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  • go programming POST FormValue can't be printed

    - by poor_programmer
    Before I being a bit of background, I am very new to go programming language. I am running go on Win 7, latest go package installer for windows. I'm not good at coding but I do like some challenge of learning a new language. I wanted to start learn Erlang but found go very interesting based on the GO I/O videos in youtube. I'm having problem with capturing POST form values in GO. I spend three hours yesterday to get go to print a POST form value in the browser and failed miserably. I don't know what I'm doing wrong, can anyone point me to the right direction? I can easily do this in another language like C#, PHP, VB, ASP, Rails etc. I have search the entire interweb and haven't found a working sample. Below is my sample code. Here is Index.html page {{ define "title" }}Homepage{{ end }} {{ define "content" }} <h1>My Homepage</h1> <p>Hello, and welcome to my homepage!</p> <form method="POST" action="/"> <p> Enter your name : <input type="text" name="username"> </P> <p> <button>Go</button> </form> <br /><br /> {{ end }} Here is the base page <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>{{ template "title" . }}</title> </head> <body> <section id="contents"> {{ template "content" . }} </section> <footer id="footer"> My homepage 2012 copy </footer> </body> </html> now some go code package main import ( "fmt" "http" "strings" "html/template" ) var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func GeneralHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { index.Execute(w, nil) if r.Method == "POST" { a := r.FormValue("username") fmt.Fprintf(w, "hi %s!",a); //<-- this variable does not rendered in the browser!!! } } func helloHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { remPartOfURL := r.URL.Path[len("/hello/"):] fmt.Fprintf(w, "Hello %s!", remPartOfURL) } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", GeneralHandler) http.HandleFunc("/hello/", helloHandler) http.ListenAndServe("localhost:81", nil) } Thanks! PS: Very tedious to add four space before every line of code in stackoverflow especially when you are copy pasting. Didn't find it very user friendly or is there an easier way?

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  • ASP.Net / MySQL : Translating content into several languages

    - by philwilks
    I have an ASP.Net website which uses a MySQL database for the back end. The website is an English e-commerce system, and we are looking at the possibility of translating it into about five other languages (French, Spanish etc). We will be getting human translators to perform the translation - we've looked at automated services but these aren't good enough. The static text on the site (e.g. headings, buttons etc) can easily be served up in multiple languages via .Net's built in localization features (resx files etc). The thing that I'm not so sure about it how best to store and retrieve the multi-language content in the database. For example, there is a products table that includes these fields... productId (int) categoryId (int) title (varchar) summary (varchar) description (text) features (text) The title, summary, description and features text would need to be available in all the different languages. Here are the two options that I've come up with... Create additional field for each language For example we could have titleEn, titleFr, titleEs etc for all the languages, and repeat this for all text columns. We would then adapt our code to use the appropriate field depending on the language selected. This feels a bit hacky, and also would lead to some very large tables. Also, if we wanted to add additional languages in the future it would be time consuming to add even more columns. Use a lookup table We could create a new table with the following format... textId | languageId | content ------------------------------- 10 | EN | Car 10 | FR | Voiture 10 | ES | Coche 11 | EN | Bike 11 | FR | Vélo We'd then adapt our products table to reference the appropriate textId for the title, summary, description and features instead of having the text stored in the product table. This seems much more elegant, but I can't think of a simple way of getting this data out of the database and onto the page without using complex SQL statements. Of course adding new languages in the future would be very simple compared to the previous option. I'd be very grateful for any suggestions about the best way to achieve this! Is there any "best practice" guidance out there? Has anyone done this before?

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  • jQuery - Show field based on value of a type-hidden on refresh.

    - by Sebhael
    Hello, I'm trying to create something in jQuery and having a bit of problems with it. I'm not too adept on the framework, so I'm sure this is all wrong. Anyways, the ultimate goal is a full form that contains 3 radio buttons - depending on the value of the button, a LI is shown. I have all of that done, but my problem is coming with validation. If something fails then the page is reloaded and the div that was selected doesn't show without clicking another radio first, then back to the original. This process is basically the same as someone came up with here. Here's what I got so far. HTML <li> <label> License (radio) </label> <label for="commercial" class="checkBox"> Commercial </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="commercial" id="commercial" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'commercial'); ?> /> <label for="abandonware" class="checkBox"> Abandonware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="abandonware" id="abandonware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'abandonware'); ?> /> <label for="freeware" class="checkBox"> Freeware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="freeware" id="freeware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'freeware'); ?> /> </li> This is followed by three LI's that contain id="commercial, abandonware, and freeware" and class="licenseli" My jQuery is, as said, something from here. $('li.licenseli').hide(); $('input[name=license]:radio').change(function(){ var Type = $(this).val(); // Get value of radio $('li.licenseli').slideUp(); // Hide non-selected $('li#'+Type).slideDown(); // Show Selected }); So what I need help with is I have a hidden input that retrieves the value of the radio box from validation - I want to take this value (or the radio's if possible?) and have the original selected option's LI already visible.

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  • Speed up a web service for auto complete and avoid too many method calls.

    - by jphenow
    So I've got my jquery autocomplete 'working,' but its a little fidgety since I call the webservice method each time a keydown() fires so I get lots of methods hanging and sometimes to get the "auto" to work I have to type it out and backspace a bit because i'm assuming it got its return value a little slow. I've limited the query results to 8 to mininmize time. Is there anything i can do to make this a little snappier? This thing seems near useless if I don't get it a little more responsive. javascript $("#clientAutoNames").keydown(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "WebService.asmx/LoadData", data: "{'input':" + JSON.stringify($("#clientAutoNames").val()) + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (data) { if (data.d != null) { var serviceScript = data.d; } $("#autoNames").html(serviceScript); $('#clientAutoNames').autocomplete({ minLength: 2, source: autoNames, delay: 100, focus: function (event, ui) { $('#project').val(ui.item.label); return false; }, select: function (event, ui) { $('#clientAutoNames').val(ui.item.label); $('#projectid').val(ui.item.value); $('#project-description').html(ui.item.desc); pkey = $('#project-id').val; return false; } }) .data("autocomplete")._renderItem = function (ul, item) { return $("<li></li>") .data("item.autocomplete", item) .append("<a>" + item.label + "<br>" + item.desc + "</a>") .appendTo(ul); } } }); }); WebService.asmx <WebMethod()> _ Public Function LoadData(ByVal input As String) As String Dim result As String = "<script>var autoNames = [" Dim sqlOut As Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader Dim connstring As String = *Datasource* Dim strSql As String = "SELECT TOP 2 * FROM v_Clients WHERE (SearchName Like '" + input + "%') ORDER BY SearchName" Dim cnn As Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection = New Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connstring) Dim cmd As Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand = New Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(strSql, cnn) cnn.Open() sqlOut = cmd.ExecuteReader() Dim c As Integer = 0 While sqlOut.Read() result = result + "{" result = result + "value: '" + sqlOut("ContactID").ToString() + "'," result = result + "label: '" + sqlOut("SearchName").ToString() + "'," 'result = result + "desc: '" + title + " from " + company + "'," result = result + "}," End While result = result + "];</script>" sqlOut.Close() cnn.Close() Return result End Function I'm sure I'm just going about this slightly wrong or not doing a better balance of calls or something. Greatly appreciated!

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  • PHP echo query result in Class??

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I have a question about PHP Class. I am trying to get the result from Mysql via PHP. I would like to know if the best practice is to display the result inside the Class or store the result and handle it in html. For example, display result inside the Class class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); } while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ //display the result..ex: echo $row['winner']; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); //no returns } } Or return the query result as a variable and handle in php class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); // create an array } $ret = array(); while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ $ret[]=$row; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); return $ret; // and handle the return value in php } } Two things here: I found that returned variable in php is a little bit complex to play with since it is two dimension array. I am not sure what the best practice is and would like to ask you experts opinions. Every time I create a new method, I have to recreate the $connection variable: see below $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } It seems like redundant to me. Can I only do it once instead of calling it anytime I need a query? I am new to php class. hope you guys can help me. thanks.

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  • C++ vector and segmentation faults

    - by Headspin
    I am working on a simple mathematical parser. Something that just reads number = 1 + 2; I have a vector containing these tokens. They store a type and string value of the character. I am trying to step through the vector to build an AST of these tokens, and I keep getting segmentation faults, even when I am under the impression my code should prevent this from happening. Here is the bit of code that builds the AST: struct ASTGen { const vector<Token> &Tokens; unsigned int size, pointer; ASTGen(const vector<Token> &t) : Tokens(t), pointer(0) { size = Tokens.size() - 1; } unsigned int next() { return pointer + 1; } Node* Statement() { if(next() <= size) { switch(Tokens[next()].type) { case EQUALS : Node* n = Assignment_Expr(); return n; } } advance(); } void advance() { if(next() <= size) ++pointer; } Node* Assignment_Expr() { Node* lnode = new Node(Tokens[pointer], NULL, NULL); advance(); Node* n = new Node(Tokens[pointer], lnode, Expression()); return n; } Node* Expression() { if(next() <= size) { advance(); if(Tokens[next()].type == SEMICOLON) { Node* n = new Node(Tokens[pointer], NULL, NULL); return n; } if(Tokens[next()].type == PLUS) { Node* lnode = new Node(Tokens[pointer], NULL, NULL); advance(); Node* n = new Node(Tokens[pointer], lnode, Expression()); return n; } } } }; ... ASTGen AST(Tokens); Node* Tree = AST.Statement(); cout << Tree->Right->Data.svalue << endl; I can access Tree->Data.svalue and get the = Node's token info, so I know that node is getting spawned, and I can also get Tree->Left->Data.svalue and get the variable to the left of the = I have re-written it many times trying out different methods for stepping through the vector, but I always get a segmentation fault when I try to access the = right node (which should be the + node) Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

    - by Neren
    Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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  • My UITabBarController isn't appearing, but its first view is?

    - by E-Madd
    I've done some reorganizing of my project recently and now I'm not seeing my tab bar controller, but its first view controller's view is appearing. Here's a breakdown of everything that happens prior to the problem. App Delegate loads FirstViewController with nib. FirstViewController loads the application data from my server and then presents MainViewController with a modal transition. MainViewController is where the UITabBarController is supposed to be appearing. It's a very simple class. The .h @interface MainViewController : UIViewController <UITabBarControllerDelegate> { IBOutlet UITabBarController *tabBarController; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UITabBarController *tabBarController; @end The .m @implementation MainViewController @synthesize tabBarController; - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"MainViewController viewDidLoad"); //set tab bar controller delegate to self tabBarController.delegate = self; // home view HomeViewController *home = [[HomeViewController alloc] initWithTab]; // menu view MenuViewController *menu = [[MenuViewController alloc] initWithTab]; // special offers view SpecialOffersViewController *so = [[SpecialOffersViewController alloc] initWithTab]; // events view EventsViewController *events = [[EventsViewController alloc] initWithTab]; // info view InfoViewController *info = [[InfoViewController alloc] initWithTab]; //populate the tab bar controller with view controllers NSArray *controllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:home, menu, so, events, info, nil]; tabBarController.viewControllers = controllers; //release view controllers [home release]; [menu release]; [so release]; [events release]; [info release]; [controllers release]; //add tab bar controller to view [self.view addSubview:tabBarController.view]; [super viewDidLoad]; } and here's the bit from FirstViewController that modally presents the MainViewController... MainViewController *controller = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; I'm not getting any compiler errors or warnings and the app runs swell... no crashing. It just isn't showing the darned TabBar, and it used to when I was creating it on my AppDelegate. I checked everything in my NIB and my outlets seem to be hooked up ok. I have no idea what's happened. Help!

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  • Basic data alignment question

    - by Broken Logic
    I've been playing around to see how my computer works under the hood. What I'm interested in is seeing is what happens on the stack inside a function. To do this I've written the following toy program: #include <stdio.h> void __cdecl Test1(char a, unsigned long long b, char c) { char c1; unsigned long long b1; char a1; c1 = 'b'; b1 = 4; a1 = 'r'; printf("%d %d - %d - %d %d Total: %d\n", (long)&b1 - (long)&a1, (long)&c1 - (long)&b1, (long)&a - (long)&c1, (long)&b - (long)&a, (long)&c - (long)&b, (long)&c - (long)&a1 ); }; struct TestStruct { char a; unsigned long long b; char c; }; void __cdecl Test2(char a, unsigned long long b, char c) { TestStruct locals; locals.a = 'b'; locals.b = 4; locals.c = 'r'; printf("%d %d - %d - %d %d Total: %d\n", (long)&locals.b - (long)&locals.a, (long)&locals.c - (long)&locals.b, (long)&a - (long)&locals.c, (long)&b - (long)&a, (long)&c - (long)&b, (long)&c - (long)&locals.a ); }; int main() { Test1('f', 0, 'o'); Test2('f', 0, 'o'); return 0; } And this spits out the following: 9 19 - 13 - 4 8 Total: 53 8 8 - 24 - 4 8 Total: 52 The function args are well behaved but as the calling convention is specified, I'd expect this. But the local variables are a bit wonky. My question is, why wouldn't these be the same? The second call seems to produce a more compact and better aligned stack. Looking at the ASM is unenlightening (at least to me), as the variable addresses are still aliased there. So I guess this is really a question about the assembler itself allocates the stack to local variables. I realise that any specific answer is likely to be platform specific. I'm more interested in a general explanation unless this quirk really is platform specific. For the record though, I'm compiling with VS2010 on a 64bit Intel machine.

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  • FILE_NOT_FOUND when trying to open COM port C++

    - by Moutabreath
    I am trying to open a com port for reading and writing using C++ but I can't seem to pass the first stage of actually opening it. I get an INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE on the handle with GetLastError FILE_NOT_FOUND. I have searched around the web for a couple of days I'm fresh out of ideas. I have searched through all the questions regarding COM on this website too. I have scanned through the existing ports (or so I believe) to get the name of the port right. I also tried combinations of _T("COM1") with the slashes, without the slashes, with colon, without colon and without the _T I'm using windows 7 on 64 bit machine. this is the code i got I'll be glad for any input on this void SendToCom(char* data, int len) { DWORD cbNeeded = 0; DWORD dwPorts = 0; EnumPorts(NULL, 1, NULL, 0, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); //What will be the return value BOOL bSuccess = FALSE; LPCSTR COM1 ; BYTE* pPorts = static_cast<BYTE*>(malloc(cbNeeded)); bSuccess = EnumPorts(NULL, 1, pPorts, cbNeeded, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); if (bSuccess){ PORT_INFO_1* pPortInfo = reinterpret_cast<PORT_INFO_1*>(pPorts); for (DWORD i=0; i<dwPorts; i++) { //If it looks like "COMX" then size_t nLen = _tcslen(pPortInfo->pName); if (nLen > 3) { if ((_tcsnicmp(pPortInfo->pName, _T("COM"), 3) == 0) ){ COM1 =pPortInfo->pName; //COM1 ="\\\\.\\COM1"; HANDLE m_hCommPort = CreateFile( COM1 , GENERIC_READ|GENERIC_WRITE, // access ( read and write) 0, // (share) 0:cannot share the COM port NULL, // security (None) OPEN_EXISTING, // creation : open_existing FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, // we want overlapped operation NULL // no templates file for COM port... ); if (m_hCommPort==INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { DWORD err = GetLastError(); if (err == ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else if(err == ERROR_INVALID_NAME) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_INVALID_NAME",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else { MessageBox(hWnd,"unkown error",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } } else{ WriteAndReadPort(m_hCommPort,data); } } pPortInfo++; } } } }

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • [NHibernate and ASP.NET MVC] How can I implement a robust session-per-request pattern in my project,

    - by Guillaume Gervais
    I'm currently building an ASP.NET MVC project, with NHibernate as its persistance layer. For now, some functionnalities have been implemented, but only use local NHibernate sessions: each method that accessed the database (read or write) needs to instanciate its own NHibernate session, with the "using()" directive. The problem is that I want to leverage NHibernate's Lazy-Loading capabilities to improve the performance of my project. This implies an open NHibernate session per request until the view is rendered. Furthermore, simultaneous request must be supported (multiple Sessions at the same time). How can I achieve that as cleanly as possible? I searched the Web a little bit and learned about the session-per-request pattern. Most of the implementations I saw used some sort of Http* (HttpContext, etc.) object to store the session. Also, using the Application_BeginRequest/Application_EndRequest functions is complicated, since they get fired for each HTTP request (aspx files, css files, js files, etc.), when I only want to instanciate a session once per request. The concern that I have is that I don't want my views or controllers to have access to NHibernate sessions (or, more generally, NHibernate namespaces and code). That means that I do not want to handle sessions at the controller level nor the view one. I have a few options in mind. Which one seems the best ? Use interceptors (like in GRAILS) that get triggered before and after the controller action. These would open and close sessions/transactions. Is it possible in the ASP.NET MVC world? Use the CurrentSessionContext Singleton provided by NHibernate in a Web context. Using this page as an example, I think this is quite promising, but that still requires filters at the controller level. Use the HttpContext.Current.Items to store the request session. This, coupled with a few lines of code in Global.asax.cs, can easily provide me with a session on the request level. However, it means that dependencies will be injected between NHibernate and my views (HttpContext). Thank you very much!

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Convert string from getline into a number

    - by haskellguy
    I am trying to create a 2D array with vectors. I have a file that has for each line a set of numbers. So what I did I implemented a split function that every time I have a new number (separated by \t) it splits that and add it to the vector vector<double> &split(const string &s, char delim, vector<double> &elems) { stringstream ss(s); string item; while (getline(ss, item, delim)) { cout << item << endl; double number = atof(item.c_str()); cout << number; elems.push_back(number); } return elems; } vector<double> split(const string &s, char delim) { vector<double> elems; split(s, delim, elems); return elems; } After that I simply iterate through it. int main() { ifstream file("./data/file.txt"); string row; vector< vector<double> > matrix; int line_count = -1; while (getline(file, row)) { line_count++; if (line_count <= 4) continue; vector<double> cols = split(row, '\t'); matrix.push_back(cols); } ... } Now my issues is in this bit here: while (getline(ss, item, delim)) { cout << item << endl; double number = atof(item.c_str()); cout << number; Where item.c_str() is converted to a 0. Shouldn't that be still a string having the same value as item? It works on a separate example if I do straight from string to c_string, but when I use this getline I end up in this error situation, hints?

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  • PHP MySQL Zend-ACL - Find all inherited items (Children / Parents)

    - by Scoobler
    I have one MySQL DB table like the following, the resources table: id | name | type 1 | guest | user 2 | member | user 3 | moderator | user 4 | owner | user 5 | admin | user 6 | index | controller Onto the next table, the rules table: id | user_id | rule | resource_id | extras 1 | 2 | 3 | 1 | null 2 | 3 | 3 | 2 | null 3 | 4 | 3 | 3 | null 4 | 5 | 3 | 4 | null 5 | 6 | 1 | 1 | index,login,register 6 | 6 | 2 | 2 | login,register 7 | 6 | 1 | 2 | logout OK, sorry for the length, but I am trying to give a full picture of what I am trying to do. So the way it works, a role (aka user) can be granted (rule: 1) access to a controller, a role can inherit (rule: 3) access from another role or a role and be denied (rule: 2) access to a controller. (A user is a resource and a controller is a resource) Access to actions are granted / denied using the extras column. This all works, its not a problem with setting up the ACL within zend. What I am now trying to do is show the relationships; to do that I need to find the lowest level a role is granted access to a controller stopping if it has explicitly been removed. I plan on listing the roles. When I click a role, I want it to show all the controllers that role has access to. Then clicking on a controller shows the actions the role is allowed to do. So in the example above, a guest is allowed to view the index action of the index controller along with the login action. A member inherits the same access, but is then denied access to the login action and register action. A moderator inherits the rules of a member. So if I were to select the role moderator. I want to see the controller index listed. If I click on the controller, it should show the allowed actions as being action: index. (which was originally granted to the guest, but hasn't since been dissallowed) Is there any examples to doing this. I am obviously working with the Zend MVC (PHP) and MySQL. Even just a persudo code example would be a helpful starting point - this is one of the last parts of the jigsaw I am putting together. P.S. Obviously I have the ACL object - is it going to be easier to interigate that or is it better to do it my self via PHP/MySQL? The aim will be, show what a role can access which will then allow me to add or edit a role, controller and action in a GUI style (that is somewhat the easy bit) - currently I am updating the DB manually as I have been building the site.

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  • Create a Counter within a For-Loop?

    - by Todd Hartman
    I am a novice programmer and apologize upfront for the complicated question. I am trying to create a lexical decision task for experimental research, in which respondents must decide if a series of letters presented on the screen make a "word" or "not a word". Everything works reasonably well except for the bit where I want to randomly select a word (category A) or nonword (category B) for each of 80 trials from a separate input file (input.txt). The randomization works, but some elements from each list (category A or B) are skipped because I have used "round.catIndex = j;" where "j" is a loop for each successive trial. Because some trials randomly select from Category A and other from Category B, "j" does not move successively down the list for each category. Instead, elements from the Category A list may be selected from something like 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, and so on (it varies each time because of the randomization). To make a long story short(!), how do I create a counter that will work within the for-loop for each trial, so that every word and nonword from Category A and B, respectively, will be used for the lexical decision task? Everything I have tried thus far does not work properly or breaks the javascript entirely. Below is my code snippet and the full code is available at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.js. Also, the full lexical decision task can be accessed at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.php. Thanks! function initRounds() { numlst = []; for (var k = 0; k<numrounds; k++) { if (k % 2 == 0) numlst[k] = 0; else numlst[k] = 1; } numlst.sort(function() {return 0.5 - Math.random()}) for (var j = 0; j<numrounds; j++) { var round = new LDTround(); if (numlst[j] == 0) { round.category = input.catA.datalabel; } else if (numlst[j] == 1) { round.category = input.catB.datalabel; } // pick a category & stimulus if (round.category == input.catA.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catA.itemtype; round.correct = 1; round.catIndex = j; } else if (round.category == input.catB.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catB.itemtype; round.correct = 2; round.catIndex = j; } roundArray[i].push(round); } return roundArray; }

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  • Approaches for Content-based Item Recommendations

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hello, I'm currently developing an application where I want to group similar items. Items (like videos) can be created by users and also their attributes can be altered or extended later (like new tags). Instead of relying on users' preferences as most collaborative filtering mechanisms do, I want to compare item similarity based on the items' attributes (like similar length, similar colors, similar set of tags, etc.). The computation is necessary for two main purposes: Suggesting x similar items for a given item and for clustering into groups of similar items. My application so far is follows an asynchronous design and I want to decouple this clustering component as far as possible. The creation of new items or the addition of new attributes for an existing item will be advertised by publishing events the component can then consume. Computations can be provided best-effort and "snapshotted", which means that I'm okay with the best result possible at a given point in time, although result quality will eventually increase. So I am now searching for appropriate algorithms to compute both similar items and clusters. At important constraint is scalability. Initially the application has to handle a few thousand items, but later million items might be possible as well. Of course, computations will then be executed on additional nodes, but the algorithm itself should scale. It would also be nice if the algorithm supports some kind of incremental mode on partial changes of the data. My initial thought of comparing each item with each other and storing the numerical similarity sounds a little bit crude. Also, it requires n*(n-1)/2 entries for storing all similarities and any change or new item will eventually cause n similarity computations. Thanks in advance! UPDATE tl;dr To clarify what I want, here is my targeted scenario: User generate entries (think of documents) User edit entry meta data (think of tags) And here is what my system should provide: List of similar entries to a given item as recommendation Clusters of similar entries Both calculations should be based on: The meta data/attributes of entries (i.e. usage of similar tags) Thus, the distance of two entries using appropriate metrics NOT based on user votings, preferences or actions (unlike collaborative filtering). Although users may create entries and change attributes, the computation should only take into account the items and their attributes, and not the users associated with (just like a system where only items and no users exist). Ideally, the algorithm should support: permanent changes of attributes of an entry incrementally compute similar entries/clusters on changes scale something better than a simple distance table, if possible (because of the O(n²) space complexity)

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • Hacking "Contact Form 7" code to Add A "Referred By" field

    - by Scott B
    I've got about 6 subdomains that have a "contact us" link and I'm sending all these links to a single form that uses "Contact Form 7". I add ?from=site-name to each of the links so that I can set a $referredFrom variable in the contact form. The only two things I'm missing are (1) the ability to insert this referredFrom variable into the email that I get whenever someone submits the form and (2) The ability to redirect the user back to the site they came from (stored in $referredFrom) Any ideas? Here's a bit of code from includes/classes.php that I thought might be part of the email insert but its not doing much... function mail() { global $referrer; $refferedfrom = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE $fes = $this->form_scan_shortcode(); foreach ( $fes as $fe ) { $name = $fe['name']; $pipes = $fe['pipes']; if ( empty( $name ) ) continue; $value = $_POST[$name]; if ( WPCF7_USE_PIPE && is_a( $pipes, 'WPCF7_Pipes' ) && ! $pipes->zero() ) { if ( is_array( $value) ) { $new_value = array(); foreach ( $value as $v ) { $new_value[] = $pipes->do_pipe( $v ); } $value = $new_value; } else { $value = $pipes->do_pipe( $value ); } } $this->posted_data[$name] = $value; $this->posted_data[$refferedfrom] = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE } I'm also thinking that I could insert the referredFrom code somewhere in this function as well... function compose_and_send_mail( $mail_template ) { $regex = '/\[\s*([a-zA-Z][0-9a-zA-Z:._-]*)\s*\]/'; $callback = array( &$this, 'mail_callback' ); $mail_subject = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['subject'] ); $mail_sender = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['sender'] ); $mail_body = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['body'] ); $mail_recipient = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['recipient'] ); $mail_headers = "From: $mail_sender\n"; if ( $mail_template['use_html'] ) $mail_headers .= "Content-Type: text/html\n"; $mail_additional_headers = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['additional_headers'] ); $mail_headers .= trim( $mail_additional_headers ) . "\n"; if ( $this->uploaded_files ) { $for_this_mail = array(); foreach ( $this->uploaded_files as $name => $path ) { if ( false === strpos( $mail_template['attachments'], "[${name}]" ) ) continue; $for_this_mail[] = $path; } return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers, $for_this_mail ); } else { return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers ); } }

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  • Linking to a section of a site that is hidden by a hide/show JavaScript function

    - by hollyb
    I am using a bit of JavaScript to show/hide sections of a site when a tab is clicked. I'm trying to figure out if there is a way I can link back to the page and have a certain tab open based on that link. Here is the JS: var ids=new Array('section1','section2','section3','section4'); function switchid(id, el){ hideallids(); showdiv(id); var li = el.parentNode.parentNode.childNodes[0]; while (li) { if (!li.tagName || li.tagName.toLowerCase() != "li") li = li.nextSibling; // skip the text node if (li) { li.className = ""; li = li.nextSibling; } } el.parentNode.className = "active"; } function hideallids(){ //loop through the array and hide each element by id for (var i=0;i<ids.length;i++){ hidediv(ids[i]); } } function hidediv(id) { //safe function to hide an element with a specified id document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'none'; } function showdiv(id) { //safe function to show an element with a specified id document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'block'; } And the HTML <ul> <li class="active"><a onclick="switchid('section1', this);return false;">One</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section2', this);return false;">Two</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section3', this);return false;">Three</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section4', this);return false;">Four</a></li> </ul> <div id="section1" style="display:block;"> <div id="section2" style="display:none;"> <div id="section3" style="display:none;"> <div id="section4" style="display:none;"> I haven't been able to come up with a way to link back to a specific section. Is it even possible with this method? Thanks!

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  • c++ std::ostringstream vs std::string::append

    - by NickSoft
    In all examples that use some kind of buffering I see they use stream instead of string. How is std::ostringstream and << operator different than using string.append. Which one is faster and which one uses less resourses (memory). One difference I know is that you can output different types into output stream (like integer) rather than the limited types that string::append accepts. Here is an example: std::ostringstream os; os << "Content-Type: " << contentType << ";charset=" << charset << "\r\n"; std::string header = os.str(); vs std::string header("Content-Type: "); header.append(contentType); header.append(";charset="); header.append(charset); header.append("\r\n"); Obviously using stream is shorter, but I think append returns reference to the string so it can be written like this: std::string header("Content-Type: "); header.append(contentType) .append(";charset=") .append(charset) .append("\r\n"); And with output stream you can do: std::string content; ... os << "Content-Length: " << content.length() << "\r\n"; But what about memory usage and speed? Especially when used in a big loop. Update: To be more clear the question is: Which one should I use and why? Is there situations when one is preferred or the other? For performance and memory ... well I think benchmark is the only way since every implementation could be different. Update 2: Well I don't get clear idea what should I use from the answers which means that any of them will do the job, plus vector. Cubbi did nice benchmark with the addition of Dietmar Kühl that the biggest difference is construction of those objects. If you are looking for an answer you should check that too. I'll wait a bit more for other answers (look previous update) and if I don't get one I think I'll accept Tolga's answer because his suggestion to use vector is already done before which means vector should be less resource hungry.

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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