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  • How can I have a Makefile automatically rebuild source files that include a modified header file? (I

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I have the following makefile that I use to build a program (a kernel, actually) that I'm working on. Its from scratch and I'm learning about the process, so its not perfect, but I think its powerful enough at this point for my level of experience writing makefiles. AS = nasm CC = gcc LD = ld TARGET = core BUILD = build SOURCES = source INCLUDE = include ASM = assembly VPATH = $(SOURCES) CFLAGS = -Wall -O -fstrength-reduce -fomit-frame-pointer -finline-functions \ -nostdinc -fno-builtin -I $(INCLUDE) ASFLAGS = -f elf #CFILES = core.c consoleio.c system.c CFILES = $(foreach dir,$(SOURCES),$(notdir $(wildcard $(dir)/*.c))) SFILES = assembly/start.asm SOBJS = $(SFILES:.asm=.o) COBJS = $(CFILES:.c=.o) OBJS = $(SOBJS) $(COBJS) build : $(TARGET).img $(TARGET).img : $(TARGET).elf c:/python26/python.exe concat.py stage1 stage2 pad.bin core.elf floppy.img $(TARGET).elf : $(OBJS) $(LD) -T link.ld -o $@ $^ $(SOBJS) : $(SFILES) $(AS) $(ASFLAGS) $< -o $@ %.o: %.c @echo Compiling $<... $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -c -o $@ $< #Clean Script - Should clear out all .o files everywhere and all that. clean: -del *.img -del *.o -del assembly\*.o -del core.elf My main issue with this makefile is that when I modify a header file that one or more C files include, the C files aren't rebuilt. I can fix this quite easily by having all of my header files be dependencies for all of my C files, but that would effectively cause a complete rebuild of the project any time I changed/added a header file, which would not be very graceful. What I want is for only the C files that include the header file I change to be rebuilt, and for the entire project to be linked again. I can do the linking by causing all header files to be dependencies of the target, but I cannot figure out how to make the C files be invalidated when their included header files are newer. I've heard that GCC has some commands to make this possible (so the makefile can somehow figure out which files need to be rebuilt) but I can't for the life of me find an actual implementation example to look at. Can someone post a solution that will enable this behavior in a makefile? EDIT: I should clarify, I'm familiar with the concept of putting the individual targets in and having each target.o require the header files. That requires me to be editing the makefile every time I include a header file somewhere, which is a bit of a pain. I'm looking for a solution that can derive the header file dependencies on its own, which I'm fairly certain I've seen in other projects.

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  • Switch case assembly level code

    - by puffadder
    Hi All, I am programming C on cygwin windows. After having done a bit of C programming and getting comfortable with the language, I wanted to look under the hood and see what the compiler is doing for the code that I write. So I wrote down a code block containing switch case statements and converted them into assembly using: gcc -S foo.c Here is the C source: switch(i) { case 1: { printf("Case 1\n"); break; } case 2: { printf("Case 2\n"); break; } case 3: { printf("Case 3\n"); break; } case 4: { printf("Case 4\n"); break; } case 5: { printf("Case 5\n"); break; } case 6: { printf("Case 6\n"); break; } case 7: { printf("Case 7\n"); break; } case 8: { printf("Case 8\n"); break; } case 9: { printf("Case 9\n"); break; } case 10: { printf("Case 10\n"); break; } default: { printf("Nothing\n"); break; } } Now the resultant assembly for the same is: movl $5, -4(%ebp) cmpl $10, -4(%ebp) ja L13 movl -4(%ebp), %eax sall $2, %eax movl L14(%eax), %eax jmp *%eax .section .rdata,"dr" .align 4 L14: .long L13 .long L3 .long L4 .long L5 .long L6 .long L7 .long L8 .long L9 .long L10 .long L11 .long L12 .text L3: movl $LC0, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L4: movl $LC1, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L5: movl $LC2, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L6: movl $LC3, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L7: movl $LC4, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L8: movl $LC5, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L9: movl $LC6, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L10: movl $LC7, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L11: movl $LC8, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L12: movl $LC9, (%esp) call _printf jmp L2 L13: movl $LC10, (%esp) call _printf L2: Now, in the assembly, the code is first checking the last case (i.e. case 10) first. This is very strange. And then it is copying 'i' into 'eax' and doing things that are beyond me. I have heard that the compiler implements some jump table for switch..case. Is it what this code is doing? Or what is it doing and why? Because in case of less number of cases, the code is pretty similar to that generated for if...else ladder, but when number of cases increases, this unusual-looking implementation is seen. Thanks in advance.

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  • WLI domain with 3 servers - issues on JPD process startup

    - by XpiritO
    Hi there. I'm currently working on a clustered WLI environment which comprehends 3 servers: 1 admin server ("AdminServer") and 2 managed servers ("mn1" and "mn2") grouped as a cluster, as follows: Architecture diagram: http://img72.imageshack.us/img72/4112/clusterdiagram.jpg I've developed a JPD process to execute some scheduled tasks, invoked using a Message Broker. I've deployed this project into a single-server WLI domain (with AdminServer only) and it works as expected: the JPD process is invoked (I've configured a Timer Event Generator instance to start it up). Message broker: http://img532.imageshack.us/img532/1443/wlimessagebroker.jpg Timer event generator: http://img408.imageshack.us/img408/7358/wlitimereventgenerator.jpg In order to achieve fail-over and load-balancing capabilities, I'm currently trying to deploy this JPD process into this clustered WLI environment. Although, I'm having some issues with this, as I cannot get it to work properly, even if it still works. Here is a screenshot of the "WLI Process Instance Monitor" (with AdminServer and mn1 instances up and running): http://img710.imageshack.us/img710/8477/wliprocessinstancemonit.jpg According to this screen the process seems to be running, as it shows in this instance monitor screen. However, I don't see any output coming out neither at AdminServer console or mn1 console. In single-server domain it was visible output from JPD process "timeout" callback method, wich implementation is shown below: @com.bea.wli.control.broker.MessageBroker.StaticSubscription(xquery = "", filterValueMatch = "", channelName = "/SamplePrefix/Samples/SampleStringChannel", messageBody = "{x0}") public void subscription(java.lang.String x0) { String toReturn=""; try { Context myCtx = new InitialContext(); MBeanHome mbeanHome = (MBeanHome)myCtx.lookup("weblogic.management.home.localhome"); toReturn=mbeanHome.getMBeanServer().getServerName(); System.out.println("**** executed at **** " + System.currentTimeMillis() + " by: " + toReturn); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception!"); e.printStackTrace(); } } (...) @org.apache.beehive.controls.api.events.EventHandler(field = "myT", eventSet = com.bea.control.WliTimerControl.Callback.class, eventName = "onTimeout") public void myT_onTimeout(long time, java.io.Serializable data) { // #START: CODE GENERATED - PROTECTED SECTION - you can safely add code above this comment in this method. #// // input transform System.out.println("**** published at **** " + System.currentTimeMillis()); publishControl.publish("aaaa"); // parameter assignment // #END : CODE GENERATED - PROTECTED SECTION - you can safely add code below this comment in this method. #// } and here is the output visible at "AdminServer" console in single-server domain testing: **** published at **** 1273238090713 **** executed at **** 1273238132123 by: AdminServer **** published at **** 1273238152462 **** executed at **** 1273238152562 by: AdminServer (...) What may be wrong with my clustered configuration? Am I missing something to accomplish clustered deployment? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Javascript Global Variables Not Working as expected. Help?

    - by capri corn
    I am new to Javascript. I am facing a problem with global variables. I can't figure out that why the global variables are not working as the code looks ok. Please Help me solve this problem. I will breifly explain the code first.I have some text on a page which changes to text field when clicked. When I define the variables inside the functions body the code starts working fine. When these variables are defined globally as in the following code, the console displays this error: the variable is not defined. Here my code: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Span to Text Box - Demo - DOM</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> var textNode = document.getElementById('text'); var textValue = textNode.firstChild.nodeValue; var textboxNode = document.getElementById('textbox'); var doneButton = document.getElementById('done'); function change() { textboxNode.setAttribute('value', textValue); textNode.style.display = 'none'; textboxNode.setAttribute('type','text'); doneButton.setAttribute('type','button'); } function changeBack() { textNode.firstChild.nodeValue = textboxNode.value; textNode.style.display = 'block'; textboxNode.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); doneButton.setAttribute('type','hidden'); } </script> </head> <body> <p id="text" onClick="change()">Click me!</p> <form onSubmit="return false;"> <input type="hidden" id="textbox" /> <input type="hidden" id="done" onClick="changeBack()" value="Done" /> </form> </body> </html> Please Help! Thanks in Advance.

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  • WCF Service with callbacks coming from background thread?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my situation. I have written a WCF service which calls into one of our vendor's code bases to perform operations, such as Login, Logout, etc. A requirement of this operation is that we have a background thread to receive events as a result of that action. For example, the Login action is sent on the main thread. Then, several events are received back from the vendor service as a result of the login. There can be 1, 2, or several events received. The background thread, which runs on a timer, receives these events and fires an event in the wcf service to notify that a new event has arrived. I have implemented the WCF service in Duplex mode, and planned to use callbacks to notify the UI that events have arrived. Here is my question: How do I send new events from the background thread to the thread which is executing the service? Right now, when I call OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IMyCallback>(), the OperationContext is null. Is there a standard pattern to get around this? I am using PerSession as my SessionMode on the ServiceContract. UPDATE: I thought I'd make my exact scenario clearer by demonstrating how I'm receiving events from the vendor code. My library receives each event, determines what the event is, and fires off an event for that particular occurrence. I have another project which is a class library specifically for connecting to the vendor service. I'll post the entire implementation of the service to give a clearer picture: [ServiceBehavior( InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession )] public class VendorServer:IVendorServer { private IVendorService _vendorService; // This is the reference to my class library public VendorServer() { _vendorServer = new VendorServer(); _vendorServer.AgentManager.AgentLoggedIn += AgentManager_AgentLoggedIn; // This is the eventhandler for the event which arrives from a background thread } public void Login(string userName, string password, string stationId) { _vendorService.Login(userName, password, stationId); // This is a direct call from the main thread to the vendor service to log in } private void AgentManager_AgentLoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { var agentEvent = new AgentEvent { AgentEventType = AgentEventType.Login, EventArgs = e }; } } The AgentEvent object contains the callback as one of its properties, and I was thinking I'd perform the callback like this: agentEvent.Callback = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<ICallback>(); How would I pass the OperationContext.Current instance from the main thread into the background thread?

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  • What variable dictates position of non-focused elements in the roundabout plugin?

    - by kristina childs
    Part of the problem here is that i'm not sure what the best language to use in order to find the solution. I search and searched so please forgive if this is already a thread somewhere. I'm using the roundabout plugin to cycle through 3 divs. Each div is 794px wide, which makes the roundabout-in-focus element 794 and the two not in focus 315.218px wide, positioned so half of each is hidden by the in-focus div. This is all well and good, however the total width of the display needs to stay within 1000px (ideally 980px, but i can fudge if need be.) Basically I want to make the non-focused divs be 3/4 hidden by the in-focus div but for the life of me can't figure out what variables i need to edit in order to do it. Unfortunately it's not one of the many easily-changed options like z-index and minScale. i tried minScale but it's clear this isn't going to work. the plugin outputs this code: <li class="roundabout-moveable-item" style="position: absolute; left: -57px; top: 205px; width: 319.982px; height: 149.513px; opacity: 0.7; z-index: 146; font-size: 5.6px;"> i need to find out what changes the left positioning so it's shifted closer to the center of the stage, like this: <li class="roundabout-moveable-item" style="position: absolute; left: 5px; top: 205px; width: 319.982px; height: 149.513px; opacity: 0.7; z-index: 146; font-size: 5.6px;"> i tried playing with the positioning functions of the plugin but all that did was shift everything in tandem left or right. any help is greatly appreciated. this site is going to be awesome once i figure out all this jquery stuff! here is a link to my .js file: http://avalon.eaw.com/scripts/jquery.roundabout2.js i've got an overflow:hidden on the to help guide the positioning of those no-focused items.

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  • Why does the following Java Script fail to load XML?

    - by Pavitar
    I have taken an example taught to us in class,wherein a javascript is used to retrieve data from the XML,but it doesn't work.Please help I have also added the XML file below. <html> <head> <title>Customer Info</title> <script language="javascript"> var xmlDoc = 0; var xmlObj = 0; function loadCustomers(){ xmlDoc = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOM"); xmlDoc.async = "false"; xmlDoc.onreadystatechange = displayCustomers; xmlDoc.load("customers.xml"); } function displayCustomers(){ if(xmlDoc.readyState == 4){ xmlObj = xmlDoc.documentElement; var len = xmlObj.childNodes.length; for(i = 0; i < len; i++){ var nodeElement = xmlObj.childNodes[i]; document.write(nodeElement.attributes[0].value); for(j = 0; j < nodeElement.childNodes.length; j++){ document.write(" " + nodeElement.childNodes[j].firstChild.nodeValue); } document.write("<br/>"); } } } </script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="button" value="Load XML" onClick="loadCustomers()"> </form> </body> </html> XML(customers.xml) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <customers> <customer custid="CU101"> <pwd>PW101</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> <customer custid="CU102"> <pwd>PW102</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> <customer custid="CU103"> <pwd>PW103</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> <customer custid="CU104"> <pwd>PW104</pwd> <email>[email protected]</email> </customer> </customers>

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  • C++ Virtual Constructor, without clone()

    - by Julien L.
    I want to perform "deep copies" of an STL container of pointers to polymorphic classes. I know about the Prototype design pattern, implemented by means of the Virtual Ctor Idiom, as explained in the C++ FAQ Lite, Item 20.8. It is simple and straightforward: struct ABC // Abstract Base Class { virtual ~ABC() {} virtual ABC * clone() = 0; }; struct D1 : public ABC { virtual D1 * clone() { return new D1( *this ); } // Covariant Return Type }; A deep copy is then: for( i = 0; i < oldVector.size(); ++i ) newVector.push_back( oldVector[i]->clone() ); Drawbacks As Andrei Alexandrescu states it: The clone() implementation must follow the same pattern in all derived classes; in spite of its repetitive structure, there is no reasonable way to automate defining the clone() member function (beyond macros, that is). Moreover, clients of ABC can possibly do something bad. (I mean, nothing prevents clients to do something bad, so, it will happen.) Better design? My question is: is there another way to make an abstract base class clonable without requiring derived classes to write clone-related code? (Helper class? Templates?) Following is my context. Hopefully, it will help understanding my question. I am designing a class hierarchy to perform operations on a class Image: struct ImgOp { virtual ~ImgOp() {} bool run( Image & ) = 0; }; Image operations are user-defined: clients of the class hierarchy will implement their own classes derived from ImgOp: struct CheckImageSize : public ImgOp { std::size_t w, h; bool run( Image &i ) { return w==i.width() && h==i.height(); } }; struct CheckImageResolution; struct RotateImage; ... Multiple operations can be performed sequentially on an image: bool do_operations( std::vector< ImgOp* > v, Image &i ) { std::for_each( v.begin(), v.end(), /* bind2nd(mem_fun(&ImgOp::run), i ...) don't remember syntax */ ); } int main( ... ) { std::vector< ImgOp* > v; v.push_back( new CheckImageSize ); v.push_back( new CheckImageResolution ); v.push_back( new RotateImage ); Image i; do_operations( v, i ); } If there are multiple images, the set can be split and shared over several threads. To ensure "thread-safety", each thread must have its own copy of all operation objects contained in v -- v becomes a prototype to be deep copied in each thread.

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  • Move options between multiple lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. EDIT: Having now actually sat down to try to code the non-javascripty bits, I need to revise my question, because I realized that multiple select lists won't really work from the "how do I inform the server about all this lovely new information" standpoint. So the html code is now a pseudo-listbox, i.e. an unordered list (ul) displayed in a box with a scrollbar, and each list item (<li>) has a set of five radio buttons (unselected/own/read/like/heard). My task is still roughly the same: how to take this one list and make it easy to categorize the items, in such a way that the user can tell at a glance what is in what category. (The pseudo-listbox has some of the same disadvantages as a multi-select listbox, namely it's hard to tell what's selected if the list is long enough to scroll.) The dream solution would be a drag-and-drop type thing, but at this point even buttons would be OK. Another modification (a good one) is that the client has revised the lists, so the longest is now "only" 62 items long (instead of the many hundreds they had before). The categories will still mostly contain zero, one, or two selected items, possibly a couple more if the user was overzealous. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :) [existing code deleted because it's largely irrelevant.]

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  • Difference in DocumentBuilder.parse when using JRE 1.5 and JDK 1.6

    - by dhiller
    Recently at last we have switched our projects to Java 1.6. When executing the tests I found out that using 1.6 a SAXParseException is not thrown which has been thrown using 1.5. Below is my test code to demonstrate the problem. import java.io.StringReader; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilder; import javax.xml.parsers.DocumentBuilderFactory; import javax.xml.transform.stream.StreamSource; import javax.xml.validation.SchemaFactory; import org.junit.Test; import org.xml.sax.InputSource; import org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; /** * Test class to demonstrate the difference between JDK 1.5 to JDK 1.6. * * Seen on Linux: * * <pre> * #java version "1.6.0_18" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_18-b07) * Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (build 16.0-b13, mixed mode) * </pre> * * Seen on OSX: * * <pre> * java version "1.6.0_17" * Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_17-b04-248-10M3025) * Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 14.3-b01-101, mixed mode) * </pre> * * @author dhiller (creator) * @author $Author$ (last editor) * @version $Revision$ * @since 12.03.2010 11:32:31 */ public class TestXMLValidation { /** * Tests the schema validation of an XML against a simple schema. * * @throws Exception * Falls ein Fehler auftritt * @throws junit.framework.AssertionFailedError * Falls eine Unit-Test-Pruefung fehlschlaegt */ @Test(expected = SAXParseException.class) public void testValidate() throws Exception { final StreamSource schema = new StreamSource( new StringReader( "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>" + "<xs:schema xmlns:xs=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" " + "elementFormDefault=\"qualified\" xmlns:xsd=\"undefined\">" + "<xs:element name=\"Test\"/>" + "</xs:schema>" ) ); final String xml = "<Test42/>"; final DocumentBuilderFactory newFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); newFactory.setSchema( SchemaFactory.newInstance( "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" ).newSchema( schema ) ); final DocumentBuilder documentBuilder = newFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); documentBuilder.parse( new InputSource( new StringReader( xml ) ) ); } } When using a JVM 1.5 the test passes, on 1.6 it fails with "Expected exception SAXParseException". The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilderFactory.setSchema(Schema) Method says: When errors are found by the validator, the parser is responsible to report them to the user-specified ErrorHandler (or if the error handler is not set, ignore them or throw them), just like any other errors found by the parser itself. In other words, if the user-specified ErrorHandler is set, it must receive those errors, and if not, they must be treated according to the implementation specific default error handling rules. The Javadoc of the DocumentBuilder.parse(InputSource) method says: BTW: I tried setting an error handler via setErrorHandler, but there still is no exception. Now my question: What has changed to 1.6 that prevents the schema validation to throw a SAXParseException? Is it related to the schema or to the xml that I tried to parse?

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  • Python/Biomolecular Physics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation of a system exhibiting co

    - by user359597
    *edited 6/17/10 I'm trying to understand how to improve my code (make it more pythonic). Also, I'm interested in writing more intuitive 'conditionals' that would describe scenarios that are commonplace in biochemistry. The conditional criteria in the below program is explained in Answer #2, but I am not satisfied with it- it is correct, but isn't obvious and isn't easy to implement for more complicated conditional scenarios. Ideas welcome. Comments/criticisms welcome. First posting experience @ stackoverflow- please comment on etiquette if needed. The code generates a list of values that are the solution to the following exercise: "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

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  • Calculate total time between Dates in Hours and Minutes

    - by matthew parkes
    Hi I’m trying to resolve a problem using VB and I need some assistance. I’m very new to the language (1 week). The problem is I have created a user form to show how many hours and minutes has elapsed between two different times similar to a time sheet. The user form consists of two calendars, and under each calendar there are two text boxes; one box each to record the Hour and Minute they left and two further boxes to record the time they arrived back. I have used the code to minus the calendars together (e.g calendar in – calendar out) then times this by 24 to indicate the hours away. Then under the calendar out I have a text box for the user to type in the hour they left. Then I minus the 24 by the Hour out e.g. if it was 24 -15 it will appear 9 ( 9 hours of that day ) then I would add that to the figure they inserted in the text box Hour in (Return Time). e.g 14. Then I would add them to together e.g. 9 + 14 = 23 and have this displayed in another text box Total Hours. Therefore it would display 23 meaning 23 hours. I have then want to show another two text boxes to indicate minutes. One for Minutes Out then Minutes In. I have the problem to convert these minutes for instance if it is the out time is 15:50 and the in time the next day is at 15:55 it displays as 24 (in one text box) and 105 minutes (in the other text box). I would like the minutes added to the hour and have the balance of the remaining minutes in the minute text box. This should display 24 (in one text box) and 5 (in another text box). The ultimate aim is to get a result that shows a person was absent for a number of days, hours and minutes, eg, 2 days, 5 hours and 10 minutes. Any ideas on how I can modify my code to achieve this? Here’s my code. Please Help Dim number1 As Date Dim number2 As Date Dim number3 As Integer Dim number4 As Integer Dim Number5 As Integer Dim Number6 As Integer Dim answer As Integer Dim answer2 As Integer Dim answer3 As Integer Dim answer4 As Integer Dim answer5 As String number1 = DTPicker1 number2 = DTPicker2 number3 = Txthourout number4 = TxtHourin Number5 = TxtMinuteout Number6 = TxtMinuetIn answer = number2 - number1 answer2 = answer * 24 answer3 = answer2 - number3 answer4 = answer3 + number4 answer5 = Number5 + Number6 TextBox1.Text = answer4 TextBox2.Text = answer5 End Sub

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  • what will be the code to move to previous textfield ?

    - by rajesh
    i have the code if i press down button it goes to next textfield but to go to previous textfield what should be the code ... <html> <head> <script language="JavaScript"> function handleKeyDownEvent(elementRef,eventRef) { var charCode = (window.event) ? eventRef.keyCode : eventRef.which; //alert(charCode); // Arrow keys (37:left, 38:up, 39:right, 40:down)... if (charCode == 40) { if (window.event) window.event.keyCode = 9; else event.which = 9; return true; } return true; } </script> </head> <body> <table width="433" border="1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> </tr> <tr> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="radio" id="check" name="check" checked> </td> <td> <input type="radio" id="check" name="check" checked> </td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="checkbox" id="check" name="check"></td> <td><input type="checkbox" id="check" name="check"></td> </tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • How to update NSMutableDictionary. My code doesn't work.

    - by dawatson833
    I've populated an array using. arrSettings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self settingsPath]]; The file is a plist with the root as an array and then a dictionary with three three keys defined as number. I've also tried setting the keys to string. I display the values in the plist file on a view using. diaper = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; oil = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Oil Used"]; tree = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Wood Used"]; This code works fine, the values in the dictionary are assigned to the variables and they are displayed. The user can make changes and then press a save button. I use this code to extract the dictionary part of the array so I can update it. The assignment to editDictionary works. I've double checked the key names including case and that is correct. editDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; editDictionary = [arrSettings objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:diaperAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:oilAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Oil Used"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:treeAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Wood Used"]; In this example I've used a nsnumber. But I've also tried the xxxAmount field as part of SetValue instead of creating a NSNumber. Neither implementation works. Several strange things happen. Sometimes the first two setvalue statements work, but the last setvalue fails with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS failure. Other times the first setValue fails with the same error. I have no idea why the first two sometimes work. I'm at a loss of what to do next. I've tried several implentations and none of them work. Also, in the debugger how can I display the editDictionary elements. I can see editDictionary, but I don't know how to display the individual elements.

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  • The best way to separate admin functionality from a public site?

    - by AndrewO
    I'm working on a site that's grown both in terms of user-base and functionality to the point where it's becoming evident that some of the admin tasks should be separate from the public website. I was wondering what the best way to do this would be. For example, the site has a large social component to it, and a public sales interface. But at the same time, there's back office tasks, bulk upload processing, dashboards (with long running queries), and customer relations tools in the admin section that I would like to not be effected by spikes in public traffic (or effect the public-facing response time). The site is running on a fairly standard Rails/MySQL/Linux stack, but I think this is more of an architecture problem than an implementation one: mainly, how does one keep the data and business logic in sync between these different applications? Some strategies that I'm evaluating: 1) Create a slave database of the public facing database on another machine. Extract out all of the model and library code so that it can be shared between the applications. Create new controllers and views for the admin interfaces. I have limited experience with replication and am not even sure that it's supposed to be used this way (most of the time I've seen it, it's been for scaling out the read capabilities of the same application, rather than having multiple different ones). I'm also worried about the potential for latency issues if the slave is not on the same network. 2) Create new more task/department-specific applications and use a message oriented middleware to integrate them. I read Enterprise Integration Patterns awhile back and they seemed to advocate this for distributed systems. (Alternatively, in some cases the basic Rails-style RESTful API functionality might suffice.) But, I have nightmares about data synchronization issues and the massive re-architecting that this would entail. 3) Some mixture of the two. For example, the only public information necessary for some of the back office tasks is a read-only completion time or status. Would it make sense to have that on a completely separate system and send the data to public? Meanwhile, the user/group admin functionality would be run on a separate system sharing the database? The downside is, this seems to keep many of the concerns I have with the first two, especially the re-architecting. I'm sure the answers are going to be highly dependent on a site's specific needs, but I'd love to hear success (or failure) stories.

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  • Deterministic key serialization

    - by Mike Boers
    I'm writing a mapping class which uses SQLite as the storage backend. I am currently allowing only basestring keys but it would be nice if I could use a couple more types hopefully up to anything that is hashable (ie. same requirements as the builtin dict). To that end I would like to derive a deterministic serialization scheme. Ideally, I would like to know if any implementation/protocol combination of pickle is deterministic for hashable objects (e.g. can only use cPickle with protocol 0). I noticed that pickle and cPickle do not match: >>> import pickle >>> import cPickle >>> def dumps(x): ... print repr(pickle.dumps(x)) ... print repr(cPickle.dumps(x)) ... >>> dumps(1) 'I1\n.' 'I1\n.' >>> dumps('hello') "S'hello'\np0\n." "S'hello'\np1\n." >>> dumps((1, 2, 'hello')) "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np0\ntp1\n." "(I1\nI2\nS'hello'\np1\ntp2\n." Another option is to use repr to dump and ast.literal_eval to load. This would only be valid for builtin hashable types. I have written a function to determine if a given key would survive this process (it is rather conservative on the types it allows): def is_reprable_key(key): return type(key) in (int, str, unicode) or (type(key) == tuple and all( is_reprable_key(x) for x in key)) The question for this method is if repr itself is deterministic for the types that I have allowed here. I believe this would not survive the 2/3 version barrier due to the change in str/unicode literals. This also would not work for integers where 2**32 - 1 < x < 2**64 jumping between 32 and 64 bit platforms. Are there any other conditions (ie. do strings serialize differently under different conditions)? (If this all fails miserably then I can store the hash of the key along with the pickle of both the key and value, then iterate across rows that have a matching hash looking for one that unpickles to the expected key, but that really does complicate a few other things and I would rather not do it.) Any insights?

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  • Simple calculator app crashes when a third number key is punched.

    - by Justin
    Hi , I am a newbie to the iphone app world. So I thought I try my luck with a calculator app. Unfortunately I am running into an issue where if I press a third key in the calculator the app crashes. Sometimes I get this error EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Here is a code in my CalculatorViewController.m file. #import "CalculatorViewController.h" @implementation CalculatorViewController @synthesize screenText; - (IBAction)buttonPressed:(id)sender { NSString *title = [sender titleForState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self collect:title]; } - (void)collect:(NSString *)digitz { NSString * newText = nil; if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"+"]) { [self add:result]; big_digit = nil; } else if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"+"]) { [self sub:result]; } else if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"x"]) { [self multiply:result]; } else if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"="]) { [self equate:result]; } else { if (big_digit != nil && [big_digit isEqualToString:@"0"] == FALSE) big_digit = [big_digit stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@",digitz]; else big_digit = (NSMutableString *) digitz; result = (int) big_digit; newText = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat: @"%@",big_digit]; } screenText.text = newText; [newText release]; } - (void)add:(int)res { NSString * newText = nil; ans = ans + res; newText = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat: @"%@",ans]; screenText.text = newText; [newText release]; } Can anyone spot an obvious issue here. Here is the respective header file too. #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface CalculatorViewController : UIViewController { UILabel *screenText; int number; int result; int ans; //NSString *big_digit; NSMutableString * big_digit ; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *screenText; - (IBAction)buttonPressed:(id)sender; - (void)collect:(NSString *)digitz; - (void)add:(int)num; - (void)sub:(int)num; - (void)multiply:(int)num; - (void)equate:(int)num; @end

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  • Getting access to a binary response byte-by-byte in classic asp/JScript

    - by user89691
    I asked this question a few days ago but it seems to have gone cold fairly quickly. What I want to do is pretty simple and I can't believe someone hasn't figured it out. Solution needs to be JScript classic ASP. I am reading a file from a remote server and I want to process that (binary) file on my server and spit the results back to the client as XML. Here's a simplified version of what I am trying to do. This code runs, or will if the URL is filled in for your site. This test file is readbin.asp. It reads a file called test.bin, and writes the result to a stream. I used a stream because that makes it easier to read the file and parse the contents. Basically I want to: while not end of stream read byte from stream process byte here is readbin.asp: <%@ LANGUAGE = JScript %> <% var url = "http:// (... your URL to the file test.bin goes here...) " ; var xmlhttp = Server.CreateObject ("MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP") ; xmlhttp.open ("GET", url, false) ; xmlhttp.send () ; var BinaryInputStream = Server.CreateObject ("ADODB.Stream") ; BinaryInputStream.Type = 1 ; // binary BinaryInputStream.Open ; BinaryInputStream.Write (xmlhttp.responseBody) ; BinaryInputStream.Position = 0 ; Response.Write ("BinaryInputStream.size = " + BinaryInputStream.size + "<br>") ; Response.Write ("BinaryInputStream = " + BinaryInputStream + "<br>") ; var ByteValue = BinaryInputStream.read (1) ; Response.Write ("ByteValue = " + ByteValue + "<br>") ; Response.Write ("typeof (ByteValue) = " + typeof (ByteValue) + "<br>") ; %> My problem is: how do I get ByteValue as a number 0..255? typeof (ByteValue) is "unknown". Ord?? Byte()?? Asc?? Chr??

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  • multithreading with database

    - by Darsin
    I am looking out for a strategy to utilize multithreading (probably asynchronous delegates) to do a synchronous operation. I am new to multithreading so i will outline my scenario first. This synchronous operation right now is done for one set of data (portfolio) based on the the parameters provided. The (psudeo-code) implementation is given below: public DataSet DoTests(int fundId, DateTime portfolioDate) { // Get test results for the portfolio // Call the database adapter method, which in turn is a stored procedure, // which in turns runs a series of "rule" stored procs and fills a local temp table and returns it back. DataSet resultsDataSet = GetTestResults(fundId, portfolioDate); try { // Do some local processing on the results DoSomeProcessing(resultsDataSet); // Save the results in Test, TestResults and TestAllocations tables in a transaction. // Sets a global transaction which is provided to all the adapter methods called below // It is defined in the Base class StartTransaction("TestTransaction"); // Save Test and get a testId int testId = UpdateTest(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update testId in the other tables in the dataset UpdateTestId(resultsDataSet, testId); // Update TestResults UpdateTestResults(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update TestAllocations UpdateTestAllocations(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // It is defined in the base class CommitTransaction("TestTransaction"); } catch { RollbackTransaction("TestTransaction"); } return resultsDataSet; } Now the requirement is to do it for multiple set of data. One way would be to call the above DoTests() method in a loop and get the data. I would prefer doing it in parallel. But there are certain catches: StartTransaction() method creates a connection (and transaction) every time it is called. All the underlying database tables, procedures are the same for each call of DoTests(). (obviously). Thus my question are: Will using multithreading anyway improve performance? What are the chances of deadlock especially when new TestId's are being created and the Tests, TestResults and TestAllocations are being saved? How can these deadlocked be handled? Is there any other more efficient way of doing the above operation apart from looping over the DoTests() method repeatedly?

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  • Hibernate updating records and implementing listeners : getting only required attribute values for event.getOldState()

    - by Narendra
    Hi All, I am using Hibernate 3 as my persistence framework. Below is the sample hbm file I am using. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.test.User" table="user"> <meta attribute="implements">com.test.dao.interfaces.IEntity</meta> <id name="key" type="long" column="user_key"> <generator class="increment" /> </id> <property name="userName" column="user_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="password" column="password" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="firstName" column="first_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="lastName" column="last_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="createdDate" column="created_date" not-null="true" type="timestamp" insert="false" update="false" /> <property name="createdBy" column="created_by" not-null="true" type="string" update="false" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I am added a post-update listener. What it will do is if there any updations perfomed on User then it will be invoked and cahnges will be inserted to audit table. Below is the sample implementation for postupdate event. public void onPostUpdate(PostUpdateEvent event) { LogHelper.info(logger, "Begin - onPostUpdate " + event.getEntity().getClass().getSimpleName()); if (!this.checkForAudit(event.getEntity().getClass().getSimpleName())) { // check do we need to audit it. } // Get Attribute Names String[] attrNames = event.getPersister().getEntityMetamodel() .getPropertyNames(); Object[] oldobjectValue = c Object[] newObjectValue = event.getState(); this.auditDetailsEvent(attrNames, oldobjectValue, newObjectValue); LogHelper.info(logger, "End - onPostUpdate"); // return false; } Here is my requirement. event.getPersister().getEntityMetamodel() .getPropertyNames(); or event.getOldState(); or event.getState(); must return attribute names or value which i can update or insert. Is there any way to control the return values of above one's. Pleas help me on this regard. Thanks, Narendra

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  • Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

    - by David Stone
    How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

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  • GHC.Generics and Type Families

    - by jberryman
    This is a question related to my module here, and is simplified a bit. It's also related to this previous question, in which I oversimplified my problem and didn't get the answer I was looking for. I hope this isn't too specific, and please change the title if you can think if a better one. Background My module uses a concurrent chan, split into a read side and write side. I use a special class with an associated type synonym to support polymorphic channel "joins": {-# LANGUAGE TypeFamilies #-} class Sources s where type Joined s newJoinedChan :: IO (s, Messages (Joined s)) -- NOT EXPORTED --output and input sides of channel: data Messages a -- NOT EXPORTED data Mailbox a instance Sources (Mailbox a) where type Joined (Mailbox a) = a newJoinedChan = undefined instance (Sources a, Sources b)=> Sources (a,b) where type Joined (a,b) = (Joined a, Joined b) newJoinedChan = undefined -- and so on for tuples of 3,4,5... The code above allows us to do this kind of thing: example = do (mb , msgsA) <- newJoinedChan ((mb1, mb2), msgsB) <- newJoinedChan --say that: msgsA, msgsB :: Messages (Int,Int) --and: mb :: Mailbox (Int,Int) -- mb1,mb2 :: Mailbox Int We have a recursive action called a Behavior that we can run on the messages we pull out of the "read" end of the channel: newtype Behavior a = Behavior (a -> IO (Behavior a)) runBehaviorOn :: Behavior a -> Messages a -> IO () -- NOT EXPORTED This would allow us to run a Behavior (Int,Int) on either of msgsA or msgsB, where in the second case both Ints in the tuple it receives actually came through separate Mailboxes. This is all tied together for the user in the exposed spawn function spawn :: (Sources s) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s ...which calls newJoinedChan and runBehaviorOn, and returns the input Sources. What I'd like to do I'd like users to be able to create a Behavior of arbitrary product type (not just tuples) , so for instance we could run a Behavior (Pair Int Int) on the example Messages above. I'd like to do this with GHC.Generics while still having a polymorphic Sources, but can't manage to make it work. spawn :: (Sources s, Generic (Joined s), Rep (Joined s) ~ ??) => Behavior (Joined s) -> IO s The parts of the above example that are actually exposed in the API are the fst of the newJoinedChan action, and Behaviors, so an acceptable solution can modify one or all of runBehaviorOn or the snd of newJoinedChan. I'll also be extending the API above to support sums (not implemented yet) like Behavior (Either a b) so I hoped GHC.Generics would work for me. Questions Is there a way I can extend the API above to support arbitrary Generic a=> Behavior a? If not using GHC's Generics, are there other ways I can get the API I want with minimal end-user pain (i.e. they just have to add a deriving clause to their type)?

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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  • Dijkstra's Algorithm explanation java

    - by alchemey89
    Hi, I have found an implementation for dijkstras algorithm on the internet and was wondering if someone could help me understand how the code works. Many thanks private int nr_points=0; private int[][]Cost; private int []mask; private void dijkstraTSP() { if(nr_points==0)return; //algorithm=new String("Dijkstra"); nod1=new Vector(); nod2=new Vector(); weight=new Vector(); mask=new int[nr_points]; //initialise mask with zeros (mask[x]=1 means the vertex is marked as used) for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++)mask[i]=0; //Dijkstra: int []dd=new int[nr_points]; int []pre=new int[nr_points]; int []path=new int[nr_points+1]; int init_vert=0,pos_in_path=0,new_vert=0; //initialise the vectors for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++) { dd[i]=Cost[init_vert][i]; pre[i]=init_vert; path[i]=-1; } pre[init_vert]=0; path[0]=init_vert; pos_in_path++; mask[init_vert]=1; for(int k=0;k<nr_points-1;k++) { //find min. cost in dd for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) if(dd[j]!=0 && mask[j]==0){new_vert=j; break;} for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) if(dd[j]<dd[new_vert] && mask[j]==0 && dd[j]!=0)new_vert=j; mask[new_vert]=1; path[pos_in_path]=new_vert; pos_in_path++; for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) { if(mask[j]==0) { if(dd[j]>dd[new_vert]+Cost[new_vert][j]) { dd[j]=dd[new_vert]+Cost[new_vert][j]; } } } } //Close the cycle path[nr_points]=init_vert; //Save the solution in 3 vectors (for graphical purposes) for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++) { nod1.addElement(path[i]); nod2.addElement(path[i+1]); weight.addElement(Cost[path[i]][path[i+1]]); } }

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