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  • Is there a standard pattern for scanning a job table executing some actions?

    - by Howiecamp
    (I realize that my title is poor. If after reading the question you have an improvement in mind, please either edit it or tell me and I'll change it.) I have the relatively common scenario of a job table which has 1 row for some thing that needs to be done. For example, it could be a list of emails to be sent. The table looks something like this: ID Completed TimeCompleted anything else... ---- --------- ------------- ---------------- 1 No blabla 2 No blabla 3 Yes 01:04:22 ... I'm looking either for a standard practice/pattern (or code - C#/SQL Server preferred) for periodically "scanning" (I use the term "scanning" very loosely) this table, finding the not-completed items, doing the action and then marking them completed once done successfully. In addition to the basic process for accomplishing the above, I'm considering the following requirements: I'd like some means of "scaling linearly", e.g. running multiple "worker processes" simultaneously or threading or whatever. (Just a specific technical thought - I'm assuming that as a result of this requirement, I need some method of marking an item as "in progress" to avoid attempting the action multiple times.) Each item in the table should only be executed once. Some other thoughts: I'm not particularly concerned with the implementation being done in the database (e.g. in T-SQL or PL/SQL code) vs. some external program code (e.g. a standalone executable or some action triggered by a web page) which is executed against the database Whether the "doing the action" part is done synchronously or asynchronously is not something I'm considering as part of this question.

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  • Searching with a UISearchbar is slow and blocking the main thread.

    - by Robert
    I have a Table with over 3000 entries and searching is very slow. At the moment I am doing just like in the 'TableSearch' example code (but without scopes) - (BOOL)searchDisplayController:(UISearchDisplayController *)controller shouldReloadTableForSearchString:(NSString *)searchString { [self filterContentForSearchText: searchString]; // Return YES to cause the search result table view to be reloaded. return YES; } And the filterContentForSearchText method is as follows: - (void) filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText { // Update the filtered array based on the search text // First clear the filtered array. [filteredListContent removeAllObjects]; // Search the main list whose name matches searchText // add items that match to the filtered array. if (fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { for (id object in fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { NSString* searchTarget = [tableTypeDelegate getStringForSearchFilteringFromObject:object]; if ([searchTarget rangeOfString:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch)].location != NSNotFound) { [filteredListContent addObject:object]; } } } } My question is twofold: How do can I make the searching process faster? How can I stop the search from blocking the main thread? i.e. stop it preventing the user from typing more characters. For the second part, I tried "performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:" and "cancelPreviousPerformRequests..." without much success. I suspect that I will need to use threading instead, but I do not have much experience with it.

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  • How to hide the console of batch scripts without losing std err/out streams

    - by cooper.thompson
    My question is similar to Running a CMD or BAT in silent mode, but with one additional constraint. If you use WshScript.Run in vbscript, you lose access to the standard in/error/out streams of the process. WshScript.Exec gives you access to the standard streams, but you can't hide your windows. How can you have your cake (hide the windows) and eat it too (have direct access to the console streams)? I'm currently thinking about a C++ executable which creates a new Windows Station and Desktop, (see MSDN) and runs a specified script within that new Desktop (I'm not yet an expert on Window Stations and Desktops, so this idea may be retarded). This idea is based loosely on Condor's USE_VISIBLE_DESKTOP feature, which, if disabled, runs Condor jobs in a non-visible Desktop. I haven't quite figured out if this requires elevated priveledge. The tradeoff of this approach is that your script can disappear into limbo if it blocks on user input. Does anyone have any additional ideas? Or feedback on the approach outlined above? Edit: Also, the purpose of our script is to set up the user environment, so running as another user, or as a system scheduled task isn't really an option (unless there are clever tricks I don't know about).

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  • Uploading a file fails under WordPress

    - by Ash
    I'm using WordPress and I'm following W3's guide for uploading a file: HTML code: <html> <body> <form action="upload_file.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <label for="file">Filename:</label> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> PHP code (upload_file.php): <?php if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] > 0) { echo "Error: " . $_FILES["file"]["error"] . "<br />"; } else { echo "Upload: " . $_FILES["file"]["name"] . "<br />"; echo "Type: " . $_FILES["file"]["type"] . "<br />"; echo "Size: " . ($_FILES["file"]["size"] / 1024) . " Kb<br />"; echo "Stored in: " . $_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"]; } ?> The HTML code is pasted in a PHP page template and the PHP file under the WP installation directory under www. The problem is when I submit the file I get Error: 1. If I remark the "if" part of the PHP code and leave the "else" part I get: Upload: IMG_4258.JPG Type: Size: 0 Kb Stored in: So at least I know the PHP code is running. But what's causing it to fail? Is there a problem with the code or is WordPress meddling with the process?

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  • Anyone know exactly which JMS messages will be redelivered in CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE mode if the client

    - by user360612
    The spec says "Acknowledging a consumed message automatically acknowledges the receipt of all messages that have been delivered by its session" - but what I need to know is what it means by 'delivered'. For example, if I call consumer.receive() 6 times, and then call .acknowledge on the 3rd message - is it (a) just the first 3 messages that are ack'd, or (b) all 6? I'm really hoping it's option a, i.e. messages after the one you called acknowledge on WILL be redelivered, otherwise it's hard to see how you could prevent message lost in the event of my receiver process crashing before I've had a chance to persist and acknowledge the messages. But the spec is worded such that it's not clear. I get the impression the authors of the JMS spec considered broker failure, but didn't spend too long thinking about how to protect against client failure :o( Anyway, I've been able to test with SonicMQ and found that it implements (a), i.e. messages 'received' later than the message you call .ack on DO get redelivered in the event of a crash, but I'd love to know how other people read the standard, and if anyone knows how any other providers have implemented CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE? (i.e. what the 'de facto' standard is) Thanks Ben

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  • CGLIB proxy error after spring bean definition loading into XmlWebApplicationContext at runtime

    - by VasylV
    I load additional singleton beans definitions at runtime from external jar file into existing XmlWebApplicationContext of my application: BeanFactory beanFactory = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBeanFactory(); DefaultListableBeanFactory defaultFactory = (DefaultListableBeanFactory)beanFactory; final URL url = new URL("external.jar"); final URL[] urls = {url}; ClassLoader loader = new URLClassLoader(urls, this.getClass().getClassLoader()); defaultFactory.setBeanClassLoader(loader); final ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner scanner = new ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner(defaultFactory); final DefaultResourceLoader resourceLoader = new DefaultResourceLoader(); resourceLoader.setClassLoader(loader); scanner.setResourceLoader(resourceLoader); scanner.scan("com.*"); Object bean = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBean("externalBean"); After all above xmlWebApplicationContext contains all external definitions of beans. But when i am trying to get bean from context exception is thrown: Couldn't generate CGLIB proxy for class ... I saw in debug mode that in the bean initialization process first time proxy is generated by org.springframework.aop.aspectj.autoproxy.AspectJAwareAdvisorAutoProxyCreator and than it is tried to generate proxy with org.springframework.aop.framework.autoproxy.BeanNameAutoProxyCreator but fails with mentioned exception.

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  • deep linking in Excel sheets exported to html

    - by pomarc
    hello everybody, I am working on a project where I must export to html a lot of Excel files. This is pretty straightforward using automation and saving as html. The problem is that many of these sheets have links to worksheets of some other files. I must find a way to write a link to a single inner worksheet. When you export a multisheet excel file to html, excel creates a main htm file, a folder named filename_file, and inside this folder it writes down several files: a css, an xml list of files, a file that creates the tab bar and several html files named sheetxxx.htm, each one representing a worksheet. When you open the main file, you can click the menu bar at the bottom which lets you select the appropriate sheet. This is in fact a link, which replaces a frame content with the sheetxxx.htm file. When this file is loaded a javascript function that selects the right tab gets called. The exported files will be published on a web site. I will have to post process each file and replace every link to the other xls files to the matching htm file, finding a way to open the right worksheet. I think that I could add a parameter to the processed htm file link url, such as myfile.htm?sh=sheet002.htm if I want to link to the second worksheet of myfile.htm (ex myfile.xls). After I've exported them, I could inject a simple javascript into each of the main files which, when they are loaded, could retrieve the sh parameter with jQuery (this is easy) and use this to somehow replace the frSheet frame contents (where the sheets get loaded), opening the right inner sheet and not the default sheet (this is what I call deep linking) mimicking what happens when a user clicks on a tab. This last step is missing... :) I am considering different options, such as replacing the source of the $("frSheet") frame after document.ready. I'd like to hear from you any advice on what could be the best way to realize that in your opinion. any help is greately appreciated, many thanks.

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  • Ajax UpdatePanels SetFocus issue

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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  • Advice Please: SQL Server Identity vs Unique Identifier keys when using Entity Framework

    - by c.batt
    I'm in the process of designing a fairly complex system. One of our primary concerns is supporting SQL Server peer-to-peer replication. The idea is to support several geographically separated nodes. A secondary concern has been using a modern ORM in the middle tier. Our first choice has always been Entity Framework, mainly because the developers like to work with it. (They love the LiNQ support.) So here's the problem: With peer-to-peer replication in mind, I settled on using uniqueidentifier with a default value of newsequentialid() for the primary key of every table. This seemed to provide a good balance between avoiding key collisions and reducing index fragmentation. However, it turns out that the current version of Entity Framework has a very strange limitation: if an entity's key column is a uniqueidentifier (GUID) then it cannot be configured to use the default value (newsequentialid()) provided by the database. The application layer must generate the GUID and populate the key value. So here's the debate: abandon Entity Framework and use another ORM: use NHibernate and give up LiNQ support use linq2sql and give up future support (not to mention get bound to SQL Server on DB) abandon GUIDs and go with another PK strategy devise a method to generate sequential GUIDs (COMBs?) at the application layer I'm leaning towards option 1 with linq2sql (my developers really like linq2[stuff]) and 3. That's mainly because I'm somewhat ignorant of alternate key strategies that support the replication scheme we're aiming for while also keeping things sane from a developer's perspective. Any insight or opinion would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Are there any security issues to avoid when providing a email-or-username-can-act-as-username login

    - by Tchalvak
    I am in the process of moving from a "username/password" system to one that uses email for login. I don't think that there's any horrible problem with allowing either email or username for login, and I remember seeing sites that I consider somewhat respectable doing it as well, but I'd like to be aware of any major security flaws that I may be introducing. More specifically, here is the pertinent function (the query_row function parameterizes the sql). function authenticate($p_user, $p_pass) { $user = (string)$p_user; $pass = (string)$p_pass; $returnValue = false; if ($user != '' && $pass != '') { // Allow login via username or email. $sql = "SELECT account_id, account_identity, uname, player_id FROM accounts join account_players on account_id=_account_id join players on player_id = _player_id WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) AND phash = crypt(:pass, phash)"; $returnValue = query_row($sql, array(':login'=>$user, ':pass'=>$pass)); } return $returnValue; } Notably, I have added the WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) ...etc section to allow graceful backwards compatibility for users who won't be used to using their email for the login procedure. I'm not completely sure that that OR is safe, though. Are there some ways that I should tighten the security of the php code above?

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  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

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  • How do I update a progress bar in Cocoa during a long running loop?

    - by Nic
    Hi, I've got a while loop, that runs for many seconds and that's why I want to update a progress bar (NSProgressIndicator) during that process, but it updates only once after the loop has finished. The same happens if I want to update a label text, by the way. I believe, my loop prevents other things of that application to happen. There must be another technique. Does this have to do with threads or something? Am I on the right track? Can someone please give me a simple example, how to “optimize” my application? My application is a Cocoa Application (Xcode 3.2.1) with these two methods in my Example_AppDelegate.m: // This method runs when a start button is clicked. - (IBAction)startIt:(id)sender { [progressbar setDoubleValue:0.0]; [progressbar startAnimation:sender]; running = YES; // this is a instance variable int i = 0; while (running) { if (i++ = processAmount) { // processAmount is something like 1000000 running = NO; continue; } // Update progress bar double progr = (double)i / (double)processAmount; NSLog(@"progr: %f", progr); // Logs values between 0.0 and 1.0 [progressbar setDoubleValue:progr]; [progressbar needsDisplay]; // Do I need this? // Do some more hard work here... } } // This method runs when a stop button is clicked, but as long // as -startIt is busy, a click on the stop button does nothing. - (IBAction)stopIt:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Stop it!"); running = NO; [progressbar stopAnimation:sender]; } I'm really new to Objective-C, Cocoa and applications with a UI. Thank you very much for any helpful answer.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • What is the fastest way for reading huge files in Delphi?

    - by dummzeuch
    My program needs to read chunks from a huge binary file with random access. I have got a list of offsets and lengths which may have several thousand entries. The user selects an entry and the program seeks to the offset and reads length bytes. The program internally uses a TMemoryStream to store and process the chunks read from the file. Reading the data is done via a TFileStream like this: FileStream.Position := Offset; MemoryStream.CopyFrom(FileStream, Size); This works fine but unfortunately it becomes increasingly slower as the files get larger. The file size starts at a few megabytes but frequently reaches several tens of gigabytes. The chunks read are around 100 kbytes in size. The file's content is only read by my program. It is the only program accessing the file at the time. Also the files are stored locally so this is not a network issue. I am using Delphi 2007 on a Windows XP box. What can I do to speed up this file access?

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  • Easy way to lock a file on a remote machine (windows)?

    - by roufamatic
    I've tracked down an error in my logs, and am trying to reproduce it. My theory is that a file sometimes gets locked in a specific folder, and when the application (ASP.NET) tries to delete that folder it hangs. I don't have the application running on my own machine so I'm debugging this on a remote server. But for the life of me, I can't seem to figure out a way to lock a file that prevents it from being deleted by the process. My first thought was to map the network path to a local drive and just leave a command prompt open to that folder. Locally that always fouls up my folder deletes, but apparently SMB is a bit more robust and doesn't grant me a lock. After that I created an infinte loop vbscript in the folder and executed it remotely. The file was deleted out from underneath the executing code. Man! I then tried creating a file on the server in that folder and removing all permissions. That didn't do the trick. I don't have access to the IIS settings so perhaps it's running under a privileged system account. So: what's a program that you know is free and I can quickly use to create an exclusive lock on a file so I can test my delete theory? Like a really, really bad Notepad clone or something. :-)

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  • How to mix Grammar (Rules) & Dictation (Free speech) with SpeechRecognizer in C#

    - by Lee Englestone
    I really like Microsofts latest speech recognition (and SpeechSynthesis) offerings. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms554855.aspx http://estellasays.blogspot.com/2009/04/speech-recognition-in-cnet.html However I feel like I'm somewhat limited when using grammars. Don't get me wrong grammars are great for telling the speech recognition exactly what words / phrases to look out for, however what if I want it to recognise something i've not given it a heads up about? Or I want to parse a phrase which is half pre-determined command name and half random words? For example.. Scenario A - I say "Google [Oil Spill]" and I want it to open Google with search results for the term in brackets which could be anything. Scenario B - I say "Locate [Manchester]" and I want it to search for Manchester in Google Maps or anything else non pre-determined I want it to know that 'Google' and 'Locate' are commands and what comes after it are parameters (and could be anything). Question : Does anyone know how to mix the use of pre-determined grammars (words the speech recognition should recognise) and words not in its pre-determined grammar? Code fragments.. using System.Speech.Recognition; ... ... SpeechRecognizer rec = new SpeechRecognizer(); rec.SpeechRecognized += rec_SpeechRecognized; var c = new Choices(); c.Add("search"); var gb = new GrammarBuilder(c); var g = new Grammar(gb); rec.LoadGrammar(g); rec.Enabled = true; ... ... void rec_SpeechRecognized(object sender, SpeechRecognizedEventArgs e) { if (e.Result.Text == "search") { string query = "How can I get a word not defined in Grammar recognised and passed into here!"; launchGoogle(query); } } ... ... private void launchGoogle(string term) { Process.Start("IEXPLORE", "google.com?q=" + term); }

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • MySql Query lag time?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • How many custom tabs can I add to a Facebook page?

    - by Maxi Ferreira
    I'm building a web application to create custom tabs and add them to the user's Facebook fanpages. I know how the process of "installing" FB apps into FB pages so they show up as Page Tabs works, but the problem is the client wants to allow the user to create unlimited Page Tabs for a single FB Page. So I have basically two questions. 1 - Can I resue a single FB App to be included into the same page several times? If so, is there a way to know what is the "id" of that Page Tab? So, if I have my FB App to look for the Tab content in http://www.mywebapp.com/tab/, I know I get a signed_request with the App ID and the Page ID, but if that same App is installed several times into the same Page, I don't know what's the Tab the user have cliked on. I know it's a little big messy, and I don't think there's a way to do this. So my next question is probably more accurate. 2 - Is there a limit on how many Tabs can I add to a single Facebook page? This way, if there's a limit of, say, 12 Tabs, I can create 12 FB Tab Apps, store the ID's and then I know which Tab of which Page the user is currently viewing. Thanks in advice! Maxi

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  • How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

    - by Hoàng Long
    Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • Internet Explorer randomly drops sessions between pages in cakePHP

    - by Emerson Taymor
    Hello everyone, I've come across an extremely unusual bug that my team has literally no idea how to solve. Doing some research, I found some similar solutions that I thought would work, but alas did not. Here is my situation, let me know if I can provide additional insight to help solve the problem. The first step is that someone chooses a country via a flash map. Flash passes this region name (as well as a date) through the URL, which we then convert to a session. The next page contains no Flash and doesn't display the selected region, but it does hold on to it for further down the process. Everything works perfectly in Safari and Firefox; however, in IE sometimes unexpected results occur. Frequently (but not always), the session is dropped completely and no sessions are stored between the first and 2nd pages. Here are the steps that I have taken thus far, unsuccessfully: 1. Changed Security from Medium - Low 2. Changed CheckUserAgent from True - False 3. Changed storing of sessions from PHP - Database Some additional information that may be useful: I have tried printing out the session data in Debug (debug($_SESSION) on my view file and debug set to 2 in config). In Internet Explorer everything prints out as expected EXCEPT when the region and date don't get set. For example: If the region and date don't get set NOTHING is printed out for debug. I don't get the session details at the top, and I don't get the normal dump of calls at the bottom of the page either. I am not using redirection on these pages. Please let me know if you have ANY idea of what is causing this or any solutions. I am beyond frustrated and have tried as much as I can to solve this. Thanks!

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  • Remove this URL string when login fails and simply show div error

    - by Anagio
    My developer built our registration page to display a div when logins failed based on a string in the URL. When logins fail this is added to the URL /login?msg=invalid The PHP in my login.phtml which displays the error messages based on the msg= parameter is <?php $msg = ""; $msg = $_GET['msg']; if($msg==""){ $showMsg = ""; } elseif($msg=="invalid"){ $showMsg = ' <div class="alert alert-error"> <a class="close" data-dismiss="alert">×</a> <strong>Error!</strong> Login or password is incorrect! </div>'; } elseif($msg=="disabled"){ $showMsg = "Your account has been disabled."; } elseif($msg==2){ $showMsg = "Your account is not activated. Please check your email."; } ?> In the controller the redirect to that URL is else //email id does not exist in our database { //redirecting back with invalid email(invalid) msg=invalid. $this->_redirect($url."?msg=invalid"); } I know there are a few other validation types for disabled accounts etc. I'm in the process of redesigning the entire interface and would like to get rid of this kind of validation so that the div tags display when logins fail but not show the URL strings. If it matters the new div I want to display is <div class="alert alert-error alert-login"> Email or password incorrect </div> I'd like to replace the php my self in my login.phtml and controller but not a good programmer. What can I replace $this->_redirect($url."?msg=invalid"); with so that no strings are added to the URL and display the appropriate div tags? Thanks

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  • Nmock2 and Event Expectations

    - by Kildareflare
    Im in the process of writing a test for a small application that follows the MVP pattern. Technically, I know I should have written the test before the code, but I needed to knock up a demo app quick smart and so im now going back to the test before moving on to the real development. In short I am attempting to test the presenter, however I cannot even get an empty test to run due to an Internal.ExpectationException. The exception is raised on a unexpected invocation of an event assignation. Here is the presenter class, public LBCPresenter(IView view, IModel model) { m_model = model; m_model.BatteryModifiedEvent += new EventHandler(m_model_BatteryModifiedEvent); } Model Interface public interface IModel { event EventHandler BatteryModifiedEvent; } And here is the test class, I can't see what im missing, ive told NMock to expect the event... [TestFixture] public class MVP_PresenterTester { private Mockery mocks; private IView _mockView; private IViewObserver _Presenter; private IModel _mockModel; [SetUp] public void SetUp() { mocks = new Mockery(); _mockView = mocks.NewMock<IView>(); _mockModel = mocks.NewMock<IModel>(); _Presenter = new LBCPresenter(_mockView, _mockModel); } [Test] public void TestClosingFormWhenNotDirty() { Expect.Once.On(_mockModel).EventAdd("BatteryModifiedEvent", NMock2.Is.Anything); //makes no difference if following line is commented out or not //mocks.VerifyAllExpectationsHaveBeenMet(); } } Every time I run the test I get the same expectation Exception. Any ideas?

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