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• How do I flatten an associative array into an array with only values in PHP?

  - by aalaap

  I have an array that has keys and values. For eg: Array ( [name] => aalaap [age] => 29 [location] => mumbai ) I want to convert the keys from this into values, but I want the values to apear right after the keys. For eg: Array ( [0] => name [1] => aalaap [2] => age [3] => 29 [4] => location [5] => mumbai ) I can easily write an iteration function that will do this... for eg: array_flatten($arr) { foreach ($arr as $arrkey => $arrval) { $arr_new[] = $arrkey; $arr_new[] = $arrval; } return $arr_new; } ...but I'm trying to find out if there's any way this can be accomplished using array_combine, array_keys, array_values and/or array_merge, preferably in one, so i don't need to use a custom function. Is there?

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• How To Go About Updating Old C Code

  - by Ben313

  Hello: I have been working on some 10 year old C code at my job this week, and after implementing a few changes, I went to the boss and asked if he needed anything else done. Thats when he dropped the bomb. My next task was to go through the 7000 or so lines and understand more of the code, AND, to modularize the code somewhat. I asked him how he would like the source code modularized, and he said to start putting the old C code into c++ classes. Being a good worker, I nodded my head yes, and went back to my desk, where I sit now, wondering how in the world to take this code, and "modularize" it. Its already in 20 source files, each with its own purpose and function. in addition, there are three "main" structs. each of these stuctures has 30 plus fields, many of them being other, smaller sturcts. Its a complete mess to try to understand, but almost every single function in the program is passed a pointer to one of the structs, and uses the struct heavily. Is there any clean way for me to shoehorn this into classes? I am resolved to do it if it can be done, I just have no idea how to begin.

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• Anchor tags are blank

  - by ryanday

  I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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• Converting Generic Type into reference type after checking its type using GetType(). How ?

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  i am trying to call a function that is defined in a class RFIDeas_Wrapper(dll being used). But when i checked for type of reader and after that i used it to call function it shows me error Cannot convert type T to RFIDeas_Wrapper. EDIT private List<string> GetTagCollection<T>(T Reader) { TagCollection = new List<string>(); if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(RFIDeas_Wrapper)) { ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); // here Reader is of type RFIDeas_Wrapper //, but i m not able to convert Reader into its datatype. string Tag_Id = ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).TagID(); //Adds Valid Tag Ids into the collection if(Tag_Id!="0") TagCollection.Add(Tag_Id); } else if (Reader.GetType() == typeof(AlienReader)) TagCollection = ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; return TagCollection; } ((RFIDeas_Wrapper)Reader).OpenDevice(); , ((AlienReader)Reader).TagCollection; I want this line to be executed without any issue. As Reader will always be of the type i m specifying. How to make compiler understand the same thing.

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• Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

  - by Rudism

  I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

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• Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

  - by AspOnMyNet

  1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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• javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

  - by Bill Dawes

  Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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• Getting the data inside the C# web service from Jsonified string

  - by gnomixa

  In my JS I use Jquery's $ajax functions to call the web service and send the jsonified data to it. The data is in the following format: var countries = { "1A": { id: "1A", name: "Andorra" }, "2B": { id: 2B name: "Belgium" }, ..etc }; var jsonData = JSON.stringify({ data: data }); //then $ajax is called and it makes the call to the c# web service On the c# side the web service needs to unpack this data, currently it comes in as string[][] data type. How do I convert it to the format so I can refer to the properties such as .id and .name? Assuming I have a class called Sample with these properties? Thanks! EDIT: Here is my JS code: var jsonData = JSON.stringify(countries); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/MyService.asmx/Foo', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: jsonData, success: function (msg) { alert(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, status) { switch (status) { case 404: alert('File not found'); break; case 500: alert('Server error'); break; case 0: alert('Request aborted'); break; default: alert('Unknown error ' + status); } } }); inside c# web service I have: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Data; using System.Collections; using System.IO; using System.Web.Script.Services; [WebMethod] [ScriptMethod] public string Foo(IDictionary<string, Country> countries) { return "success"; }

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• Comet (long polling) and XmlHttpRequest status

  - by chris_l

  I'm playing around a little bit with raw XmlHttpRequestObjects + Comet Long Polling. (Usually, I'd let GWT or another framework handle of this for me, but I want to learn more about it.) I wrote the following code: function longPoll() { var xhr = createXHR(); // Creates an XmlHttpRequestObject xhr.open('GET', 'LongPollServlet', true); xhr.onreadystatechange = function () { if (xhr.readyState == 4) { if (xhr.status == 200) { ... } if (xhr.status > 0) { longPoll(); } } } xhr.send(null); } ... <body onload="javascript:longPoll()">... I wrapped the longPoll() call in an if statement that checks for status > 0, because I encountered, that when I leave the page (by browsing somewhere else, or by reloading it), one last unnecessary comet call is sent. [And on Firefox, it even causes severe problems when doing a page reload, for some reason I don't fully understand yet.] Question: Is that status check the correct way to handle this problem, or is there a better solution?

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• Get index of nth occurrence of char in a string

  - by StickFigs

  I'm trying to make a function that returns the index of the Nth occurrence of a given char in a string. Here is my attempt: private int IndexOfNth(string str, char c, int n) { int index = str.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index >= 0) { string temp = str.Substring(index, str.Length - index); for (int j = 1; j < n; j++) { index = temp.IndexOf(c) + 1; if (index < 0) { return -1; } temp = temp.Substring(index, temp.Length - index); } index = index + (str.Length); } return index; } This should find the first occurrence, chop off that front part of the string, find the first occurrence from the new substring, and on and on until it gets the index of the nth occurrence. However I failed to consider how the index of the final substring is going to be offset from the original actual index in the original string. How do I make this work? Also as a side question, if I want the char to be the tab character do I pass this function '\t' or what?

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• AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

  - by Ross

  Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

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• [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

  - by Juliet

  You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

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• How do I fully reload my Sencha Touch App when tapping 'refresh'?

  - by torr

  My list view layout is similar to Pinterest, with absolutely positioned blocks. Unfortunately, this seems to require a full re-initialization at refresh. If reload only the store (as below) the new blocks are incorrectly positioned. How do I reload the app when the user clicks on refresh? This is my View: Ext.require(['Ext.data.Store', 'MyApp.model.StreamModel'], function() { Ext.define('MyApp.view.HomeView', { extend: 'Ext.navigation.View', xtype: 'homepanel', requires: [ 'Ext.dataview.List', ], config: { title: 'Home', iconCls: 'home', styleHtmlContent: true, navigationBar: { items: [ { xtype: 'button', iconMask: true, iconCls: 'refresh', align: 'left', action: 'refreshButton' } ] }, items: { title: 'My', xtype: 'list', itemTpl: [ '<div class="post">', ... '</div>' ].join(''), store: new Ext.data.Store({ model: 'MyApp.model.StreamModel', autoLoad: true, storeId: 'stream' }), } } }); }); Model: Ext.define('MyApp.model.StreamModel', { extend: 'Ext.data.Model', config: { fields: [ 'post_id', 'comments' ], proxy: { type: 'jsonp', url: 'http://My.com/app', reader: { type: 'json', } } } }); and my Controller: Ext.define('MyApp.controller.RefreshController', { extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', requires: [ 'Ext.navigation.View' ], config: { control: { 'button[action=refreshButton]': { tap: 'refresh' } } }, refresh: function() { // Ext.StoreMgr.get('stream').load(); // here I'd like to reload the app instead // not just the store } });

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• asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

  - by Jopache

  I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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• How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

  - by Randy

  So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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• How to bind to another event after ajax call in jquery

  - by robert

  Hi, I'm creating a graph using flot javascript library. I have enabled clickable event and the div is binded to plotclick event. So, when a datapoint is clicked, an ajax call is made and the result is used to replace the current div. After this i need to bind the div to a new event. I tried to call bind, but it is still bound to old callback. When i call unbind and bind, the new callback is not called. var handleTeacherClick = function( event, pos, item ) { if( typeof item != "undefined" && item ) { var user_id = jQuery( 'input[name="id' + item.datapoint[0] + '"]' ).val(); jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: BASEPATH + 'index.php/ajax/home/latest', data: { "user_id": user_id }, dataType: 'json', success: function ( result ) { jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_prog'), result.progress_data, result.progress_options); jQuery.plot(jQuery('#stats_perf'), result.performance_data, result.performance_options); jQuery('.stats_title'). html('<span class="stats_title">'+ ' >> Chapter '+Math.ceil(item.datapoint[0])+'</span>'); jQuery('#stats_prog')./*unbind("plotclick").*/ bind('plotclick', statClickHandler ); jQuery('#stats_perf')./*unbind("plotclick"). */ bind( 'plotclick', statClickHandler ); }, }); } }

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• ExtJs Grid in TabPanel auto Fit issue.

  - by Jinah Adam

  Hi, I am having problems redering an grid in a a tab panel (Its made with Ext Designer.). the hierarchy is as follows , Viewport. - tabPanel - Panel - Container - Grid. This is how its displayed now Here is the code for viewport mainWindowUi = Ext.extend(Ext.Viewport, { layout: 'border', id: 'mainWindow', initComponent: function() { this.items = [ { xtype: 'panel', title: 'Navigation', region: 'west', width: 200, frame: true, split: true, titleCollapse: true, collapsible: true, id: 'navigation', items: [ { flex: 1, xtype: 'mytreepanel' } ] }, { xtype: 'tabpanel', layoutOnTabChange: true, resizeTabs: true, defaults: { layout: 'fit', autoScroll: true }, region: 'center', tpl: '', id: 'mainTabPanel', layoutConfig: { deferredRender: true } } ]; mainWindowUi.superclass.initComponent.call(this); } }); here is the code to create the tab.. (created from a nav panel programmatically) var currentTab = tabPanel.findById(node.id); // If not yet created, create the tab if (!currentTab){ currentTab = tabPanel.add({ title:node.id, id:node.id, closable:true, items:[{ xtype: 'phasePanel', layout: 'fit', autoscroll: true, }], autoScroll:true, }); } // Activate tab tabPanel.setActiveTab(currentTab); here is the code for the panel/container/grid PhasePanelUi = Ext.extend(Ext.Panel, { frame: true, layout: 'anchor', autoScroll: true, autoWidth: true, defaults: '', initComponent: function() { this.items = [ { xtype: 'container', autoScroll: true, layout: 'fit', defaults: { layout: 'fit', autoScroll: true }, id: 'gridHolder', items: [ { xtype: 'grid', title: 'Current Phases', store: 'PhaseStore', autoDestroy: false, viewConfig: '', deferRowRender: false, autoLoad: '', ref: '../phaseGrid', id: 'phaseGrid', columns: [ { xtype: 'gridcolumn', header: 'Name', dataIndex: 'name', sortable: true, width: 200 }, { xtype: 'gridcolumn', header: 'Estate', dataIndex: 'estate_name', sortable: true, width: 500 } ] } ] } ]; PhasePanelUi.superclass.initComponent.call(this); } }); i have tried all sorts of combinations. but just cant get the grid to render correctly any sort of assistance will be appreciated.

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• Windows Azure - access webrole local storage from separate workerrole

  - by Brett Smith

  I'm running an application on windows azure, the MVC views need to be dynamic, I started by storing them as records in the database, but am quite keen to move them to a physical location. My concept was to create the physical file via code... which worked great and speeds up the page load dramatically. This was of course before I realised that the files were only available for the duration of the role Next I looked at a start up task to create the files when the role was started - however I then realised that any separate instances weren't going to sync up unless I monitored the database for changes. So I moved from a start up task to a function in the run method of the role that checks the database every 10 minutes to see if changes have occurred. The problem is that this seems to choke up the application (at least in the warm up stage). Ideally I would like to move the run function to it's own worker role that can sit there and push files out to web role instances, but I'm unsure on how I would go about accessing the web roles local storage from the worker role. Can anybody tell me whether this is actually possible? and hopefully point me in the right direction to achieve this? Just to clarify what I'm trying to achieve -View is created in user interface running on web role and stored in database -Separate web role (front end) has clientside application with virtualpath provider pointing Views requests to local storage (localresource) -separate worker role to create View structure and load this into clientside web role local storage

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• Constructor Overloading

  - by Mark Baker

  Normally when I want to create a class constructor that accepts different types of parameters, I'll use a kludgy overloading principle of not defining any args in the constructor definition: e.g. for an ECEF coordinate class constructor, I want it to accept either $x, $y and $z arguments, or to accept a single array argument containg x, y and z values, or to accept a single LatLong object I'd create a constructor looking something like: function __construct() { // Identify if any arguments have been passed to the constructor if (func_num_args() > 0) { $args = func_get_args(); // Identify the overload constructor required, based on the datatype of the first argument $argType = gettype($args[0]); switch($argType) { case 'array' : // Array of Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromArray'; break; case 'object' : // A LatLong object that needs converting to Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromLatLong'; break; default : // Individual Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromXYZ'; break; } // Call the appropriate overload constructor call_user_func_array(array($this,$overloadConstructor),$args); } } // function __construct() I'm looking at an alternative: to provide a straight constructor with $x, $y and $z as defined arguments, and to provide static methods of createECEFfromArray() and createECEFfromLatLong() that handle all the necessary extraction of x, y and z; then create a new ECEF object using the standard constructor, and return that Which option is cleaner from an OO purists perspective?

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• Hide table rows if Cookie is there

  - by kuswantin

  Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• why doesn't IE8 refresh textbox right away?(Jquery)

  - by AndrewSmith

  I have 3 radio buttons and one textbox in my page. These 3 radio controls represent corresponding choice and among them, the third one enables textbox that is disabled by default. If user clicks any one from the first twos after clicking the third, the textbox will be emptied(if user input any) and disabled again. The problem is, in IE, the textbox isn't emptied not until I click back once again on the said textbox. I've used jquery val methods as well as attr but nothing seems to work. You can see my code as follows. The very same code works just fine in Mozilla. I'm not sure why IE is having problem. m.bind_eventform = function(){ $('input[name=poster]').change(function(){ if($('input[name=poster]:checked').val()==2) $('#poster_other').removeAttr('disabled'); else if(!($('#poster_other').is(':disabled'))) { $('#poster_other').attr('disabled','disabled'); $('#poster_other').attr('value',''); //this one doesn't work $('#poster_other').val(''); //as well as this one } }); }; $(document).ready(m.bind_eventform);

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• ActionScript : Applying frame to a image / background?

  - by Jay

  I am editing a custom calendar application in flash. The purpose of this app is to let you select your own images, and create a calendar out of it. You can basically, drag and drop images of your choice and they apply frame/borders, or drag and drop embellishments. Here is the piece of code that draws a border/frame on the embellishment/image of your choice. tempListener.onLoadInit = function(target_mc:MovieClip) { var mcName = target_mc._name.substring(0, target_mc._name.indexOf("@", 0)); if(mcName == "frame_Image") { target_mc.onPress = function() { if(_root.selectedImage != null) { var index = this._name.substring(this._name.indexOf("@",0)+1, this._name.length); var objPath = nodesFrames.childNodes[index-1].attributes.image; if(_root.selectedImage._name.split("@")[0] == "image") { var mask = _root.selectedImage[_root.selectedImage._parent._name + "_" + _root.selectedImage._name + "_maskMc"]; frameImageWidth = mask._width; frameImageHeight = mask._height; frameImageXScale = -1; frameImageYScale = -1; } else { frameImageXScale = _root.selectedImage._xscale; frameImageYScale = _root.selectedImage._yscale; _root.selectedImage._xscale = 100; _root.selectedImage._yscale = 100; frameImageWidth = _root.selectedImage._width; frameImageHeight = _root.selectedImage._height; } if(_root.selectedImage["frame"]) {} else { _root.selectedImage.createEmptyMovieClip("frame", _root.selectedImage.getNextHighestDepth()); } var image_mcl1:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); image_mcl1.addListener(_root.mclFrameListener); image_mcl1.loadClip("Images/" + objPath, _root.selectedImage["frame"]); } } } I need to somehow apply the chosen frame image, to the entire background - not just to the embellishment or image. How do I go about this? Thanks in advance for your inputs. Please let me know if the question doesn't make sense, I will attach some images that can help you with the context.

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• How to create an instance of object with RTTI in Delphi 2010?

  - by Paul

  As we all known, when we call a constructor of a class like this: instance := TSomeClass.Create; The Delphi compiler actually do the following things: Call the static NewInstance method to allocate memory and initialize the memory layout. Call the constructor method to perform the initialization of the class Call the AfterConstruction method It's simple and easy to understand. but I'm not very sure how the compiler handle exceptions in the second and the third step. It seems there are no explicit way to create an instance using a RTTI constructor method in D2010. so I wrote a simple function in the Spring Framework for Delphi to reproduce the process of the creation. class function TActivator.CreateInstance(instanceType: TRttiInstanceType; constructorMethod: TRttiMethod; const arguments: array of TValue): TObject; var classType: TClass; begin TArgument.CheckNotNull(instanceType, 'instanceType'); TArgument.CheckNotNull(constructorMethod, 'constructorMethod'); classType := instanceType.MetaclassType; Result := classType.NewInstance; try constructorMethod.Invoke(Result, arguments); except on Exception do begin if Result is TInterfacedObject then begin Dec(TInterfacedObjectHack(Result).FRefCount); end; Result.Free; raise; end; end; try Result.AfterConstruction; except on Exception do begin Result.Free; raise; end; end; end; I feel it maybe not 100% right. so please show me the way. Thanks!

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• Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

  - by Dan

  From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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• jquery change event not working with IE6

  - by manivineet

  It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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