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  • Jboss 6 Cluster Singleton Clustered

    - by DanC
    I am trying to set up a Jboss 6 in a clustered environment, and use it to host clustered stateful singleton EJBs. So far we succesfully installed a Singleton EJB within the cluster, where different entrypoints to our application (through a website deployed on each node) point to a single environment on which the EJB is hosted (thus mantaining the state of static variables). We achieved this using the following configuration: Bean interface: @Remote public interface IUniverse { ... } Bean implementation: @Clustered @Stateful public class Universe implements IUniverse { private static Vector<String> messages = new Vector<String>(); ... } jboss-beans.xml configuration: <deployment xmlns="urn:jboss:bean-deployer:2.0"> <!-- This bean is an example of a clustered singleton --> <bean name="Universe" class="Universe"> </bean> <bean name="UniverseController" class="org.jboss.ha.singleton.HASingletonController"> <property name="HAPartition"><inject bean="HAPartition"/></property> <property name="target"><inject bean="Universe"/></property> <property name="targetStartMethod">startSingleton</property> <property name="targetStopMethod">stopSingleton</property> </bean> </deployment> The main problem for this implementation is that, after the master node (the one that contains the state of the singleton EJB) shuts down gracefuly, the Singleton's state is lost and reset to default. Please note that everything was constructed following the JBoss 5 Clustering documents, as no JBoss 6 documents were found on this subject. Any information on how to solve this problem or where to find JBoss 6 documention on clustering is appreciated.

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  • Serializing and deserializing a map with key as string

    - by Grace K
    Hi! I am intending to serialize and deserialize a hashmap whose key is a string. From Josh Bloch's Effective Java, I understand the following. P.222 "For example, consider the case of a harsh table. The physical representation is a sequence of hash buckets containing key-value entries. Which bucket an entry is placed in is a function of the hash code of the key, which is not, in general guaranteed to be the same from JVM implementation to JVM implementation. In fact, it isn't even guranteed to be the same from run to run on the same JVM implementation. Therefore accepting the default serialized form for a hash table would constitute a serious bug. Serializing and deserializing the hash table could yield an object whose invariants were seriously corrupt." My questions are: 1) In general, would overriding the equals and hashcode of the key class of the map resolve this issue and the map can be correctly restored? 2) If my key is a String and the String class is already overriding the hashCode() method, would I still have problem described above. (I am seeing a bug which makes me think this is probably still a problem even though the key is String with overriding hashCode.) 3)Previously, I get around this issue by serializing an array of entries (key, value) and when deserializing I would reconstruct the map. I am wondering if there is a better approach. 4) If the answers to question 1 and 2 are that I still can't be guaranteed. Could someone explain why? If the hashCodes are the same would they go to the same buckets across JVMs? Thanks, Grace

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  • How do I make my program run with different privileges at Windows 7 startup?

    - by iira
    Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it doesn't work. My program has an embedded UAC manifest. My current way is by adding a string value at HKCU..\Run. I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. Type a name for the task. Check “Run with highest privileges”. Click Actions tab. Click “New…”. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: Open Regedit. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I haven't found the free one in torry.net. Thanks a lot.

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  • using a 64-bit compiler in microsoft visual c++

    - by Ben
    this question is essentially identical to an earlier question i had that didn't receive any answers. hopefully someone can help me out this time. i am trying to compile a vc++ project as 64 bit using visual c++ express 2010. i know that the 64 bit compiler does not come with the default installation of vc++ express so i installed windows sdk for windows 7 as specified here (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9yb4317s.aspx) which includes the 64 bit compiler as i understand. however, there is still no 64 bit option in the configuration manager for vc++. after some searching i found and completed this tutorial (http://jenshuebel.wordpress.com/2009/02/12/visual-c-2008-express-edition-and-64-bit-targets/) as well as the various links at the bottom of this page. despite all my efforts, i still cannot get the 64 bit compiler to show in vc++ (i.e. the 64 bit compiler won't show under "active solutions platform" in the configuration manager). if anyone has any experience/tips with getting this to work i would really appreciate it. fyi - i am running windows 7(x64).

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  • C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

    - by mytwocents
    This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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  • Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

    - by alex
    I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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  • Unable to turn off notice errors in PHP 5.3.2

    - by knkk
    Hi everyone, I recently migrated to PHP 5.3.2, and realized that I am unable to turn off notice errors in my site now. I went to php.ini, and in these lines: ; Common Values: ; E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE (Show all errors, except for notices and coding standards warnings.) ; E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE | E_STRICT (Show all errors, except for notices) ; E_COMPILE_ERROR|E_RECOVERABLE_ERROR|E_ERROR|E_CORE_ERROR (Show only errors) ; E_ALL | E_STRICT (Show all errors, warnings and notices including coding standards.) ; Default Value: E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE ; Development Value: E_ALL | E_STRICT ; Production Value: E_ALL & ~E_DEPRECATED ; http://php.net/error-reporting error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE ...I've tried setting everything (and I restart apache each time), but I am unable to get rid of notices. The only way I'm able to get rid of notice errors is by setting : display_errors = Off That is, of course, not something I can do since I need to see errors to fix them, and I would like to see errors on the webpage that I am coding rather than log them somewhere. Can someone help? Is this a bug in PHP 5.3.2 or something I am doing wrong? Thank you very much for your time! P. S. Also, would anyone know how I can get PHP 5.3.2 to support the .php3 extension?

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  • PHP's openssl_sign generates different signature than SSCrypto's sign

    - by pascalj
    I'm writing an OS X client for a software that is written in PHP. This software uses a simple RPC interface to receive and execute commands. The RPC client has to sign the commands he sends to ensure that no MITM can modify any of them. However, as the server was not accepting the signatures I sent from my OS X client, I started investigating and found out that PHP's openssl_sign function generates a different signature for a given private key/data combination than the Objective-C SSCrypto framework (which is only a wrapper for the openssl lib): SSCrypto *crypto = [[SSCrypto alloc] initWithPrivateKey:self.localPrivKey]; NSData *shaed = [self sha1:@"hello"]; [crypto setClearTextWithData:shaed]; NSData *data = [crypto sign]; generates a signature like CtbkSxvqNZ+mAN... The PHP code openssl_sign("hello", $signature, $privateKey); generates a signature like 6u0d2qjFiMbZ+... (For my certain key, of course. base64 encoded) I'm not quite shure why this is happening and I unsuccessfully experimented with different hash-algorithms. As the PHP documentation states SHA1 is used by default. So why do these two functions generate different signatures and how can I get my Objective-C part to generate a signature that PHPs openssl_verify will accept? Note: I double checked that the keys and the data is correct!

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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  • Problem in inferring instances that have integer cardinality constraint

    - by Mikae Combarado
    Hello, I have created an RDF/OWL file using Protege 4.1 alpha. I also created a defined class in Protege called CheapPhone. This class has a restriction which is shown below : (hasPrice some integer[< 350]) Whenever, a price of a phone is below 350, it is inferred as CheapPhone. There is no problem for inferring this in Protege 4.1 alpha. However, I cannot infer this using Jena. I also created a defined class called SmartPhone. This class also has a restriction which is shown below : (has3G value true) and (hasInternet value true) Whenever, a phone has 3G and Internet, it is inferred as SmartPhone. In this situation, there is no problem inferring this in both Protege and Jena. I have started to think that there is a problem in default inference engine of Jena. The code that I use in Java is below : Reasoner reasoner = ReasonerRegistry.getOWLReasoner(); reasoner = reasoner.bindSchema(ontModel); OntModelSpec ontModelSpec = OntModelSpec.OWL_MEM_MINI_RULE_INF; ontModelSpec.setReasoner(reasoner); // Create ontology model with reasoner support // ontModel was created and read before, so I don't share the code in order // not to create garbage here OntModel model = ModelFactory.createOntologyModel(ontModelSpec, ontModel); OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "SmartPhone"); ExtendedIterator s = sPhone.listInstances(); while(s.hasNext()) { OntResource mp = (OntResource)s.next(); System.out.println(mp.getURI()); } This code works perfectly and returns me the instances, but when I change the code below and make it appropriate for CheapPhone, it doesn't return anything. OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "CheapPhone"); Am I doing something wrong ?

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  • Using ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider, how do I store my own per-user data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I'm using the ASP.NET SQL Membership Provider. So, there's an aspnet_Users table that has details of each of my users. (Actually, the aspnet_Membership table seems to contain most of the actual data). I now want to store some per-user information in my database, so I thought I'd just create a new table with a UserId (GUID) column and an FK relationship to aspnet_Users. However, I then discovered that I can't easily get access to the UserId since it's not exposed via the membership API. (I know I can access it via the ProviderUserKey, but it seems like the API is abstracting away the internal UserID in favor of the UserName, and I don't want to go too far against the grain). So, I thought I should instead put a LoweredUserName column in my table, and create an FK relationship to aspnet_Users using that. Bzzzt. Wrong again, because while there is a unique index in aspnet_Users that includes the LoweredUserName, it also includes the ApplicationId - so in order to create my FK relationship, I'd need to have an ApplicationId column in my table too. At first I thought: fine, I'm only dealing with a single application, so I'll just add such a column and give it a default value. Then I realised that the ApplicationId is a GUID, so it'd be a pain to do this. Not hard exactly, but until I roll out my DB I can't predict what the GUID is going to be. I feel like I'm missing something, or going about things the wrong way. What am I supposed to do?

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  • Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

    - by NYSystemsAnalyst
    The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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  • issue to solve the geo tagging in android

    - by sundar
    I am a new guy in Android. How to implement the Geo-tag for images? I have tried by myself but not getting expected result. My code is like: @Override protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { jpgDialog = null;; switch(id){ case ID_JPGDIALOG: Context mContext = this; jpgDialog = new Dialog(mContext); jpgDialog.setContentView(R.layout.jpgdialog); exifText = (TextView) jpgDialog.findViewById(R.id.text); geoText = (TextView)jpgDialog.findViewById(R.id.geotext); bmImage = (ImageView)jpgDialog.findViewById(R.id.image); bmOptions = new BitmapFactory.Options(); bmOptions.inSampleSize = 2; Button okDialogButton = (Button)jpgDialog.findViewById(R.id.okdialogbutton); okDialogButton.setOnClickListener(okDialogButtonOnClickListener); mapviewButton = (Button)jpgDialog.findViewById(R.id.mapviewbutton); mapviewButton.setOnClickListener(mapviewButtonOnClickListener); break; default: break; } return jpgDialog; } Please help me how to proceed?

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  • Qt Creator CONFIG (debug, release) switches does NOT work

    - by killdaclick
    Problem: CONFIG(debug,debug|release) and CONFIG(release,deubg|release) are always evaluated wherever debug or release is choosen in Qt Creator 2.8.1 for Linux. My configuration in Qt Creator application (stock - default for new project): Projects->Build Settings->Debug Build Steps: qmake build configuration: Debug Effective qmake call: qmake2 proj.pro -r -spec linux-gnueabi-oe-g++ CONFIG+=debug Projects->Build Settings->Release Build Steps: qmake build configuration: Release Effective qmake call: qmake2 proj.pro -r -spec linux-gnueabi-oe-g++ My configuration in proj.pro: message(Variable CONFIG:) message($$CONFIG) CONFIG(debug,debug|release) { message(Debug build) } CONFIG(release,debug|release) { message(Release build) } Output on console for Debug: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: lex yacc warn_on debug uic resources warn_on release incremental link_prl no_mocdepend release stl qt_no_framework debug console Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build Output on console for Release: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: lex yacc warn_on uic resources warn_on release incremental link_prl no_mocdepend release stl qt_no_framework console Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build Under Windows 7 I didnt experienced any problem with such .pro configuration and it worked fine. I was desperate and modified .pro file: CONFIG = test message(Variable CONFIG:) message($$CONFIG) CONFIG(debug,debug|release) { message(Debug build) } CONFIG(release,debug|release) { message(Release build) } and I was suprised with the output: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: test Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build so even if I completly clean CONFIG variable it still see debug and release configuration. What Im doing wrong?

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  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

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  • Client calls .asmx, Server exposes WCF endpoint

    - by Lucas B
    We have a client that has been configured to connect to an asmx service. We don't want to ask our customers to update their configuration, but we would like to upgrade our service to use WCF. Does anyone know if WCF supports this? If so, what would the configuration file look like? Our asmx service looks like this: <bindings> <binding name="ATransactionSoap" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://.../atransaction.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="ATransactionSoap" contract="ATransactionSoap" name="ATransactionSoap" />

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  • ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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  • asp net jquery popup dialog form in asp:formview

    - by qwebek
    Hi, i have following problem, i am using a popup jquery dialog with asp:formview . the purpose of this popup is for user to enter a hyperlink which is placed then in textbox control in formview the popup dialog div is located outside a formview just after body tag <body style="background-color: #FFFFFF; font-family:Lucida Console;"> <div id="dialog-form" title="sdfdfsdf" style="font-size:14px; "> <form> <fieldset> <label for="link">sdfdf</label> <input type="text" name="sdfsdf" id="link" size="32" /> </fieldset> </form> </div> <form id="form1" runat="server" style="margin-top:50px;" > <div> <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" ....... <InsertItemTemplate> ... <sometextbox ...../> <button id="create-user" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all">Create link</button> ... </InsertItemTemplate> After clicking a button a popup window is shown BUT the page starts to refresh immidiately ((( and ofc popup s hidden after that if relocate the button outside the formview - the page is not refreshed, but i need it in formview.. any ideas what to do?

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  • how to change radio buttons style in h:selectOneRadio

    - by Mahmoud Saleh
    i have h:selectOneRadio as follows: <div id="container" class="container"> <h:selectOneRadio layout="pageDirection" id="sel_radio" value="#{mBean.selectedRadio}"> <f:selectItem id="option1" itemLabel="item1" itemValue="1" /> <f:selectItem id="option2" itemLabel="item2" itemValue="2" /> </h:selectOneRadio> . . . </div> above will be rendered as follows: <div id="container" class="container"> <table> <tbody> <tr> <td> <input type="radio" name="myForm:sel_radio" id="myForm:sel_radio:0" value="1"> ISSUE: the container class gives default width for all inputs, that will affect on my radio button, here's the css class: .container input { width: 200px; } and i can't change this class because it's a template and used in other pages, i want to override this style in this page only. i tried to override it as by adding following style: .container #myForm:sel_radio:0 { width: 50px !important; } but it doesn't work too. please advise how to fix that, thanks.

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  • Using jquery Autocomplete on textbox control in c#

    - by Abid Ali
    When I run this code I get alert saying Error. My Code: <script type="text/javascript"> debugger; $(document).ready(function () { SearchText(); }); function SearchText() { $(".auto").autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "Default.aspx/GetAutoCompleteData", data: "{'fname':'" + document.getElementById('txtCategory').value + "'}", dataType: "json", success: function (data) { response(data.d); }, error: function (result) { alert("Error"); } }); } }); } </script> [WebMethod] public static List<string> GetAutoCompleteData(string CategoryName) { List<string> result = new List<string>(); using (SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DbConnection"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("select fname from tblreg where fname LIKE '%'+@CategoryText+'%'", con)) { con.Open(); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CategoryText", CategoryName); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { result.Add(dr["fname"].ToString()); } return result; } } } I want to debug my function GetAutoCompleteData but breakpoint is not fired at all. What's wrong in this code? Please guide. I have attached screen shot above.

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  • Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

    - by tricote
    Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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  • How to check if two records have a self-referencing relation?

    - by Machine
    Consider the following schema with users and their collegues (friends): Users User: columns: user_id: name: user_id as userId type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true autoincrement: true first_name: name: first_name as firstName type: string(45) notnull: true last_name: name: last_name as lastName type: string(45) notnull: true email: type: string(45) notnull: true unique: true relations: Collegues: class: User local: invitor foreign: invitee refClass: CollegueStatus equal: true onDelete: CASCADE onUpdate: CASCADE Join table: CollegueStatus: columns: invitor: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true invitee: type: integer(8) unsigned: 1 primary: true status: type: enum(8) values: [pending, accepted, denied] default: pending notnull: true Now, let's say I two records, one for the user making a HTTP request (the logged in user), and one record for a user he wants to send a message to. I want to check if these users are collegues. Questions: Does Doctrine have any pre-build functionality to check if two records with with self-relations are related? If not, how would you write a method to check this? Where would you put said method? (In the User-class, UserTable-class etc) I could probably do something like this: public function (User $user1, User $user2) { // Ensure we load collegues if $user1 was fetched with DQL that // doesn't load this relation $collegues = $user1->get('Collegues'); $areCollegues = false; foreach($collegues as $collegue) { if($collegue['userId'] === $user2['userId']) { $areCollegues = true; break; } } return $areCollegues; } But this looks a neither efficient nor pretty. I just feel that it should be solved already for self-referencing relations to be nice to use.

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  • Using a Context Menu to delete from a SQLite database in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hi, I have created a list view that displays the names and dates of items stored in a SQLite database, now I want to use a Context Menu to modify these items stored in the database such as edit the name, delete, and view. This is the code for the list view: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.listview); SQLiteDatabase myDB = null; myDB = this.openOrCreateDatabase(MY_DB_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE, null); Cursor cur = myDB.rawQuery("SELECT _id, trackname, tracktime" + " FROM " + MY_DB_TABLE, null); ListAdapter adapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.listview, cur, new String[] { Constants.TRACK_NAME, Constants.TRACK_TIME}, new int[] { R.id.text1, R.id.text2}); ListView list = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.list); list.setAdapter(adapter); registerForContextMenu(list); } and the Context Menu... public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo) { super.onCreateContextMenu(menu, v, menuInfo); menu.setHeaderTitle("Track Options"); menu.add(0, CHANGE_NAME, 0, "Change name"); menu.add(0, VIEW_TRACK, 0, "View track"); menu.add(0, SEND_TRACK, 0, "Send track"); menu.add(0, DELETE_TRACK, 0, "Delete track"); } I have used a Switch statement to control the menu items.. public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { switch (item.getItemId()){ case CHANGE_NAME: changename(); return true; case DELETE_TRACK: deletetrack(); return true; default: return super.onContextItemSelected(item); } So how would I go ahead and map the deletetrack(); method to find the ID of the track stored in the database to the item that has been selected in the list view?

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  • How to remove a specific category on a selected mail in Outlook 2003 with Macro?

    - by szekelya
    Hi, I am trying to transform my Outlook2003 into the closest thing to gmail. I started to use categories, which are pretty similar to labels in gmail. I can assign categories automatically with rules, and I can add categories manually. I have also created "search folders", that show all mails with a given category, if they are not in the Deleted Items or Sent Items folders. This part is almost like the Label views in gmail. Two things are missing basically, which should be done with macros (VBA to be precise) which I'm totally inexperienced with. So hence my questions: -Can someone show me a macro to remove the category "Inbox"? That would act exactly like the Archive button in gmail. In fact I want to assign this macro to a toolbar button and call it Archive. I have a rule that adds the Inbox category to all incoming mail. As I said, I have a search folder displaying all mails categorized as Inbox, and I also have an All Mail search folder, that displays all messages regardless whether they have the Inbox category. Exactly like gmail, just the easy archiving is missing. -Can someone show me a macro that would delete the selected mail/mails and also would remove the Inbox category before deletion? I would replace the default delete button with this macro. (Somewhat less important, as in my search folders I can filter messages that are physically placed in the Deleted Items folder, but it would be more elegant not to have mails categorized as Inbox in the trash. Many thanks in advance, szekelya

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  • Good data structure for efficient insert/querying on arbitrary properties

    - by Juliet
    I'm working on a project where Arrays are the default data structure for everything, and every query is a linear search in the form of: Need a customer with a particular name? customer.Find(x => x.Name == name) Need a customer with a particular unique id? customer.Find(x => x.Id == id) Need a customer of a particular type and age? customer.Find(x => x is PreferredCustomer && x.Age >= age) Need a customer of a particular name and age? customer.Find(x => x.Name == name && x.Age == age) In almost all instances, the criteria for lookups is well-defined. For example, we only search for customers by one or more of the properties Id, Type, Name, or Age. We rarely search by anything else. Is a good data structure to support arbitrary queries of these types with lookup better than O(n)? Any out-of-the-box implementations for .NET?

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