Search Results

Search found 19923 results on 797 pages for 'instance variables'.

Page 755/797 | < Previous Page | 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762  | Next Page >

  • Using Core Data Concurrently and Reliably

    - by John Topley
    I'm building my first iOS app, which in theory should be pretty straightforward but I'm having difficulty making it sufficiently bulletproof for me to feel confident submitting it to the App Store. Briefly, the main screen has a table view, upon selecting a row it segues to another table view that displays information relevant for the selected row in a master-detail fashion. The underlying data is retrieved as JSON data from a web service once a day and then cached in a Core Data store. The data previous to that day is deleted to stop the SQLite database file from growing indefinitely. All data persistence operations are performed using Core Data, with an NSFetchedResultsController underpinning the detail table view. The problem I am seeing is that if you switch quickly between the master and detail screens several times whilst fresh data is being retrieved, parsed and saved, the app freezes or crashes completely. There seems to be some sort of race condition, maybe due to Core Data importing data in the background whilst the main thread is trying to perform a fetch, but I'm speculating. I've had trouble capturing any meaningful crash information, usually it's a SIGSEGV deep in the Core Data stack. The table below shows the actual order of events that happen when the detail table view controller is loaded: Main Thread Background Thread viewDidLoad Get JSON data (using AFNetworking) Create child NSManagedObjectContext (MOC) Parse JSON data Insert managed objects in child MOC Save child MOC Post import completion notification Receive import completion notification Save parent MOC Perform fetch and reload table view Delete old managed objects in child MOC Save child MOC Post deletion completion notification Receive deletion completion notification Save parent MOC Once the AFNetworking completion block is triggered when the JSON data has arrived, a nested NSManagedObjectContext is created and passed to an "importer" object that parses the JSON data and saves the objects to the Core Data store. The importer executes using the new performBlock method introduced in iOS 5: NSManagedObjectContext *child = [[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] initWithConcurrencyType:NSPrivateQueueConcurrencyType]; [child setParentContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [child performBlock:^{ // Create importer instance, passing it the child MOC... }]; The importer object observes its own MOC's NSManagedObjectContextDidSaveNotification and then posts its own notification which is observed by the detail table view controller. When this notification is posted the table view controller performs a save on its own (parent) MOC. I use the same basic pattern with a "deleter" object for deleting the old data after the new data for the day has been imported. This occurs asynchronously after the new data has been fetched by the fetched results controller and the detail table view has been reloaded. One thing I am not doing is observing any merge notifications or locking any of the managed object contexts or the persistent store coordinator. Is this something I should be doing? I'm a bit unsure how to architect this all correctly so would appreciate any advice.

    Read the article

  • What is GC holes?

    - by tianyi
    I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

    Read the article

  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

    Read the article

  • Can this way of storing typed objects be improved?

    - by Pindatjuh
    This is an "can it be improved"-question. Topic: Storing typed objects in memory. Background information: I'm building a compiler for the x86-32 Windows platform for my language. My goal includes typed objects. Idea: Every primitive is a semi-class (it can be used as if it was a normal class, but it's stored more compact). Every class is represented by primitives and some meta-data (containing class-properties, inheritance stuff, etc.). The meta-data is complex: it doesn't use fields but instead context-switches. For primitives, the meta-data is very small, compared to a "real" class, which is alot bigger. This enables another idea that "primitives are objects", in my language, which I found nessecairy. Example: If I have an array of 32 booleans, then the pure content of this array is exactly 4 byte (32 bits of booleans). The meta-data will contain flags that the type is an array of booleans, which contains 32 entries. The meta-data is very compacted, on bit-level: using a sort of "packing" mechanism, which is read by a FSM at runtime, when doing inspection of the type (like when passing the object to methods for checking, etc.) For instance (read from left to right, top to bottom, remember vertical position when going to the right, and check nearest column header for meaning of switch): Primitive? Array? Type-Meta 1 Byte? || Size (1 byte) 1 1 [...] 1 [...] done 0 2 Bytes? || Size (2 bytes) 1 [...] done || Size (4 bytes) 0 [...] done Integer? 1 Byte? 2 Bytes? 0 1 0 1 done 1 done 0 done Boolean? Byte? 0 1 0 done 1 done More-Primitives 0 .... Class-Stuff (Huge) 0 ... (After reaching done the data is inserted. || = byte alignment. [...] is variable sized. ... is not described here, for simplicity. And let's call them cost-based-data-structures.) For an array of 32 booleans containing all true values, the memory for this type would be (read top-down): 1 Primitive 1 Array 1 ArrayType: Primitive 0 Not-Array 0 Not-Integer 1 Boolean 0 Not-Byte (thus bit) 1 Integer Size: 1 Byte 00100000 Array size 01010101 01010101 01010101 01010101 Data (user defined) Thus, 8 bytes represent 32 booleans in an array: 11100101 00100000 01010101 01010101 01010101 01010101 How can I improve this? (Both performance- and memory-consumption wise)

    Read the article

  • Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

    Read the article

  • Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • sequence generators are getting ignored

    - by luvfort
    I'm getting the following error while saving a object. However similar configuration is working for other model objects in my projects. Any help would be greatly appreciated. @Entity @Table(name = "ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class EnrollmentGroupMembership implements Serializable, Comparable,Auditable { @javax.persistence.SequenceGenerator(name = "enrollmentGroupMemID", sequenceName = "S_ENROLLMENT_GROUP_MEMBERSHIPS") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "enrollmentGroupMemID") @Column(name = "ID") private Long id; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID", updatable = false, insertable = false) private TierWeight tierWeight; public EnrollmentGroupMembership() { } } Code: @Entity @Table(name = "TIER_WEIGHT", schema = "LEAD_ROUTING") public class TierWeight implements Serializable, Auditable { @SequenceGenerator(name = "tierSequence",sequenceName = "S_TIER_WEIGHT") @Column(name = "OID") @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO, generator = "tierSequence") private Long id; @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name = "TIER_WEIGHT_OID", referencedColumnName = "OID") private Set<EnrollmentGroupMembership> memberships; public TierWeight() { } } The logic layer's code is @Override public void createTier(String tierName, float weight) { TierWeight tier = new TierWeight(); tier.setWeight(weight); tier.setTier(tierName); tierWeightDAO.create(tier); } Similar Many-one configuration is working through out the project. I don't know why this one instance is failing. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The following is the error that I'm getting Caused by: org.hibernate.id.IdentifierGenerationException: ids for this class must be manually assigned before calling save(): edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight at org.hibernate.id.Assigned.generate(Assigned.java:3 3) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener. saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java :99) The log file is telling that the sequence generator tierSequence is not getting created. However other sequence generators are getting created. 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.TierWeight.dateCreated 2010-06-03 11:24:51,834 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column DATE_CREATED unique false ....................................... ....................................... 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Processing annotations of edu.apollogrp.d2ec.model.CounselorAvailability.id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.Ejb3Column:] Binding column OID unique false 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] id is an id 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID 2010-06-03 11:24:51,756 DEBUG [org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationBinder:] Add sequence generator with name: counselorAvailabilityID While debugging, I see that the org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl is returning the "Assigned" identifierGenerator. This is horrible. I've specified the identifierGenerator as "Auto". Please see the above code. As a sidenote, I was trying to debug and seeing how the objects are getting retrieved from the database. Looks like the enrollmentgroupmembership records have the tierweight value populated. However if I look at the tierweight object, it doesn't have the enrollmentgroupmembership records. I'm puzzled. I think these two problems must be related. Maddy.

    Read the article

  • Deserialization error in a new environment

    - by cerhart
    I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

    Read the article

  • Using pointers, references, handles to generic datatypes, as generic and flexible as possible

    - by Patrick
    In my application I have lots of different data types, e.g. Car, Bicycle, Person, ... (they're actually other data types, but this is just for the example). Since I also have quite some 'generic' code in my application, and the application was originally written in C, pointers to Car, Bicycle, Person, ... are often passed as void-pointers to these generic modules, together with an identification of the type, like this: Car myCar; ShowNiceDialog ((void *)&myCar, DATATYPE_CAR); The 'ShowNiceDialog' method now uses meta-information (functions that map DATATYPE_CAR to interfaces to get the actual data out of Car) to get information of the car, based on the given data type. That way, the generic logic only has to be written once, and not every time again for every new data type. Of course, in C++ you could make this much easier by using a common root class, like this class RootClass { public: string getName() const = 0; }; class Car : public RootClass { ... }; void ShowNiceDialog (RootClass *root); The problem is that in some cases, we don't want to store the data type in a class, but in a totally different format to save memory. In some cases we have hundreds of millions of instances that we need to manage in the application, and we don't want to make a full class for every instance. Suppose we have a data type with 2 characteristics: A quantity (double, 8 bytes) A boolean (1 byte) Although we only need 9 bytes to store this information, putting it in a class means that we need at least 16 bytes (because of the padding), and with the v-pointer we possibly even need 24 bytes. For hundreds of millions of instances, every byte counts (I have a 64-bit variant of the application and in some cases it needs 6 GB of memory). The void-pointer approach has the advantage that we can almost encode anything in a void-pointer and decide how to use it if we want information from it (use it as a real pointer, as an index, ...), but at the cost of type-safety. Templated solutions don't help since the generic logic forms quite a big part of the application, and we don't want to templatize all this. Additionally, the data model can be extended at run time, which also means that templates won't help. Are there better (and type-safer) ways to handle this than a void-pointer? Any references to frameworks, whitepapers, research material regarding this?

    Read the article

  • jquery event namespace bubbling issue

    - by Adrian Adkison
    Hi, I stumbled upon an issue with event namespacing while developing a jQuery plugin. here is the html <div class="parent"> <div class="child"> </div> </div> <a class="btn-a">trigger a</a> <a class="btn-b">trigger b</a> <a class="btn-c">trigger c</a> Here is the jQuery jQuery('#content div.child') .bind('child.a',function(){alert('a-child');}) .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-child');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-child');}); jQuery('#content div.parent') .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-parent');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-parent');}); jQuery('a.btn-a') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.a'); }); jQuery('a.btn-b') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.b'); }); jQuery('a.btn-c') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.c'); }); In sum, I have attached a namespaced event listener to the child and parent and created three buttons that trigger each of the events(a.a, a.b, a.c). Note the parent is only listening to a.b and a.c. When I click on the button that triggers a.a on the child, only the div.child listener for a.a is fired, but the entire 'a' namespace event bubbles up to div.parent listeners, a.b and a.c, and triggers them. My question is, how would I still use event namespacing but only have the intended event bubble up(i.e. a.a is the only event that fires for both child and parent). I am aware of stopPropagation and stopImmediatePropagation. I would not want to put these on the child a.b and a.c listeners because there are times when i do want them to bubble. For instance when I trigger 'a.b' on the child, I would expect the 'a.b' and only the 'a.b' event to be handled by the child and the parent. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Android pluginable application

    - by Alxandr
    I've been trying to create an android-application the last couple of weeks, and mostly everything has worked out great, but there is one thing that I was wondering about, and that is pluginability trough the use of intents. What I'm trying to create is basically a comic-reader. As of the version I use now, I open the application and get a list of commics that are my favourites, then I enter one to get a detailed view, and finally I enter a page. This is managed trough 3 activities. List, Details and Page. However, as of now the application can only read comics of one source (a specialiced xml-feed comming from my server), and I was hoping to be able to expand this a litle (also, the page-activity and some other stuff needs to be cleaned up in, so I'm thinking about remaking from scratch, and just take the first go as a learning-round). And I came up with an idea which I think sounds great, but I don't know if it's possible, but this is what I'm thinking about: The user enters the application and get an (first time empty) list of comics. The user hits a button to find comics, this launces an intent that says something like "find comic" or something like that. This should cause the system to display all matching activities. This would make it possible to provide different comic-providers trough different applications. Another activity kicks in and might displays some options to the user (for instance a file-browser), or might not (in the example of an xml-feed, which should just load). The list is returned to the first activity and displayed to the user. The second (find) activity is closed. The user picks a comic from the list. This should open some details-activity. The details-activity should receive a key which corresponds to the comic selected. This should be unique amongst the comic-providers. The details-view should get it's data trough some cind of content-provider, or an activity (whichever is most suited, if one of them is). The user can select a page. This should be the same routine as step 5. My question is, is this possible in the android system, and if it is, is it a bad idea? And also, is there any better way to achieve more or less the same thing?

    Read the article

  • Java - is this an idiom or pattern, behavior classes with no state

    - by Berlin Brown
    I am trying to incorporate more functional programming idioms into my java development. One pattern that I like the most and avoids side effects is building classes that have behavior but they don't necessarily have any state. The behavior is locked into the methods but they only act on the parameters passed in. The code below is code I am trying to avoid: public class BadObject { private Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); public BadObject() { data.put("data", "data"); } /** * Act on the data class. But this is bad because we can't * rely on the integrity of the object's state. */ public void execute() { data.get("data").toString(); } } The code below is nothing special but I am acting on the parameters and state is contained within that class. We still may run into issues with this class but that is an issue with the method and the state of the data, we can address issues in the routine as opposed to not trusting the entire object. Is this some form of idiom? Is this similar to any pattern that you use? public class SemiStatefulOOP { /** * Private class implies that I can access the members of the <code>Data</code> class * within the <code>SemiStatefulOOP</code> class and I can also access * the getData method from some other class. * * @see Test1 * */ class Data { protected int counter = 0; public int getData() { return counter; } public String toString() { return Integer.toString(counter); } } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void execute(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Act on the data class. */ public void updateStateWithCallToService(final Data data) { data.counter++; } /** * Similar to CLOS (Common Lisp Object System) make instance. */ public Data makeInstance() { return new Data(); } } // End of Class // Issues with the code above: I wanted to declare the Data class private, but then I can't really reference it outside of the class: I can't override the SemiStateful class and access the private members. Usage: final SemiStatefulOOP someObject = new SemiStatefulOOP(); final SemiStatefulOOP.Data data = someObject.makeInstance(); someObject.execute(data); someObject.updateStateWithCallToService(data);

    Read the article

  • Is Abstract Factory Pattern implemented correctly for given scenario.... ???

    - by Amit
    First thing... I am novice to pattern world, so correct me if wrong anywhere Scenario: There are multiple companies providing multiple products of diff size so there are 3 entities i.e. Companies, Their Product and size of product I have implement Abstract Pattern on this i.e. so that I will create instance of IProductFactory interface to get desired product... Is below implementation of Abstract Factory Pattern correct ??? If not then please correct the approach + Also tell me if any other pattern can be used for such scenario Thanks in advance... public enum Companies { Samsung = 0, LG = 1, Philips = 2, Sony = 3 } public enum Product { PlasmaTv = 0, DVD = 1 } public enum ProductSize { FortyTwoInch, FiftyFiveInch } interface IProductFactory { IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct(); ISony GetSonyProduct(); } interface ISony { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } interface IPhilips { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } class ProductFactory : IProductFactory { public IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct() { return new Philips(); } public ISony GetSonyProduct() { return new Sony(); } } class Philips : IPhilips { #region IPhilips Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) {// I have ingnore size for now.... string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } class Sony : ISony {// I have ingnore size for now.... #region ISony Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) { string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } IProductFactory prodFactory = new ProductFactory(); IPhilips philipsObj = prodFactory.GetPhilipsProduct(); MessageBox.Show(philipsObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch)); or //ISony sonyObj = prodFactory.GetSonyProduct(); //MessageBox.Show(sonyObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch));

    Read the article

  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jquery 1.4.1 breaks my slideshow

    - by JMC Creative
    After toying with the jquery slideshow extension, I created my own that better suited my purposes ( I didn't like that all the images needed to load at the beginning for instance). Now, upon upgrading to jQuery 1.4.2 (I know I'm late), the slideshow loads the first image fine ( from the line$('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); towards the bottom), but doesn't do anything beyond that. Does anyone have any idea which jquery construct is killing my script? The live page is at lplonline.org which is using 1.3.2 for the time being. Thanks in advance. Array.prototype.random = function( r ) { var i = 0, l = this.length; if( !r ) { r = this.length; } else if( r > 0 ) { r = r % l; } else { i = r; r = l + r % l; } return this[ Math.floor( r * Math.random() - i ) ]; }; jQuery(function($){ var imgArr = new Array(); imgArr[1] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/Brbrshop4-hrmnywkshp72006.jpg"; imgArr[2] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/IMGA0125.JPG"; //etc, etc, about 30 of these are created dynamically from a db function randImgs () { var randImg = imgArr.random(); var img1 = $('div#slideshow img#ssone'); var img2 = $('div#slideshow img#sstwo'); if(img1.is(':visible') ) { img2.fadeIn(1500); img1.fadeOut(1500,function() { img1.attr({src : randImg}); }); } else { img1.fadeIn(1500); img2.fadeOut(1500,function() { img2.attr({src : randImg}); }); } } setInterval(randImgs,9000); // 9 SECONDS $('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); }); </script> <div id="slideshow"> <img id="ssone" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-investments.png" alt="" /> <img id="sstwo" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-drugs.png" alt="" /> </div>

    Read the article

  • Parallel programming in C#

    - by Alxandr
    I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to find the one Label in DataList that is set to True

    - by Doug
    In my .aspx page I have my DataList: <asp:DataList ID="DataList1" runat="server" DataKeyField="ProductSID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" onitemcreated="DataList1_ItemCreated" RepeatColumns="3" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" Width="1112px"> <ItemTemplate> ProductSID: <asp:Label ID="ProductSIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSID") %>' /> <br /> ProductSKU: <asp:Label ID="ProductSKULabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSKU") %>' /> <br /> ProductImage1: <asp:Label ID="ProductImage1Label" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductImage1") %>' /> <br /> ShowLive: <asp:Label ID="ShowLiveLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ShowLive") %>' /> <br /> CollectionTypeID: <asp:Label ID="CollectionTypeIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionTypeID") %>' /> <br /> CollectionHomePage: <asp:Label ID="CollectionHomePageLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionHomePage") %>' /> <br /> <br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList> And in my code behind using the ItemCreated event to find and set the label.backcolor property. (Note:I'm using a recursive findControl class) protected void DataList1_ItemCreated(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { foreach (DataListItem item in DataList1.Items) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Label itemLabel = form1.FindControlR("CollectionHomePageLabel") as Label; if (itemLabel !=null || itemLabel.Text == "True") { itemLabel.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.Yellow; } } When I run the page, the itemLabel is found, and the color shows. But it sets the itemLabel color to the first instance of the itemLabel found in the DataList. Of all the itemLabels in the DataList, only one will have it's text = True - and that should be the label picking up the backcolor. Also: The itemLabel is picking up a column in the DB called "CollectionHomePage" which is True/False bit data type. I must be missing something simple... Thanks for your ideas.

    Read the article

  • JQuery Datepicker Date highlight Issue

    - by Isola Olufemi
    I have an in-line date picker in which I want to highlight some dates based on array of strings from the server side. I found out the on load of the page with the datepicker, events the matches in the current month will not be highlighted. when I click the next month button the events on the next moth will be highlighted. What I discovered that i the matching only get highlighted when I click to the next month and not when I click back to the previous month. Below is my script: var actionCalDates = new Array(); function getDates(month, year) { $.ajax({ url: "/Index/GetAllAlerts", data: { month: month, year: year }, success: function (result) { var date = new Date(); var i = new Number(date.getMonth()); i += 1; actionCalDates = result.split(","); } }); } function getTitle(ar, d) { var result = ""; for (var i = 0; i < ar.length; i++) { if (ar[i].indexOf(d) != -1) { var e = actionCalDates[i].split(";"); result += e[0] + "\n"; } } return result; } $('#calendar').datepicker({ numberOfMonths: [1, 1], showCurrentAtPos: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/y', beforeShowDay: function (thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate(); var x = new Number(thedate.getMonth()); x += 1; var date = thedate.getDate() + "/" + x + "/" + thedate.getFullYear(); getDates(x, thedate.getFullYear()); for (var i = 0; i < actionCalDates.length; i++) { var entry = actionCalDates[i].split(";"); if (date == entry[1]) { return [true, "highlight", getTitle(actionCalDates, date)]; } } return [true, "", ""]; }, onChangeMonthYear: function (year, month, inst) { getDates(month, year); }, onSelect: function (d, instance) { $.ajax({ url: '/Index/AlertConvertDate', datatype: 'text', data: { dateString: d }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.statusText); alert(thrownError); }, success: function (data) { window.SetHomeContent(data); } }); } }); Please can someone point out where I went wrong? Thank you all.

    Read the article

  • General ORM design question

    - by Calvin
    Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

    Read the article

  • List<> of objects, different types, sort and pull out types individually?

    - by Brazos
    I've got a handful of products, any, all, or none of which may be associated with a specific submission. All 7 products are subclasses of the class Product. I need to store all the products associated with a submission, and then retrieve them and their field data on my presentation layer. I've been using a List, and List, but when I use the OfType, I throw an error saying that I can't implicitly convert systems.generic.IEnumerable to type 'Product'. I've tried to cast, but to no avail. When I use prodlist.OfType<EPL>(); there are no errors, but when I try and store that in an instance of EPL "tempEpl", I get the aforementioned cast-related error. What gives? Code below. ProductService pserv = new ProductService(); IList<object> prodlist = pserv.getProductById(x); EPL tempEpl = new EPL(); if ((prodlist.OfType<EPL>()) != null) { tempEpl = prodlist.OfType<EPL>(); // this throws a conversion error. } the Data layer List<object> TempProdList = new List<object>(); conn.Open(); SqlCommand EplCmd = new SqlCommand(EPLQuery, conn); SqlDataReader EplRead = null; EplRead = EplCmd.ExecuteReader(); EPL TempEpl = new EPL(); if (EplRead.Read()) { TempEpl.Entity1 = EplRead.GetString(0); TempEpl.Employees1 = EplRead.GetInt32(1); TempEpl.CA1 = EplRead.GetInt32(2); TempEpl.MI1 = EplRead.GetInt32(3); TempEpl.NY1 = EplRead.GetInt32(4); TempEpl.NJ1 = EplRead.GetInt32(5); TempEpl.PrimEx1 = EplRead.GetInt32(6); TempEpl.EplLim1 = EplRead.GetInt32(7); TempEpl.EplSir1 = EplRead.GetInt32(8); TempEpl.Premium1 = EplRead.GetInt32(9); TempEpl.Wage1 = EplRead.GetInt32(10); TempEpl.Sublim1 = EplRead.GetInt32(11); TempProdList.Add(TempEpl); }

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

    Read the article

  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

    Read the article

  • Python: How best to parse a simple grammar?

    - by Rosarch
    Ok, so I've asked a bunch of smaller questions about this project, but I still don't have much confidence in the designs I'm coming up with, so I'm going to ask a question on a broader scale. I am parsing pre-requisite descriptions for a course catalog. The descriptions almost always follow a certain form, which makes me think I can parse most of them. From the text, I would like to generate a graph of course pre-requisite relationships. (That part will be easy, after I have parsed the data.) Some sample inputs and outputs: "CS 2110" => ("CS", 2110) # 0 "CS 2110 and INFO 3300" => [("CS", 2110), ("INFO", 3300)] # 1 "CS 2110, INFO 3300" => [("CS", 2110), ("INFO", 3300)] # 1 "CS 2110, 3300, 3140" => [("CS", 2110), ("CS", 3300), ("CS", 3140)] # 1 "CS 2110 or INFO 3300" => [[("CS", 2110)], [("INFO", 3300)]] # 2 "MATH 2210, 2230, 2310, or 2940" => [[("MATH", 2210), ("MATH", 2230), ("MATH", 2310)], [("MATH", 2940)]] # 3 If the entire description is just a course, it is output directly. If the courses are conjoined ("and"), they are all output in the same list If the course are disjoined ("or"), they are in separate lists Here, we have both "and" and "or". One caveat that makes it easier: it appears that the nesting of "and"/"or" phrases is never greater than as shown in example 3. What is the best way to do this? I started with PLY, but I couldn't figure out how to resolve the reduce/reduce conflicts. The advantage of PLY is that it's easy to manipulate what each parse rule generates: def p_course(p): 'course : DEPT_CODE COURSE_NUMBER' p[0] = (p[1], int(p[2])) With PyParse, it's less clear how to modify the output of parseString(). I was considering building upon @Alex Martelli's idea of keeping state in an object and building up the output from that, but I'm not sure exactly how that is best done. def addCourse(self, str, location, tokens): self.result.append((tokens[0][0], tokens[0][1])) def makeCourseList(self, str, location, tokens): dept = tokens[0][0] new_tokens = [(dept, tokens[0][1])] new_tokens.extend((dept, tok) for tok in tokens[1:]) self.result.append(new_tokens) For instance, to handle "or" cases: def __init__(self): self.result = [] # ... self.statement = (course_data + Optional(OR_CONJ + course_data)).setParseAction(self.disjunctionCourses) def disjunctionCourses(self, str, location, tokens): if len(tokens) == 1: return tokens print "disjunction tokens: %s" % tokens How does disjunctionCourses() know which smaller phrases to disjoin? All it gets is tokens, but what's been parsed so far is stored in result, so how can the function tell which data in result corresponds to which elements of token? I guess I could search through the tokens, then find an element of result with the same data, but that feel convoluted... What's a better way to approach this problem?

    Read the article

  • WPF Datagrid items binding problem

    - by gencay
    I get a problem while displaying a List in WPF-Datagrid. When I do this line ... DocumentList dt = new DocumentList(fileWordList, fileUriType, fileUri, cosineSimilarityRatio, diceSimilarityRatio, extendedJaccardSimilarityRatio); documentList.Add(dt); ... dataGrid1.Items.Add(dt); ... It creates an empty row into dataGrid1 and no text is shown there. my xaml implementation is this: <GroupBox Canvas.Left="-0.003" Canvas.Top="0" Header="Display Results" Height="427.5" Name="groupBox2" Width="645.56"> <toolkit:DataGrid Canvas.Left="137.5" Canvas.Top="240" Height="392" Name="dgrDocumentList" Width="627" ItemsSource="{Binding DocumentList }"> <toolkit:DataGrid.Columns> <toolkit:DataGridTextColumn Header="Type" Binding="{Binding type}" IsReadOnly="True"> </toolkit:DataGridTextColumn> <toolkit:DataGridHyperlinkColumn Header="Uri" Binding="{Binding path}" IsReadOnly="True"> </toolkit:DataGridHyperlinkColumn> <toolkit:DataGridTextColumn Header="Cosine" Binding="{Binding cos}" IsReadOnly="True"> </toolkit:DataGridTextColumn> <toolkit:DataGridTextColumn Header="Dice" Binding="{Binding dice}" IsReadOnly="True"> </toolkit:DataGridTextColumn> <toolkit:DataGridTextColumn Header="Jaccard" Binding="{Binding jaccard}" IsReadOnly="True"> </toolkit:DataGridTextColumn> </toolkit:DataGrid.Columns> </toolkit:DataGrid> </GroupBox> and my DocumentList class class DocumentList { public List<WordList> wordList; public string type; public string path; public double cos; public double dice; public double jaccard; //public static string title; public DocumentList(List<WordList> wordListt, string typee, string pathh, double sm11, double sm22, double sm33) { type = typee; wordList = wordListt; path = pathh; cos = sm11; dice = sm22; jaccard = sm33; } I would like to do that: When i add a new element into documentList instance, would like to see the results on data grid. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • How change Castor mapping to remove "xmlns:xsi" and "xsi:type" attributes from element in XML output

    - by Derek Mahar
    How do I change the Castor mapping <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE mapping PUBLIC "-//EXOLAB/Castor Mapping DTD Version 1.0//EN" "http://castor.org/mapping.dtd"> <mapping> <class name="java.util.ArrayList" auto-complete="true"> <map-to xml="ArrayList" /> </class> <class name="com.db.spgit.abstrack.ws.response.UserResponse"> <map-to xml="UserResponse" /> <field name="id" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="id" node="element" /> </field> <field name="deleted" type="boolean"> <bind-xml name="deleted" node="element" /> </field> <field name="name" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="name" node="element" /> </field> <field name="typeId" type="java.lang.Integer"> <bind-xml name="typeId" node="element" /> </field> <field name="regionId" type="java.lang.Integer"> <bind-xml name="regionId" node="element" /> </field> <field name="regionName" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="regionName" node="element" /> </field> </class> </mapping> to suppress the xmlns:xsi and xsi:type attributes in the element of the XML output? For example, instead of the output XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ArrayList> <UserResponse xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:type="UserResponse"> <name>Tester</name> <typeId>1</typeId> <regionId>2</regionId> <regionName>US</regionName> </UserResponse> </ArrayList> I'd prefer <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ArrayList> <UserResponse> <name>Tester</name> <typeId>1</typeId> <regionId>2</regionId> <regionName>US</regionName> </UserResponse> </ArrayList> such that the element name implies the xsi:type.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 751 752 753 754 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762  | Next Page >