Search Results

Search found 34532 results on 1382 pages for 'different'.

Page 76/1382 | < Previous Page | 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83  | Next Page >

  • How to access different domain data using Java script

    - by shoaibmohammed
    Hello there, Here is the issue. Suppose there is a DOMAIN A which is going to be the server containing a PHP Script file. The data from Domain A is to be accessed by a Client at DOMAIN B. I know it cannot be accessed directly using JavaScript. So what I did is, in Domain A I created a a JavaScript file as front-end for the PHP Script which AJAXes the PHP and returns the data. But unfortunately it din't work I came across an example having PHP as a Middle Man in the client side. But I donot want to keep any server side PHP code as a middle man in the client side. I just want to give out the Javascript to the client domain. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/578095/how-to-get-data-with-javascript-from-another-server DOMAIN A PHP - data.php <?php echo "Server returns data"; ?> JS - example.js Does the Ajax to the PHP function getData() { //assume ajax is done for data.php and data is retrieved, now return the data return ajaxed_data; } Domain B JS Client includes the example.js file from Domain A in his HTML <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.DomainA.com/example.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert(getData()); </script> I hope I have made myself understandable ! Can this be established ? Its something like Google friend connect, what I mean is, just provide JavaScript to the client and thats it. Every thing carried out in server side Thankx for providing this forum

    Read the article

  • Firing Postgres triggers on different table columns

    - by aatifh
    CONTENT_TABLE id | author | timestamp | title | description ----+-----------------+-----------+----------------+---------------------- (0 rows) SEARCH_TABLE id | content_type_id | object_id | tsvector_title | tsvector_description ----+-----------------+-----------+----------------+---------------------- (0 rows) I have to fire a trigger when ever CONTENT_TABLE is UPDATED/INSERTED Something like this: "CREATE TRIGGER tsvectorupdate BEFORE INSERT OR UPDATE ON course_course FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE tsvector_update_trigger(SHOULD_BE_THE_COLUMN_OF_SEARCH_TABLE(tsvector_description), 'pg_catalog.english', description);" Actually, i have to add tsvector for title and description of the CONTENT_TABLE to the table SEARCH_TABLE tsvector_title and tsvector_description. Can i just fire one trigger for it? Any sort of help will be appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Remove pointer object whose reference is mantained in three different lists

    - by brainydexter
    I am not sure how to approach this problem: 'Player' class mantains a list of Bullet* objects: class Player { protected: std::list< Bullet* > m_pBullet_list; } When the player fires a Bullet, it is added to this list. Also, inside the constructor of bullet, a reference of the same object is updated in CollisionMgr, where CollisionMgr also mantains a list of Bullet*. Bullet::Bullet(GameGL*a_pGameGL, Player*a_pPlayer) : GameObject( a_pGameGL ) { m_pPlayer = a_pPlayer; m_pGameGL->GetCollisionMgr()->AddBullet(this); } class CollisionMgr { void AddBullet(Bullet* a_pBullet); protected: std::list< Bullet*> m_BulletPList; } In CollisionMgr.Update(); based on some conditions, I populate class Cell which again contain a list of Bullet*. Finally, certain conditions qualify a Bullet to be deleted. Now, these conditions are tested upon while iterating through a Cell's list. So, if I have to delete the Bullet object, from all these places, how should I do it so that there are no more dangling references to it? std::list< Bullet*>::iterator bullet_it; for( bullet_it = (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).begin(); bullet_it != (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).end(); bullet_it++) { bool l_Bullet_trash = false; Bullet* bullet1 = *bullet_it; // conditions would set this to true if ( l_Bullet_Trash ) // TrashBullet( bullet1 ); continue; } Also, I was reading about list::remove, and it mentions that it calls the destructor of the object we are trying to delete. Given this info, if I delete from one list, the object does not exist, but the list would still contain a reference to it..How do I handle all these problems ? Can someone please help me here ? Thanks PS: If you want me to post more code or provide explanation, please do let me know.

    Read the article

  • Authenticating mssql users through different logins

    - by Sebastian Ferreyra
    I'm developing a new node.js based frontend for an old intranet site using mssql server and Classic ASP. Both the new and the old site will coexist during the transition phase and both must access the same mssql server using the same database principals. The old ASP/IIS site uses integrated windows login. The new node-based frontend has to use sql server based logins/principals (edit: while the IIS/ASP site must keep using Windows server principals) and all existing database users/principals must keep working wherever they login from. From reading around, it appears that a database principal can not be assigned to multiple server principals, therefore it seems unlikely there's a simple solution to this. I'd like to know if anybody has had to deal with a similar situation before and how they've gone about it.

    Read the article

  • Same code, not the same place, different results

    - by Tom
    Hi! I'm trying to something pretty simple but I don't understand why the second bit of code is giving me a bad access error... First: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Tom: Converting the row int to a string and adding 1 to it so that the rows fit with the array indexes.) NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); cell.textLabel.text = [array objectAtIndex:1]; return cell; } That code gives me exactly what I want: 2010-03-18 15:18:12.884 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 1 2010-03-18 15:18:12.885 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 7, Blessures ) 2010-03-18 15:18:12.892 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 2 2010-03-18 15:18:12.893 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 18, "Test 2" ) But then, the second: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); } Is only able to get me the key, but the description of the array makes it crash... tableDataSource is a NSMutableDictionary containing multiple arrays... Like this: { 1 = ( 7, Blessures ); 2 = ( 18, "Test 2" ); } Do you have any clue? I've been looking at this since yesterday... Thanks! Tom

    Read the article

  • Offering text in different sizes

    - by Simon R
    This is a general question of sorts, but do you think that it's important to offer text resizing tools on a website, which in essense only effect text as it seems that most browsers offer text resising or more commonly zooming?

    Read the article

  • Running ASP.NET MVC application behind a proxy with different root relative path

    - by Wiebe
    Hi All, I'm having trouble with paths in a ASP.NET MVC application that's running behind a proxy. Our IIS Application root path is for example http://server/MyApp/ meaning that all urls using the application root ("~/",Url.Action("MyAction","MyController")) are resolved to "/MyApp" Now we're running behind a proxy server that forwards all requests, but changes the application root to something like this: "/Secury/Proxy/RubbishUrl/MyApp" Because the original url is only available on the client, I thought of creating a cookie with the path prefix, and insert this before each generated URL on the server. Now the question is, what's the best location in code to modify each URL that's resolved/sent to the client (to resources, controller actions, images etc)? Every path in the application is resolved with the MVC methods (Url.Content, Url.Action etc).

    Read the article

  • My Spinner Widgets look different on different devices. How can I define a own Spinner that looks th

    - by Janusz
    I use this code to generate a spinner in my app: subCatAdapter = new ArrayAdapter<Subcategory>(this, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item, subCategories); subCatAdapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); On my device (Motorola Milestone) and in the emulator this looks like the standard gray spinner widget. On of my colleagues uses a Motorola Backflip and on his device the Spinner is black. Now its very hard to read the font in the spinner. What do I have to do to use my own view for the spinner? I don't mind to have the gray spinner on all devices, but it should always look the same on all devices.

    Read the article

  • Python Importing object that originates in one module from a different module into a third module

    - by adewinter
    I was reading the sourcode for a python project and came across the following line: from couchexport.export import Format (source: https://github.com/wbnigeria/couchexport/blob/master/couchexport/views.py#L1 ) I went over to couchexport/export.py to see what Format was (Class? Dict? something else?). Unfortunately Format isn't in that file. export.py does however import a Format from couchexport.models where there is a Format class (source: https://github.com/wbnigeria/couchexport/blob/master/couchexport/models.py#L11). When I open up the original file in my IDE and have it look up the declaration, in line I mentioned at the start of this question, it leads directly to models.py. What's going on? How can an import from one file (export.py) actually be an import from another file (models.py) without being explicitly stated?

    Read the article

  • UITabBarController with viewControllers utilizing different orientations?

    - by RickiG
    Hi I can see that this is something that has been troubling a lot of people:/ I have a UITabBarController that has 4 viewControllers, all of type UINavigationController. One of the navigationControllers gets a viewController pushed onto its stack, this viewController should be presented in landscape mode/orientation. The viewController is a graph, it is the absolutely only place in the app where landscape makes sense. (I hide the UITabBar when this is presented to not lead the user to believe this will work everywhere) To make a UITabBarController respond correctly to changes in orientation all its viewControllers need to return the same value from the delegate method: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation So to accomodate this behavior I have implemented this method in all the viewControllers belonging to the UITabBarController: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; BOOL canRotate = [defaults boolForKey:@"can_rotate"]; return canRotate; } The "trick" is now that when my can-be-landscape viewController is pushed I do this: - (void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setBool:YES forKey:@"can_rotate"]; [defaults synchronize]; } and when it is popped, I do this: - (void) viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setBool:NO forKey:@"can_rotate"]; [defaults synchronize]; } This works really well. When the viewController is on the stack I can rotate the device and the view follows. The problem is however, that if the user taps the "back" button on the navigationBar while in landscape mode, thus popping the viewController to the previous viewController, this "old" viewController is of course also in landscape mode. To make things worse, because I set the BOOL to NO, this "old" viewController can not rotate back when I orientate the device to portrait mode. Is there a way to update everything so that none of my other viewControllers will be in landscape mode when I pop the can-be-in-landscape mode viewController? I am a bit worried that if this could be done from landscape to portrait it should also be possible from portrait to landscape, thus making my "hack" unnecessary.. but if it can not, then I am back to square one :/ Hope I am close and that someone could help me get there, thanks:)

    Read the article

  • Squid server - multiple originservers with different domains

    - by jduncan
    I have 2 squid servers load-balanced with F5 LTMs set up as a reverse proxy. My problem: origin server A hosts domains 1, 2, and 3 origin server B hosts domains 4 and 5. how can I set up squid so that it will cache all vhosts for both servers? my current config: cache_peer serverA parent 80 0 round-robin no-query originserver login=PASS If I add a second line: cache_peer serverB parent 80 0 round-robin no-query originserver login=PASS it only caches domains on serverB, requests for serverA content generate 404 errors. I don't use squid a whole lot, and all help is appreciated. thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to run a .exe with dll in different location

    - by queandans
    I am working in C# and implementing Plugin Management feature to our application. I look through dll and exe to load up plugins that are in a specific folder say Plugins. These plugin applications have their own folder when they are installed and I will copy over the plugin application exe/dll to the Plugins folder. However, there are some plugin applications that requires other dlls to run, but I want to minimize the duplication. Is there a way that I can just copy over the .exe to the Plugins folder and have the other dependent dll files locate in other folder? How would I load the the plugin in c# if the .exe and .dll is not in the same location? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

    Read the article

  • datepicker common options but different altField altFormat

    - by Legio X
    Using jquery-ui datepicker I would like to use altField and altFormat to 2 datepickers on the same page but I can't figure out how to add these 2 options which are specific to each datepicker along with my common set of options. Code sample below. #dt1 does not work, but #dt2 works. How can I get #dt1 to work while using the datepickerOpts? var datepickerOpts = { minDate: -2, changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd' }; $('#dt1').datepicker(datepickerOpts, {altField: '#alt1', altFormat: 'mm-dd-yy' }); $('#dt2').datepicker({ minDate: -2, changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd', altField: '#alt2', altFormat: '@' });

    Read the article

  • Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

    Read the article

  • How to regex match text with different endings?

    - by Mint
    This is what I have at the moment. <h2>header</h2>\n +<p>(.*)<br />|</p> ^ that is a tab space, didn't know if there was a better way to represent one or more (it seems to work) Im trying to match the 'bla bla.' text, but my current regex doesn't quite work, it will match most of the line, but I want it to match the first <h2>Information</h2> <p>bla bla.<br /><br /><a href="http://www.google.com">google</a><br /> or <h2>Information</h2> <p>bla bla.</p> other code... Oh and my php code: preg_match('#h2>header</h2>\n +<p>(.*)<br />|</p>#', $result, $postMessage);

    Read the article

  • Android Bottombar with two buttons having different backgrounds and a common background for two butt

    - by cppdev
    Hi, I have a linear layout in my main.xml which has a listview. Now I want to create a bottom bar below listview. Bottombar has a background image and two buttons with their individual background images. I want to put these two buttons on common background image. I have read that this can be achieved using FrameLayout. But since I am using LinearLayout as base layout in my main.xml, is there any way to this design using linearlayout ?

    Read the article

  • A controller method that calls a different method on the same controller

    - by justSteve
    I have a controller method: public ActionResult Details(int id) { Order order = OrderFacade.Instance.Load(id); return View(order); } that is used for 95% of possible invocations. For the other 5% i need to manipulate the value of id before passing to the facade. I'd like to create a separate method within this same controller that executes that manipulation and then calls this (Details) method. What would the signature of that method look like? What is the syntax to call the main Details method? public ??? ManipulatorMethod(int id) { [stuff that manipulates id] [syntax to call Details(manipulatedID)] } mny thx

    Read the article

  • Move file or folder to a different folder in google document using api problem

    - by Minh Nguyen
    In Google Document i have a struct: Folder1 +------Folder1-1 +------+------File1-1-1 +------Folder1-2 +------File1-1 Folder2 I want to move "File1-1" to "Folder2" using .Net google api library(Google Data API SDK) public static void moveFolder(string szUserName, string szPassword, string szResouceID, string szToFolderResourceID) { string szSouceUrl = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full" + "/" + HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlEncode(szResouceID); Uri sourceUri = new Uri(szSouceUrl); //create a atom entry AtomEntry atom = new AtomEntry(); atom.Id = new AtomId(szSouceUrl); string szTargetUrl = "http://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full/folder%3Aroot/contents/"; if (szToFolderResourceID != "") { szTargetUrl = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/default/private/full" + "/" + HttpContext.Current.Server.UrlEncode(szToFolderResourceID) + "/contents" ; } Uri targetUri = new Uri(szTargetUrl); DocumentsService service = new DocumentsService(SERVICENAME); ((GDataRequestFactory)service.RequestFactory).KeepAlive = false; service.setUserCredentials(szUserName, szPassword); service.EntrySend(targetUri, atom, GDataRequestType.Insert); } After run this function i have: Folder1 +------Folder1-1 +------+------File1-1-1 +------Folder1-2 +------File1-1 Folder2 +------File1-1 "File1-1" display in both "Folder1" and "Folder2", and when i delete it from a folder it will be deleted in another folder. (expect: "File1-1" display only in "Folder2") What happen? How can i solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Java: creating objects of arrays with different names at runtime and accessing/updating them

    - by scriptingalias
    Hello, I'm trying to create a class that can instantiate arrays at runtime by giving each array a "name" created by the createtempobjectname() method. I'm having trouble making this program run. I would also like to see how I could access specific objects that were created during runtime and accessing those arrays by either changing value or accessing them. This is my mess so far, which compiles but gets a runtime exception. import java.lang.reflect.Array; public class arrays { private static String temp; public static int name = 0; public static Object o; public static Class c; public static void main(String... args) { assignobjectname(); //getclassname();//this is supposed to get the name of the object and somehow //allow the arrays to become updated using more code? } public static void getclassname() { String s = c.getName(); System.out.println(s); } public static void assignobjectname()//this creates the object by the name returned { //createtempobjectname() try { String object = createtempobjectname(); c = Class.forName(object); o = Array.newInstance(c, 20); } catch (ClassNotFoundException exception) { exception.printStackTrace(); } } public static String createtempobjectname() { name++; temp = Integer.toString(name); return temp; } }

    Read the article

  • Formatting a query to enumerate through 2 different datatables

    - by boiler1974
    I have 2 datatables sendTable and recvTable They both have identical column names and numbers of columns "NODE" "DSP Name" "BUS" "IDENT" "STATION" "REF1" "REF2" "REF3" "REF4" "REF5" "REF6" "REF7" "REF8" I need to compare these 2 tables and separate out the mismatches I only need to check Columns 3-11 and Ignore col 1 and 2 I tried at first removing the 2 columns and then loop thru row by row and return matches and mismatches but the problem with this approach is that I no longer have the "NODE" and "DSP Name" associated with the row when I finalize my results So I need help with a query Here is my attempt var samerecordQuery = from r1 in sendTable.AsEnumerable() where r1.Field<int>("BUS").Equals(from r2 in recvTable.AsEnumerable() where r2.Field<int>("BUS")) this obviously doesn't work so how do I format the query to say from r1 cols[3-11] equals r2 cols [3-11] and once I have this I can use the except to pull out the mismatches

    Read the article

  • Making the shadow from a ScatterViewItem a different shape

    - by Vargen
    I am developing a program for Surface using Expression Blend and Visual Studio. I have a custom user control with an ellipse and a label in a grid. This will need to be placed in a scatterViewItem. My problem is that the scatterviewitem will cast a rectangle shaped shadow under the ellipse shaped content. I can disable the shadow completely, but is there any way to make the shadow inherit the shape from its parent? Or can i set the shape of the scatterviewItem itself in any way?

    Read the article

  • Jquery: Calling functions from different documents

    - by Tom
    Hi, I've got some Jquery functions that I keep in a "custom.js" file. On some pages, I need to pass PHP variables to the Jquery so some Jquery bits need to remain in the HTML documents. However, as I'm now trying to refactor things to the minimum, I'm tripping over the following: If I put this in my custom.js: $(document).ready(function() { function sayHello() { alert("hello"); } } And this in a HTML document: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { sayHello(); }); </script> ... the function doesn't get called. However, if both are placed in the HTML document, the function works fine. Is there some kind of public property I need to declare for the function or how do I get Jquery functions in my HTML to talk to external .js files? They're correctly included and work fine otherwise. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83  | Next Page >