Search Results

Search found 21336 results on 854 pages for 'db api'.

Page 745/854 | < Previous Page | 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751 752  | Next Page >

  • Authorize.net Parameters with activemerchant

    - by rpflo
    I'm using authorize.net and activemerchant in a rails app. When I make a purchase authorize.net sends back an email with information about the purchase. I should be able to send them the billing and shipping address information and have that returned in the email, but it's not returning any of the information, obviously I've got the varable names wrong, anybody know what they should be? I've been pouring over the authorize.net api docs and activemerchant's but can't find what I need. My purchase method on an orders model looks like this: def purchase purchase_options = { :ip => ip_address, :first_name => first_name, :last_name => last_name, :address => billing_street_address, :city => billing_city, :state => billing_state, :country => "US", :zip => billing_zip, :ship_to_first_name => first_name, :ship_to_last_name => last_name, :ship_to_address => shipping_street_address, :ship_to_city => shipping_city, :ship_to_state => shipping_state, :ship_to_country => "US", :ship_to_zip => shipping_zip } response = GATEWAY.purchase(price_in_cents, credit_card, purchase_options) # other transaction stuff response.success? end

    Read the article

  • When *not* to use prepared statements?

    - by Ben Blank
    I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

    Read the article

  • how to store xml data in array (php)

    - by tommy
    <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> - <response xmlns:lf="http://api.lemonfree.com/ns/1.0"> <lf:request_type>listing</lf:request_type> <lf:response_code>0</lf:response_code> - <lf:result type="listing" count="10"> - <lf:item id="56832429"> <lf:attr name="title">Used 2005 Ford Mustang V6 Deluxe</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="year">2005</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="make">FORD</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="model">MUSTANG</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="vin">1ZVFT80N555169501</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="price">12987</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="mileage">42242</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="auction">no</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="city">Grand Rapids</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="state">Michigan</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="image">http://www.lemonfree.com/images/stock_images/thumbnails/2005_38_557_80.jpg</lf:attr> <lf:attr name="link">http://www.lemonfree.com/56832429.html</lf:attr> </lf:item> Above is the xml i am working with - there are more items - this is the first set. How can i get these elements in to an array. I have been trying with php's simple xml etc but i just cant do it. Thanks guys

    Read the article

  • Why use INCLUDE in a SQL index

    - by StarLite
    I recently encountered an index in a database I maintain that was of the form: CREATE INDEX [IX_Foo] ON [Foo] ( Id ASC ) INCLUDE ( SubId ) In this particular case, the performance problem that I was encountering (a slow SELECT filtering on both Id and SubId) could be fixed by simply moving the SubId column into the index proper rather than as an included column. This got me thinking however that I don't understand the reasoning behind included columns at all, when generally, they could simply be a part of the index itself. Even if I don't particularly care about the items being in the index itself is there any downside to having column in the index rather than simply being included. After some research, I am aware that there are a number of restrictions on what can go into an indexed column (maximum width of the index, and some column types that can't be indexed like 'image'). In these cases I can see that you would be forced to include the column in the index page data. The only thing I can think of is that if there are updates on SubId, the row will not need to be relocated if the column is included (though the value in the index would need to be changed). Is there something else that I'm missing? I'm considering going through the other indexes in the database and shifting included columns in the index proper where possible. Would this be a mistake? I'm primarily interested in MS SQL Server, but information on other DB engines is welcome also.

    Read the article

  • Web form is not updating tables, why?

    - by JPJedi
    I have a web application and on page is an update page to update some profile information. Below is the code I am using to update the table. But I think it is wrong. Does anything stick out? The connection string works cause it is used to read the database to get the profile information, I just removed it due to it containing password/login info for the db. player is the class of properties that contains player information and ds is the dataset, but I would like to update the database itself online... Dim connectionString As String = "" Dim GigsterDBConnection As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connectionString) GigsterDBConnection.Open() Dim updatetoursql As String = "UPDATE PLAYERS SET FIRSTNAME = '" & player.FIRSTNAME & "', LASTNAME = '" & player.LASTNAME & "', ADDRESS = '" & player.ADDRESS & "', CITY = '" & player.CITY & "', ZIP = '" & player.ZIP & "', PHONE = '" & player.PHONE & "', EMAIL = '" & player.EMAIL & "', REFFEREDBY = '" & player.REFEREDBY & "' " updatetoursql = updatetoursql & "PLAYERID = '" & player.PLAYERID & "';" Dim cmd As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(updatetoursql, GigsterDBConnection) Dim sqlAdapter As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataAdapter(cmd) sqlAdapter.Update(ds, "PLAYERS") I think the issue is something the 3 last lines of the code. am I doing it right or is their a better way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

    - by Andrey
    Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

    Read the article

  • JQuery Autocomplete plugin not working with JQuery 1.4.1

    - by Russ Clark
    I've been using the JQuery Autocomplete plugin with JQuery version 1.3.2, and it has been working great. I recently updated JQuery in my project to version 1.4.2, and the Autocomplete plugin is now broken. The JQuery code to add items to a textbox on my web page doesn't seem to be getting called at all. Does anyone know if the JQuery Autocomplete plugin is incompatible with JQuery version 1.4.2, and if there is a fix for this problem? Here is some sample code I've built in an ASP.Net web site (which works fine if I change the JQuery file to jquery-1.3.2.js, but nothing happens using jquery-1.4.2.js): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.autocomplete.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $(':input:text:id$=sapleUser').autocomplete(data); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> API Reference: <input id="sapleUser" autocomplete="off" type="text" runat="server" /> (try "C" or "E") </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Unit test insert/update/delete

    - by Kurresmack
    Hey, I have googled this a little and didn't really find the answer I needed. I am working on a webpage in C# with MSSQL and LINQ for a customer. I want the users to be able to send messages to each other. So what I do is that I unit test this with data that actually goes into the database. The problem is that I now depend on having at least 2 users who I know the ID of. Furthermore I have to clean up after my self. This leads to rather large unit tests that test alot in one test. Lets say I would like to update a user. That would mean that I would have to ceate the user, update it, and then delete it. This a lot of assertions in one unit test and if it fails with updating i have to manually delete it. If I would do it any other way, without saving the data to DB, I would not for sure be able to know that the data was present in the database after updating etc. What is the proper way to do this without having a test that tests a lot of functuality in one test?

    Read the article

  • Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

    - by hleinone
    It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

    Read the article

  • Set the property hibernate.dialect error message

    - by user281180
    I am having the following error when configuring mvc3 and Nhibernate. Can anyone guide me what I have missed please. the dialect was not set. Set the property hibernate.dialect. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: NHibernate.HibernateException: The dialect was not set. Set the property hibernate.dialect. Source Error: Line 16: { Line 17: NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration configuration = new NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration(); Line 18: configuration.AddAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); Line 19: sessionFactory = configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); Line 20: } My web.config is as follows: <configSections> <section name="cachingConfiguration"type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching.Configuration.CacheManagerSettings,Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Caching"/> <section name="log4net"type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net"/> <section name="hibernate-configuration"type="NHibernate.Cfg.ConfigurationSectionHandler, NHibernate"/ <appSettings> <add key="BusinessObjectAssemblies" value="Keeper.API"></add> <add key="ConnectionString" value="Server=localhost\SQLSERVER2005;Database=KeeperDev;User=test;Pwd=test;"></add> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true"/> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true"/> </appSettings> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2000Dialect</property> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">Server=localhost\SQLServer2005;Database=KeeperDev;User=test;Pwd=test;</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle</property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration>

    Read the article

  • Setting objects (not users) inactive after period of time in asp.net mvc

    - by bastijn
    This question is mainly to verify my current idea. I have a series of objects which I want to be active for a specified amount of time. For instance objects like ads which are shown in the ad space only for the amount of time bought, objects in search results which should only pop up when active, and frontpage posts which should be set to inactive after a prespecified time. My current idea is to just give those type of objects a StartDate and EndDate and filter the search routines to only show results which fall in the range StartDate < currentDate < EndDate. Is this the normal structure or should there be some sort of auto-routine which routinely checks for objects which are "over-time" and set a property "inactive" to true or something. Seems like this approach is such a hassle since I need a checker which runs say, every 5 minutes, to scan all DB objects. Seems like a bad idea to me. So is the first structure the most commonly used or are there any other options? When searching on google or SO the search queries only return results setting users inactive.

    Read the article

  • Google App Engine - Uploading blobs and authentication

    - by Keyur
    (I tried asking this on the GAE forums but didn't get an answer so am trying it here.) Currently to upload blobs, the app engine's blob store service creates a unique one- time URL that a user can post blobs to. My requirement is that I only want authenticated / authorized users to post blobs in my application. I can achieve this currently if the page that includes the multipart form to upload blobs is in my application. However, I am looking to providing a "REST API" for my users to upload their blobs. While it is true that the one-time nature of the upload URL mitigates the chances of rogue use but it's still possible. I was wondering if there is anyone on the app engine team here that can consider a feature where developers can register an upload listener. (Or if there is already a way, I'll be all ears). A standard servlet filter could also potentially do the job. This will give us an opportunity to authenticate / validate / decorate requests before the request gets forwarded to the blob store service. Thanks, Keyur

    Read the article

  • Outputing value of TrueClass / FalseClass to integer or string/

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I'm trying to figure out if there is an easy way to do the following short of adding to_i method to TrueClass/FalseClass. Here is a dilemma: I have a boolean field in my rails app - that is obviously stored as Tinyint in mysql. However - I need to generate xml based of the data in mysql and send it to customer - there SOAP service requires the field in question to have 0 or 1 as the value of this field. So at the time of the xml generation I need to convert my False to 0 and my True to 1 ( which is how they are stored in the DB). Since True & False lack to_i method I could write some if statement that generate either 1 or 0 depending on true/false state. However I have about 10 of these indicators and creating and if/else for each is not very DRY. So what you recommend I do? Or I could add a to_i method to the True / False class. But I'm not sure where should I scope it in my rails app? Just inside this particular model or somewhere else?

    Read the article

  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

    Read the article

  • How to configure SQLite to run with NHibernate where assembly resolves System.Data.SQLite?

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I am using the latest NHibernate 2.1.0Beta2. I'm trying to unit test with SQLite and have the configuration set up as: Dictionary<string, string> properties = new Dictionary<string, string>(); properties.Add("connection.driver_class", "NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver"); properties.Add("dialect", "NHibernate.Dialect.SQLiteDialect"); properties.Add("connection.provider", "NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider"); properties.Add("query.substitutions", "true=1;false=0"); properties.Add("connection.connection_string", "Data Source=test.db;Version=3;New=True;"); properties.Add("proxyfactory.factory_class", "NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu"); configuration = new Configuration(); configuration.SetProperties(properties); When I try to run it, I get the following error: NHibernate.HibernateException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use <qualifyAssembly/> element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. at NHibernate.Driver.ReflectionBasedDriver..ctor(String driverAssemblyName, String connectionTypeName, String commandTypeName) in c:\CSharp\NH\nhibernate\src\NHibernate\Driver\ReflectionBasedDriver.cs: line 26 at NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver..ctor() in c:\CSharp\NH\nhibernate\src\NHibernate\Driver\SQLite20Driver.cs: line 28 So it looks like I need to reference the assembly directly. How would I do this so I don't get this error anymore? I downloaded the latest assembly from here: http://sourceforge.net/projects/sqlite-dotnet2.

    Read the article

  • Populate a form from SQL

    - by xrum
    Hi, I am trying to populate a web from from a SQL table. This is what I have right now, though I am not sure if it's the best way to do things, please give me suggestions: Public Class userDetails Public address1 As String Public address2 As String Public city As String ... ... ... End Class Public Class clsPerson 'set SQL connection Dim objFormat As New clsFormat Dim objConn As New clsConn() Dim connStr As String = objConn.getConn() Dim myConnection As New Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connStr) Public Function GetPersonDetails() As userDetails 'connection and all other good stuff here Try ' Execute the command myConnection.Open() dr = myCommand.ExecuteReader() ' Make sure a record was returned If dr.Read() Then ' Create and Populate ApplicantDetails userDetails.address1 = dr("address1") userDetails.address2 = objFormat.CheckNull(dr("address2")) userDetails.city = objFormat.CheckNull(dr("city")) .... Else Err.Raise(4938, "clsUser", "Error in GetUserDetails - User Not Found") End If dr.Close() Finally myConnection.Close() End Try Return userDetails End Function i then use GetPersonDetails() function in my backend to populate the form. like so: Dim userDetails as new userDetails userdetails = getPersonDetails() txtAddress.text = userdetails.address1 etc.... however, there are like 50 fields in the User db, and it seems like a lot of retyping... please help me find a better way to do this. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • mysql image disable print download

    - by Vish
    Hi, We use a Flex AIR client and a WAMP server. Tiff images are stored in MySQL. Currently, I can download the image from AIR client and it prompts for a download dialog. Things are fine till this point. We got a new requirement. Requirement is that only some users can print the image which gets downloaded. For other users, they should not be able to print the tiff image. Wondering how to accomplish this. One idea, not sure if its efficient, is to convert the image requested to pdf at the server side, disable print option there(hope there are API's available) and send back the pdf. Please let me know btter ideas. Also, is there a way to prevent file download dialog from popping up everytime the file is requested for download? Can we just get the file stream to the client and manipulate it to open with a particular viewer or write it to pdf... Please help.

    Read the article

  • Linq-to-sql Add item and a one-to-many record at once

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have a function where I can add articles and users can comment on them. This is done with a one to many relationship like= "commentId=>ArticleId". However when I try to add the comment to the database at the same time as I add the one to many record, the commentId is not known. Like this code: Comment comment = new Comment(); comment.Date = DateTime.UtcNow; comment.Text = text; comment.UserId = userId; db.Comments.InsertOnSubmit(comment); comment.Articles.Add(new CommentsForArticle() { ArticleId = articleId, CommentId = comment.CommentId }); The commentId will be 0 before i press submit. Is there any way arround not having to submit in between or do I simply have to cut out the part where I have a one-to-many relationship and just use a CommentTable with a column like "ArticleId". What is best in a performance perspective? I understand the underlying issue, I just want to know which solution works best.

    Read the article

  • Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

    - by AppleGrew
    I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

    Read the article

  • Convert UCS-2 characters to UTF-8 Using C#

    - by quanticle
    I'm pulling some internationalized text from a MS SQL Server 2005 database. As per the defaults for that DB, the characters are stored as UCS-2. However, I need to output the data in UTF-8 format, as I'm sending it out over the web. Currently, I have the following code to convert: SqlString dbString = resultReader.GetSqlString(0); byte[] dbBytes = dbString.GetUnicodeBytes(); byte[] utf8Bytes = System.Text.Encoding.Convert(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, dbBytes); System.Text.UTF8Encoding encoder = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(); string outputString = encoder.GetString(utf8Bytes); However, when I examine the output in the browser, it appears to be garbage, no matter what I set the encoding to. What am I missing? EDIT: In response to the answers below, the reason I thought I had to perform a conversion is because I can output literal multibyte strings just fine. For example: OutputControl.Text = "????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????"; works. Here, OutputControl is an ASP.Net Literal. However, OutputControl.Text = outputString; //Output from above snippet results in mangled output as described above. My hypothesis was that the database's output was somehow getting mangled by ASP.Net. If that's not the case, then what are some other possibilities?

    Read the article

  • simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending whether test is run in iso

    - by JW
    I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

    Read the article

  • How to trace the connection pool in a Java Web application - DBMS_APPLICATION_INFO

    - by Cleiton Garcia
    Hello, I need improve the traceability in a Web Application that usually run on fixed db user. The DBA should have a fast access for the information about the heavy users that are degrading the database. 5 years ago, I implemented a .NET ORM engine which makes a log of user and the server using the DBMS_APPLICATION_INFO package. Using a wrapper above the connection manager with the following code: DBMS_APPLICATION_INFO.SET_MODULE('" + User + " - " + appServerMachine + "',''); Each time that a connection get a connection from the pool, the package is executed to log the information in the V$SESSION. Has anyone discover or implemented a solution for this problem using the Toplink or Hibernate? Is there a default implementation for this problem? I found here a solutions as I implemented 5 years ago, but I'd like to know with anyone have a better solution and integrated with the ORM. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/53379/using-dbmsapplicationinfo-with-jboss My application is above Spring, the DAO are implemented with JPA (using hibernate) and actually running directly in Tomcat, with plans to (next year) migrate to SAP Netwevare Application Server. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • what's an effective way to build a csproj file in C#?

    - by jcollum
    I'd like to avoid a command line for this. I've been using the MSBuild API ( Microsoft.Build.Framework and Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine) with code that looks like this: this.buildEngine = new Engine(); BuildPropertyGroup props = new BuildPropertyGroup(); props.SetProperty("Configuration", "Debug"); this.buildEngine.RegisterLogger(this.logger); Project proj = new Project(this.buildEngine); proj.LoadXml(this.projectFileAndPath, ProjectLoadSettings.None); this.buildEngine.BuildProject(proj, "Build"); However I've run into enough problems that I can't find answers for that I'm really wondering if I'm doing this right. First, I can't find the output (there's no bin directory in any of the places where I figured the dll's would end up). Second, I tried building a project that I had made in VS2008 and the line proj.LoadXml( fails for invalid xml encoding. But of course the xml file is valid, since VS2008 can build it (I checked). At this point I'm beginning to wonder if I've picked up some code that's way out of date or a methodology that's been superseded by something else. Opinions?

    Read the article

  • How to convince someone, that reading programming related books(blogs, so..) is important? [closed]

    - by hgulyan
    Dear all, please, help me to convince, that no matter what you're doing, you need to read some stuff, try to learn something new. They say, that they don't want to sit in front of computer in the end of a day and they don't have opportunity to read in working hours, or they're too tired for doing something. Have you faced this kind of situation? What did you do? What if you want to help them? What methodology you'd suggest? How to open their eyes? EDIT I'm really concerned about this people. EDIT 2 Just to be clear, I'm not talking about one person or two. Some of them, just do their job good. Company doesn't motivate them to learn something. They're not bad people, not bad developers, they just need something or someone to help, show another view, but you can't just describe this new view or say smth like "You need to learn!" and that's it, you'll start to learn or you're not a good programmer. I started to learn OOP, DB structure 6 years ago and I had someone who had guided me. He told me to learn Java and MySQL, gave me some manuals and API's. That's how I started. What if they don't have that kind person or something else?

    Read the article

  • silverlight security with WCF service, Forms Authentication and Custom Form Ticket

    - by user74825
    I have a silverlight application with login on the silverlight page. It uses Forms Authentication with WCF authentication service and customer Membership Provider. Something like : http://blogs.msdn.com/phaniraj/archive/2009/09/10/using-the-ado-net-data-services-silverlight-client-library-in-x-domain-and-out-of-browser-scenarios-ii-forms-authentication.aspx So, SL page login page calls the WCF service authentication service, it validates using DB - brings back username and password. Now, in each subsequent calls (in Global.asax in Authenticate_Request, I get HttpContext.User.IsAuthenticated and HttpContext.User.UserName). I have all this working properly. But, I just don't want the username, but more information surrounding the user, like UserId, UserAddress, UserAssociateCustomer etc. I tried couple of different approaches. 1) Use HttpContext.Cache as a dictionary to save the item and get it off based on httpcontext.user.name, problem is cache can be erased if there memory is being used heavily. 2) Tried CustomFormsAuth Ticket, when forms authentication writes a ticket, I intercept CreatingCookie method and write additional info in formauthentication ticket, so that I can read it in subsequent requests, I am having problems with this approach, I don't find the ticket in subsequent requests. I read about how we should use REsponse.Redirect, but where do I redirect user from WCF call. How do you guys implement the above scenario? Any best practices.? Any issues you see with going on HTTPS? All examples (or most of them) just explains simple forms authentication with "I am logged in message".. Any suggestions ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 741 742 743 744 745 746 747 748 749 750 751 752  | Next Page >