on Linux, Fedora 10. I have manually set up the classpath variable for Java by CLI like this: bash-3.2$ echo $CLASSPATH /home/cmao/public_html/jsp/mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar This shows that I've added the lastest mysql connection jar archive to my CLASSPATH variable. I've created a test JSP page which can be found here And source code for this page is: <%@page language="java"%> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%@page import="java.util.*"%> <html> <head> <title>UTS JDBC MySQL connection test page</title> </head> <body> <% Connection con = null; out.print("Java version is : " + System.getProperty("java.version") + "<br />"); out.print("Tomcat version is : " + application.getServerInfo() + "<br />"); out.print("Servlet version is: " + application.getMajorVersion() + "<br />"); out.print("JSP version is : " + JspFactory.getDefaultFactory().getEngineInfo().getSpecificationVersion() +"<br />"); //out.print("Java classpath is : " + System.getProperty("java.class.path")+ "<br />"); //out.print("JSP classpath is : " + appliaction.getAttribute("org.apache.catalina.jsp_classpath") + "<br />"); //out.print("Tomcat classpath is : " + System.getProperty("org.apache.tomcat.common.classpath") + "<br />"); try { Class c = Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); } catch(Exception e) { out.println("Error! Failed to obtain JDBC driver for MySQL... Missing class \"com.mysql.jdbc.Driver\"<br />"); } %> </body> </html> None of those commented out line would work, various Jsper Expetions would be thrown. You can check those Error pages from the following links: classpath Error page catalina Error page tomcat Error page It seems, from my limited knowledge of JSP and Servlet, the Tomcat environment "ignores" my Java CLASSPATH? In which case I cannot configure the MySQL JDBC package to let my Servlets(a JSP is but a Servlet anyway) work. I am not sure how to fix this issue. would it be better if I use an IDE like Eclipse or NetBeans and create a real Java "web app" so that everything can be "self-configured" by the usage of a web.config XML configuration file? So that I can certainly bypass this Tomcat environment restriction? Many thanks for the suggestions in advance.

    Read the article

  • Performance of SHA-1 Checksum from Android 2.2 to 2.3 and Higher

    - by sbrichards
    In testing the performance of: package com.srichards.sha; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStream; import java.security.MessageDigest; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.util.zip.ZipEntry; import java.util.zip.ZipFile; import com.srichards.sha.R; public class SHAHashActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); TextView tv = new TextView(this); String shaVal = this.getString(R.string.sha); long systimeBefore = System.currentTimeMillis(); String result = shaCheck(shaVal); long systimeResult = System.currentTimeMillis() - systimeBefore; tv.setText("\nRunTime: " + systimeResult + "\nHas been modified? | Hash Value: " + result); setContentView(tv); } public String shaCheck(String shaVal){ try{ String resultant = "null"; MessageDigest digest = MessageDigest.getInstance("SHA1"); ZipFile zf = null; try { zf = new ZipFile("/data/app/com.blah.android-1.apk"); // /data/app/com.blah.android-2.apk } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } ZipEntry ze = zf.getEntry("classes.dex"); InputStream file = zf.getInputStream(ze); byte[] dataBytes = new byte[32768]; //65536 32768 int nread = 0; while ((nread = file.read(dataBytes)) != -1) { digest.update(dataBytes, 0, nread); } byte [] rbytes = digest.digest(); StringBuffer sb = new StringBuffer(""); for (int i = 0; i< rbytes.length; i++) { sb.append(Integer.toString((rbytes[i] & 0xff) + 0x100, 16).substring(1)); } if (shaVal.equals(sb.toString())) { resultant = ("\nFalse : " + "\nFound:\n" + sb.toString() + "|" + "\nHave:\n" + shaVal); } else { resultant = ("\nTrue : " + "\nFound:\n" + sb.toString() + "|" + "\nHave:\n" + shaVal); } return resultant; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } } On a 2.2 Device I get average runtime of ~350ms, while on newer devices I get runtimes of 26-50ms which is substantially lower. I'm keeping in mind these devices are newer and have better hardware but am also wondering if the platform and the implementation affect performance much and if there is anything that could reduce runtimes on 2.2 devices. Note, the classes.dex of the .apk being accessed is roughly 4MB. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to copy DispatcherObject (BitmapSource) into different thread?

    - by Tomáš Kafka
    Hi, I am trying to figure out how can I copy DispatcherObject (in my case BitmapSource) into another thread. Use case: I have a WPF app that needs to show window in a new thread (the app is actually Outlook addin and we need to do this because Outlook has some hooks in the main UI thread and is stealing certain hotkeys that we need to use - 'lost in translation' in interop of Outlook, WPF (which we use for UI), and Winforms (we need to use certain microsoft-provided winforms controls)). With that, I have my implementation of WPFMessageBox, that is configured by setting some static properties - and and one of them is BitmapSource for icon. This is used so that in startup I can set WPFMessageBox.Icon once, and since then, every WPFMessageBox will have the same icon. The problem is that BitmapSource, which is assigned into icon, is a DispatcherObject, and when read, it will throw InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it.". How can I clone that BitmapSource into the actual thread? It has Clone() and CloneCurrentValue() methods, which don't work (they throw the same exception as well). It also occured to me to use originalIcon.Dispatcher.Invoke( do the cloning here ) - but the BitmapSource's Dispatcher is null, and still - I'd create a copy on a wrong thread and still couldnt use it on mine. BitmapSource.IsFrozen == true. Any idea on how to copy the BitmapSource into different thread (without completely reconstructing it from an image file in a new thread)? EDIT: So, freezing does not help: In the end I have a BitmapFrame (Window.Icon doesn't take any other kind of ImageSource anyway), and when I assign it as a Window.Icon on a different thread, even if frozen, I get InvalidOperationException: "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." with a following stack trace: WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher.VerifyAccess() + 0x4a bytes WindowsBase.dll!System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherObject.VerifyAccess() + 0xc bytes PresentationCore.dll!System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapDecoder.Frames.get() + 0xe bytes PresentationFramework.dll!MS.Internal.AppModel.IconHelper.GetIconHandlesFromBitmapFrame(object callingObj = {WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBoxWindow: header}, System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrame bf = {System.Windows.Media.Imaging.BitmapFrameDecode}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle largeIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}, ref MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle smallIconHandle = {MS.Win32.NativeMethods.IconHandle}) + 0x3b bytes > PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.UpdateIcon() + 0x118 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SetupInitialState(double requestedTop = NaN, double requestedLeft = NaN, double requestedWidth = 560.0, double requestedHeight = NaN) + 0x8a bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.CreateSourceWindowImpl() + 0x19b bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.SafeCreateWindow() + 0x29 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowHelper(object booleanBox) + 0x81 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.Show() + 0x48 bytes PresentationFramework.dll!System.Windows.Window.ShowDialog() + 0x29f bytes WPFControls.dll!WPFControls.WPFMBox.WpfMessageBox.ShowDialog(System.Windows.Window owner = {WPFControlsTest.MainWindow}) Line 185 + 0x10 bytes C#

    Read the article

  • What's a clean way to break up a DataTable into chunks of a fixed size with Linq?

    - by Michael Haren
    Update: Here's a similar question Suppose I have a DataTable with a few thousand DataRows in it. I'd like to break up the table into chunks of smaller rows for processing. I thought C#3's improved ability to work with data might help. This is the skeleton I have so far: DataTable Table = GetTonsOfData(); // Chunks should be any IEnumerable<Chunk> type var Chunks = ChunkifyTableIntoSmallerChunksSomehow; // ** help here! ** foreach(var Chunk in Chunks) { // Chunk should be any IEnumerable<DataRow> type ProcessChunk(Chunk); } Any suggestions on what should replace ChunkifyTableIntoSmallerChunksSomehow? I'm really interested in how someone would do this with access C#3 tools. If attempting to apply these tools is inappropriate, please explain! Update 3 (revised chunking as I really want tables, not ienumerables; going with an extension method--thanks Jacob): Final implementation: Extension method to handle the chunking: public static class HarenExtensions { public static IEnumerable<DataTable> Chunkify(this DataTable table, int chunkSize) { for (int i = 0; i < table.Rows.Count; i += chunkSize) { DataTable Chunk = table.Clone(); foreach (DataRow Row in table.Select().Skip(i).Take(chunkSize)) { Chunk.ImportRow(Row); } yield return Chunk; } } } Example consumer of that extension method, with sample output from an ad hoc test: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { DataTable Table = GetTonsOfData(); foreach (DataTable Chunk in Table.Chunkify(100)) { Console.WriteLine("{0} - {1}", Chunk.Rows[0][0], Chunk.Rows[Chunk.Rows.Count - 1][0]); } Console.ReadLine(); } static DataTable GetTonsOfData() { DataTable Table = new DataTable(); Table.Columns.Add(new DataColumn()); for (int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { DataRow Row = Table.NewRow(); Row[0] = i; Table.Rows.Add(Row); } return Table; } }

    Read the article

  • Need help with auto-scaffolding template in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

    Read the article

  • Move options between multiple dropdown lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. An additional problem is that sorting between lists is all well and good in the javascript-enabled world, but I can't really think of a good fallback interface for, say, mobile browsers. Maybe a pseudo-listbox with radio buttons next to each item? The master list of items will in general be very long - over 100 items, certainly, possibly many more. Any given category will most likely contain one or two selected items, but the possibility exists for a category to have dozens of selected items, or zero selected items. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :)

    Read the article

  • Design time error - multiple controls with the same Id

    - by ilivewithian
    I'm using VS 2008, I have a very simple page that has a bunch of uniquely named controls. When I try to view it in design mode I get the following error: Error Rendering Control - Label12 An unhanded exception has occurred. Multiple controls with the same ID 'Label1' were found. FindControl requires that controls have unique IDs I've checked the HTML and the designer file and I can only see one control called Label1. What might be causing this? Also, here is the aspx markup I'm having trouble with? <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeBehind="CoachingAppearanceReport.aspx.vb" Inherits="AcademyPro.CoachingAppearanceReport" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <div id="appearanceDetail" class="Left CriteriaContainer"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Appearance Type" AssociatedControlID="ddlAppearanceType" /> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlAppearanceType" runat="server" CssClass="AppType" OnDataBound="ddlAppearanceType_DataBound" DataSourceID="odsAppearanceType" DataTextField="AppearanceType" DataValueField="AppearanceTypeCode"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvAppearanceType" runat="server" ControlToValidate="ddlAppearanceType" InitialValue="" Text="*" ErrorMessage="The appearance type must be selected" /> <asp:Label ID="lblAppearanceType" runat="server" /> <br /> <div class="SubSettings"> <asp:Label ID="Label12" runat="server" Text="Subbed for" AssociatedControlID="ddlSubbedFor" /> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlSubbedFor" runat="server" OnDataBound="ddlSubbedFor_DataBound" DataSourceID="odsPlayersInAgeGroup" DataTextField="PlayerName" DataValueField="PlayerID"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="lblSubbedFor" runat="server" /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="Label13" runat="server" Text="Mins" AssociatedControlID="txtSubMins" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtSubMins" runat="server" MaxLength="3" CssClass="TinyWidth" /> <asp:Label ID="lblSubMins" runat="server" /> </div> </div> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Fleunt NHibernate not working outside of nunit test fixtures

    - by thorkia
    Okay, here is my problem... I created a Data Layer using the RTM Fluent Nhibernate. My create session code looks like this: _session = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile("Data.s3db")) .Mappings( m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductMap>(); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductLogMap>(); }) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory(); When I reference the module in a test project, then create a test fixture that looks something like this: [Test] public void CanAddProduct() { var product = new Product {Code = "9", Name = "Test 9"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { var fromDb = session.Get<Product>(product.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(fromDb, product); Assert.AreEqual(fromDb.Id, product.Id); } My tests pass. When I open up the created SQLite DB, the new Product with Code 9 is in it. the tables for Product and ProductLog are there. Now, when I create a new console application, and reference the same library, do something like this: Product product = new Product() {Code = "10", Name = "Hello"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); Console.WriteLine(product.Id); Console.ReadLine(); It doesn't work. I actually get pretty nasty exception chain. To save you lots of head aches, here is the summary: Top Level exception: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail.\r\n\r\n The PotentialReasons collection is empty The Inner exception: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Both the unit test library and the console application reference the exact same version of System.Data.SQLite. Both projects have the exact same DLLs in the debug folder. I even tried copying SQLite DB the unit test library created into the debug directory of the console app, and removed the build schema lines and it still fails If anyone can help me figure out why this won't work outside of my unit tests it would be greatly appreciated. This crazy bug has me at a stand still.

    Read the article

  • idiomatic property changed notification in scala?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    I'm trying to find a cleaner alternative (that is idiomatic to Scala) to the kind of thing you see with data-binding in WPF/silverlight data-binding - that is, implementing INotifyPropertyChanged. First, some background: In .Net WPF or silverlight applications, you have the concept of two-way data-binding (that is, binding the value of some element of the UI to a .net property of the DataContext in such a way that changes to the UI element affect the property, and vise versa. One way to enable this is to implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in your DataContext. Unfortunately, this introduces a lot of boilerplate code for any property you add to the "ModelView" type. Here is how it might look in Scala: trait IDrawable extends INotifyPropertyChanged { protected var drawOrder : Int = 0 def DrawOrder : Int = drawOrder def DrawOrder_=(value : Int) { if(drawOrder != value) { drawOrder = value OnPropertyChanged("DrawOrder") } } protected var visible : Boolean = true def Visible : Boolean = visible def Visible_=(value: Boolean) = { if(visible != value) { visible = value OnPropertyChanged("Visible") } } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of INotifyPropertyChanged trait } } } For the sake of space, let's assume the INotifyPropertyChanged type is a trait that manages a list of callbacks of type (AnyRef, String) = Unit, and that OnPropertyChanged is a method that invokes all those callbacks, passing "this" as the AnyRef, and the passed-in String). This would just be an event in C#. You can immediately see the problem: that's a ton of boilerplate code for just two properties. I've always wanted to write something like this instead: trait IDrawable { val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of ObservableProperty class } } } I know that I can easily write it like this, if ObservableProperty[T] has Value/Value_= methods (this is the method I'm using now): trait IDrawable { // on a side note, is there some way to get a Symbol representing the Visible field // on the following line, instead of hard-coding it in the ObservableProperty // constructor? val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible.Value) { DrawOrder.Value += 1 } } } // given this implementation of ObservableProperty[T] in my library // note: IEvent, Event, and EventArgs are classes in my library for // handling lists of callbacks - they work similarly to events in C# class PropertyChangedEventArgs(val PropertyName: Symbol) extends EventArgs("") class ObservableProperty[T](val PropertyName: Symbol, private var value: T) { protected val propertyChanged = new Event[PropertyChangedEventArgs] def PropertyChanged: IEvent[PropertyChangedEventArgs] = propertyChanged def Value = value; def Value_=(value: T) { if(this.value != value) { this.value = value propertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) } } } But is there any way to implement the first version using implicits or some other feature/idiom of Scala to make ObservableProperty instances function as if they were regular "properties" in scala, without needing to call the Value methods? The only other thing I can think of is something like this, which is more verbose than either of the above two versions, but is still less verbose than the original: trait IDrawable { private val visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, false) def Visible = visible.Value def Visible_=(value: Boolean): Unit = { visible.Value = value } private val drawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def DrawOrder = drawOrder.Value def DrawOrder_=(value: Int): Unit = { drawOrder.Value = value } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 } } }

    Read the article

  • help merging perl code routines together for file processing

    - by jdamae
    I need some perl help in putting these (2) processes/code to work together. I was able to get them working individually to test, but I need help bringing them together especially with using the loop constructs. I'm not sure if I should go with foreach..anyways the code is below. Also, any best practices would be great too as I'm learning this language. Thanks for your help. Here's the process flow I am looking for: -read a directory -look for a particular file -use the file name to strip out some key information to create a newly processed file -process the input file -create the newly processed file for each input file read (if i read in 10, I create 10 new files) Sample Recs: col1,col2,col3,col4,col5 [email protected],[email protected],8,2009-09-24 21:00:46,1 [email protected],[email protected],16,2007-08-18 22:53:12,33 [email protected],[email protected],16,2007-08-18 23:41:23,33 Here's my test code: Target Filetype: `/backups/test/foo101.name.aue-foo_p002.20110124.csv` Part 1: my $target_dir = "/backups/test/"; opendir my $dh, $target_dir or die "can't opendir $target_dir: $!"; while (defined(my $file = readdir($dh))) { next if ($file =~ /^\.+$/); #Get filename attributes if ($file =~ /^foo(\d{3})\.name\.(\w{3})-foo_p(\d{1,4})\.\d+.csv$/) { print "$1\n"; print "$2\n"; print "$3\n"; } print "$file\n"; } Part 2: use strict; use Digest::MD5 qw(md5_hex); #Create new file open (NEWFILE, ">/backups/processed/foo$1.name.$2-foo_p$3.out") || die "cannot create file"; my $data = ''; my $line1 = <>; chomp $line1; my @heading = split /,/, $line1; my ($sep1, $sep2, $eorec) = ( "^A", "^E", "^D"); while (<>) { my $digest = md5_hex($data); chomp; my (@values) = split /,/; my $extra = "__mykey__$sep1$digest$sep2" ; $extra .= "$heading[$_]$sep1$values[$_]$sep2" for (0..scalar(@values)); $data .= "$extra$eorec"; print NEWFILE "$data"; } #print $data; close (NEWFILE);

    Read the article

  • Why does Git.pm on cygwin complain about 'Out of memory during "large" request?

    - by Charles Ma
    Hi, I'm getting this error while doing a git svn rebase in cygwin Out of memory during "large" request for 268439552 bytes, total sbrk() is 140652544 bytes at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/Git.pm line 898, <GEN1> line 3. 268439552 is 256MB. Cygwin's maxium memory size is set to 1024MB so I'm guessing that it has a different maximum memory size for perl? How can I increase the maximum memory size that perl programs can use? update: This is where the error occurs (in Git.pm): while (1) { my $bytesLeft = $size - $bytesRead; last unless $bytesLeft; my $bytesToRead = $bytesLeft < 1024 ? $bytesLeft : 1024; my $read = read($in, $blob, $bytesToRead, $bytesRead); //line 898 unless (defined($read)) { $self->_close_cat_blob(); throw Error::Simple("in pipe went bad"); } $bytesRead += $read; } I've added a print before line 898 to print out $bytesToRead and $bytesRead and the result was 1024 for $bytesToRead, and 134220800 for $bytesRead, so it's reading 1024 bytes at a time and it has already read 128MB. Perl's 'read' function must be out of memory and is trying to request for double it's memory size...is there a way to specify how much memory to request? or is that implementation dependent? UPDATE2: While testing memory allocation in cygwin: This C program's output was 1536MB int main() { unsigned int bit=0x40000000, sum=0; char *x; while (bit > 4096) { x = malloc(bit); if (x) sum += bit; bit >>= 1; } printf("%08x bytes (%.1fMb)\n", sum, sum/1024.0/1024.0); return 0; } While this perl program crashed if the file size is greater than 384MB (but succeeded if the file size was less). open(F, "<400") or die("can't read\n"); $size = -s "400"; $read = read(F, $s, $size); The error is similar Out of memory during "large" request for 536875008 bytes, total sbrk() is 217088 bytes at mem.pl line 6.

    Read the article

  • How to combine designable components with dependency injection

    - by Wim Coenen
    When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

    Read the article

  • Strange behavior of move with strings

    - by Umair Ahmed
    I am testing some enhanced string related functions with which I am trying to use move as a way to copy strings around for faster, more efficient use without delving into pointers. While testing a function for making a delimited string from a TStringList, I encountered a strange issue. The compiler referenced the bytes contained through the index when it was empty and when a string was added to it through move, index referenced the characters contained. Here is a small downsized barebone code sample:- unit UI; interface uses System.SysUtils, System.Types, System.UITypes, System.Rtti, System.Classes, System.Variants, FMX.Types, FMX.Controls, FMX.Forms, FMX.Dialogs, FMX.Layouts, FMX.Memo; type TForm1 = class(TForm) Results: TMemo; procedure FormCreate(Sender: TObject); end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.fmx} function StringListToDelimitedString ( const AStringList: TStringList; const ADelimiter: String ): String; var Str : String; Temp1 : NativeInt; Temp2 : NativeInt; DelimiterSize : Byte; begin Result := ' '; Temp1 := 0; DelimiterSize := Length ( ADelimiter ) * 2; for Str in AStringList do Temp1 := Temp1 + Length ( Str ); SetLength ( Result, Temp1 ); Temp1 := 1; for Str in AStringList do begin Temp2 := Length ( Str ) * 2; // Here Index references bytes in Result Move ( Str [1], Result [Temp1], Temp2 ); // From here the index seems to address characters instead of bytes in Result Temp1 := Temp1 + Temp2; Move ( ADelimiter [1], Result [Temp1], DelimiterSize ); Temp1 := Temp1 + DelimiterSize; end; end; procedure TForm1.FormCreate(Sender: TObject); var StrList : TStringList; Str : String; begin // Test 1 : StringListToDelimitedString StrList := TStringList.Create; Str := ''; StrList.Add ( 'Hello1' ); StrList.Add ( 'Hello2' ); StrList.Add ( 'Hello3' ); StrList.Add ( 'Hello4' ); Str := StringListToDelimitedString ( StrList, ';' ); Results.Lines.Add ( Str ); StrList.Free; end; end. Please devise a solution and if possible, some explanation. Alternatives are welcome too.

    Read the article

  • How does the rsync algorithm correctly identify repeating blocks?

    - by Kai
    I'm on a personal quest to learn how the rsync algorithm works. After some reading and thinking, I've come up with a situation where I think the algorithm fails. I'm trying to figure out how this is resolved in an actual implementation. Consider this example, where A is the receiver and B is the sender. A = abcde1234512345fghij B = abcde12345fghij As you can see, the only change is that 12345 has been removed. Now, to make this example interesting, let's choose a block size of 5 bytes (chars). Hashing the values on the sender's side using the weak checksum gives the following values list. abcde|12345|fghij abcde -> 495 12345 -> 255 fghij -> 520 values = [495, 255, 520] Next we check to see if any hash values differ in A. If there's a matching block we can skip to the end of that block for the next check. If there's a non-matching block then we've found a difference. I'll step through this process. Hash the first block. Does this hash exist in the values list? abcde -> 495 (yes, so skip) Hash the second block. Does this hash exist in the values list? 12345 -> 255 (yes, so skip) Hash the third block. Does this hash exist in the values list? 12345 -> 255 (yes, so skip) Hash the fourth block. Does this hash exist in the values list? fghij -> 520 (yes, so skip) No more data, we're done. Since every hash was found in the values list, we conclude that A and B are the same. Which, in my humble opinion, isn't true. It seems to me this will happen whenever there is more than one block that share the same hash. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Dijkstras Algorithm exaplination java

    - by alchemey89
    Hi, I have found an implementation for dijkstras algorithm on the internet and was wondering if someone could help me understand how the code works. Many thanks private int nr_points=0; private int[][]Cost; private int []mask; private void dijkstraTSP() { if(nr_points==0)return; //algorithm=new String("Dijkstra"); nod1=new Vector(); nod2=new Vector(); weight=new Vector(); mask=new int[nr_points]; //initialise mask with zeros (mask[x]=1 means the vertex is marked as used) for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++)mask[i]=0; //Dijkstra: int []dd=new int[nr_points]; int []pre=new int[nr_points]; int []path=new int[nr_points+1]; int init_vert=0,pos_in_path=0,new_vert=0; //initialise the vectors for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++) { dd[i]=Cost[init_vert][i]; pre[i]=init_vert; path[i]=-1; } pre[init_vert]=0; path[0]=init_vert; pos_in_path++; mask[init_vert]=1; for(int k=0;k<nr_points-1;k++) { //find min. cost in dd for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) if(dd[j]!=0 && mask[j]==0){new_vert=j; break;} for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) if(dd[j]<dd[new_vert] && mask[j]==0 && dd[j]!=0)new_vert=j; mask[new_vert]=1; path[pos_in_path]=new_vert; pos_in_path++; for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) { if(mask[j]==0) { if(dd[j]>dd[new_vert]+Cost[new_vert][j]) { dd[j]=dd[new_vert]+Cost[new_vert][j]; } } } } //Close the cycle path[nr_points]=init_vert; //Save the solution in 3 vectors (for graphical purposes) for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++) { nod1.addElement(path[i]); nod2.addElement(path[i+1]); weight.addElement(Cost[path[i]][path[i+1]]); } }

    Read the article

  • CSS3's border-radius property and border-collapse:collapse don't mix. How can I use border-radius to

    - by vamin
    Edit - Original Title: Is there an alternative way to achieve border-collapse:collapse in CSS (in order to have a collapsed, rounded corner table)? Since it turns out that simply getting the table's borders to collapse does not solve the root problem, I have updated the title to better reflect the discussion. I am trying to make a table with rounded corners using the CSS3 border-radius property. The table styles I'm using look something like this: table { -moz-border-radius:10px; -webkit-border-radius:10px; border-radius:10px} Here's the problem. I also want to set the border-collapse:collapse property, and when that is set border-radius no longer works (at least in Firefox)(edit- I thought this might just be a difference in mozilla's implementation, but it turns out this is the way it's supposed to work according to the w3c). Is there a CSS-based way I can get the same effect as border-collapse:collapse without actually using it? Edits: I've made a simple page to demonstrate the problem here (Firefox/Safari only). It seems that a large part of the problem is that setting the table to have rounded corners does not affect the corners of the corner td elements. If the table was all one color, this wouldn't be a problem since I could just make the top and bottom td corners rounded for the first and last row respectively. However, I am using different background colors for the table to differentiate the headings and for striping, so the inner td elements would show their rounded corners as well. Summary of proposed solutions: Surrounding the table with another element with round corners doesn't work because the table's square corners "bleed through." Specifying border width to 0 doesn't collapse the table. Bottom td corners still square after setting cellspacing to zero. Using javascript instead- works by avoiding the problem. Possible solutions: The tables are generated in php, so I could just apply a different class to each of the outer th/tds and style each corner separately. I'd rather not do this, since it's not very elegant and a bit of a pain to apply to multiple tables, so please keep suggestions coming. Possible solution 2 is to use javascript (jQuery, specifically) to style the corners. This solution also works, but still not quite what I'm looking for (I know I'm picky). I have two reservations: 1) this is a very lightweight site, and I'd like to keep javascript to the barest minimum 2) part of the appeal that using border-radius has for me is graceful degradation and progressive enhancement. By using border-radius for all rounded corners, I hope to have a consistently rounded site in CSS3-capable browsers and a consistently square site in others (I'm looking at you, IE). I know that trying to do this with CSS3 today may seem needless, but I have my reasons. I would also like to point out that this problem is a result of the w3c speficication, not poor CSS3 support, so any solution will still be relevant and useful when CSS3 has more widespread support.

    Read the article

  • Adding NavigationControl to a TabBar Application containing UITableViews

    - by kungfuslippers
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and wanted to get advice on the general design pattern / guide for putting a certain kind of app together. I'm trying to build a TabBar type application. One of the tabs needs to display a TableView and selecting a cell from within the table view will do something else - maybe show another table view or a web page. I need a Navigation Bar to be able to take me back from the table view/web page. The approach I've taken so far is to: Create an app based around UITabBarController as the rootcontroller i.e. @interface MyAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { IBOutlet UIWindow *window; IBOutlet UITabBarController *rootController; } Create a load of UIViewController derived classes and associated NIBs and wire everything up in IB so when I run the app I get the basic tabs working. I then take the UIViewController derived class and modify it to the following: @interface MyViewController : UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate> { } and I add the delegate methods to the implementation of MyViewController - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 2; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.row == 0) { cell.textLabel.text = @"Mummy"; } else { cell.textLabel.text = @"Daddy"; } return cell; } Go back to IB , open MyViewController.xib and drop a UITableView onto it. Set the Files Owner to be MyViewController and then set the delegate and datasource of the UITableView to be MyViewController. If I run the app now, I get the table view appearing with mummy and daddy working nicely. So far so good. The question is how do I go about incorporating a Navigation Bar into my current code for when I implement: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath() { // get row selected NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; if (row == 0) { // Show another table } else if (row == 1) { // Show a web view } } Do I drop a NavigationBar UI control onto MyControllerView.xib ? Should I create it programmatically? Should I be using a UINavigationController somewhere ? I've tried dropping a NavigationBar onto my MyControllerView.xib in IB but its not shown when I run the app, only the TableView is displayed.

    Read the article

  • Executing a .NET Managed Assembly from SQL Server 2008 - Pro's, Con's & Recommendations

    - by RPM1984
    Hi guys, looking for opinions/recommendations/links for the following scenario im currently facing. The Platform: .NET 4.0 Web Application SQL Server 2008 The Task: Overhaul a component of the system that performs (fairly) complex mathematical operations based on a specific user activity, and updates numerous tables in the database. A common user activity might be "Bob" decides to post a forum topic. This results in (the end-solution) needing to look at various factors (about the post he did), then after doing some math based on lookup values/ratios as well as other data in the database, inserting some other data as a result of these operations. The Options: Ok - so here's what im thinking. Although it would be much easier to do this in C# (LINQ-SQL) it doesnt make much sense as the majority of the computations are based on values in the db, and it will get difficult to control/optimize/debug the LINQ over time. Hence, im leaning towards created a managed assembly (C# Class Library) that contains the lookup values (constants) as well as leveraging the math classes in the existing .NET BCL. Basically i'd expose a few methods that can be called by the T-SQL Stored Procedures. This to me has the following advantages: Simplicity of math. Do complex math in .NET vs complex math in T-SQL. No brainer. =) Abstraction of computatations, configurable "lookup" values and business logic from raw T-SQL. T-SQL only needs to care about the data, simplifying the stored procedures and making it easier to maintain. When it needs to do math it delegates off to the managed assembly. So, having said that - ive never done this before (call .NET assmembly from T-SQL), and after some googling the best site i could come up with is here, which is useful but outdated. So - what am i asking? Well, firstly - i need some better references on how to actually do this. "This" being how to call a C# .NET 4 Assembly from within T-SQL Stored Procedures in SQL Server 2008. Secondly, who out there has done this, what problems (if any) did you face? Realize this may be difficult to provide a "correct answer", so ill try to give it to whoever gives me the answer with a combination of good links and a list of pro's/con's/problems with this implementation. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Multiple infowindows - tearing my hair out

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'll admit I'm nowhere near the best programmer on the planet - and I'm used to the answer staring me right in the face but not making sense of it. Problem I need to display multiple markers on a map, each with their own infowindow. I have created the individual markers without a problem, but don't know how to create the infowindows for each. Steps so far I am generating a map using the V3 API within an ASP-based website, with markers being created from a set of DB records. The markers are created by looping through a rs and defining a marker() with the relevant variables: var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(lat,long); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: myLatlng, title: 'locationname', icon: 'http://google-maps-icons.googlecode.com/files/park.png' }); This is creating all the relevant markers in their correct locations. What I need to do now, and am not sure of how to achieve is give each of them their own unique infowindow which I can use to display information and links relevant to that marker. Source <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //Google Maps var myOptions = { zoom: 5, center: new google.maps.LatLng(-26.66, 122.25), mapTypeControl: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: true, navigationControlOptions: { style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.SMALL } } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); <!-- While locations_haslatlong not BOF.EOF --> <% While ((Repeat1__numRows <> 0) AND (NOT locations_haslatlong.EOF)) %> var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(<%=(locations_haslatlong.Fields.Item("llat").Value)%>,<%=(locations_haslatlong.Fields.Item("llong").Value)%>); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: myLatlng, title: '<%=(locations_haslatlong.Fields.Item("ldescription").Value)%>', icon: 'http://google-maps-icons.googlecode.com/files/park.png', clickable: true, }); <% Repeat1__index=Repeat1__index+1 Repeat1__numRows=Repeat1__numRows-1 locations_haslatlong.MoveNext() Wend %> <!-- End While locations_haslatlong not BOF.EOF --> google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map,marker); }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'dblclick', function() { map.setZoom(14); }); });

    Read the article

  • XPointers in SVG

    - by Nycto
    I've been trying to get XPointer URIs working in an SVG file, but haven't had any luck so far. After trying something more complicated and failing, I simplified it down to just referencing an ID. However, this still fails. The spec seems pretty clear about this implementation: http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG/struct.html#URIReference I found an example online of what should be a working XPointer reference within an svg document. Here is the Original. Here is the version I copied out: <?xml version="1.0" standalone="no"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/Graphics/SVG/1.1/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <svg width="500" height="200" version="1.1" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink"> <defs> <rect id="simpleRect" width="100px" height="75px"/> </defs> <use xlink:href="#simpleRect" x="50" y="50" style="fill:red"/> <use xlink:href="#xpointer(id('simpleRect'))" x="250" y="50" style="fill:yellow"/> </svg> This should display two rectangles... one red and one yellow. I tried rendering with Firefox 3.6 and Inkscape 0.47. No success. Only the Red rectangle shows. What am I missing? Thanks for any help you can offer

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 740 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751  | Next Page >