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• Reporting Services "cannot connect to the report server database"

  - by Dano

  We have Reporting Services running, and twice in the past 6 months it has been down for 1-3 days, and suddenly it will start working again. The errors range from not being able to view the tree root in a browser, down to being able to insert parameters on a report, but crashing before the report can generate. Looking at the logs, there is 1 error and 1 warning which seem to correspond somewhat. ERROR:Event Type: Error Event Source: Report Server (SQL2K5) Event Category: Management Event ID: 107 Date: 2/13/2009 Time: 11:17:19 AM User: N/A Computer: ******** Description: Report Server (SQL2K5) cannot connect to the report server database. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. WARNING: always comes before the previous error Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 2/13/2009 11:06:48 AM Event time (UTC): 2/13/2009 5:06:48 PM Event ID: 2efdff9e05b14f4fb8dda5ebf16d6772 Event sequence: 550 Event occurrence: 5 Event detail code: 0 Process information: Process ID: 5368 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ReportServerException Exception message: For more information about this error navigate to the report server on the local server machine, or enable remote errors. During the downtime we tried restarting everything from the server RS runs on, to the database it calls to fill reports with no success. When I came in monday morning it was working again. Anyone out there have any ideas on what could be causing these issues? Edit Tried both suggestions below several months ago to no avail. This issue hasn't arisen since, maybe something out of my control has changed....

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• calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

  - by Eyla

  I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

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• Dynamic TextBox on LinkButton click

  - by Alex Peta

  I am creating dynamic TextBoxes in a page by clicking a LinkButton. However, after that, if the page is submitted, I can't find the items created dynamically, thus, can't send the information to the database. protected void lbAddTag_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { for (int i = 0; i < 3;i++ ) { CreateTextBox("txtTag-" + i.ToString()); } } private void CreateTextBox(string ID) { TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = ID; txt.Width = Unit.Pixel(300); //txt.TextChanged += new EventHandler(OnTextChanged); txt.AutoPostBack = false; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(txt); Literal lt = new Literal(); lt.Text = "<br /><br />"; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(lt); } If I put: foreach (Control c in tagsPanel.Controls) { if (c is TextBox) { lblError.Text += c.ClientID + " , "; } } in the lbAddTag_Click method I can see the items, and they exist, but if I submit the page and try to insert the values in the database nothing... Any hint is much appreciated.

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• What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

  - by Patrick

  Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• Javascript + PHP $_POST array empty

  - by Peterim

  While trying to send a POST request via xmlhttp.open("POST", "url", true) (javascript) to the server I get an empty $_POST array. Firebug shows that the data is being sent. Here is the data string from Firebug: a=1&q=151a45a150.... But $_POST['q'] returns nothing. The interesting thing is that file_get_contents('php://input') does have my data (the string above), but PHP somehow doesn't recognize it. Tried both $_POST and $_REQUEST, nothing works. Headers being sent: POST /test.php HTTP/1.1 Host: website.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://website.com/ Content-Length: 156 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Pragma: no-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Thank you for any suggestions.

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• WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

  - by user320849

  Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• How can I redirect directory using htaccess including files with spaces in the names

  - by James

  Hi, I am dealing with a situation where someone has handed me a bunch of old files on the server which already have a lot of incoming links directly to them (mostly pdf files). I now have the files organized but in a different directory. Before it was 'domain/manuals/file' now it is 'domain/media/manual/file'. I am trying to resolve this issue using an htaccess file. Many of the files have spaces in the names (not something I can control) and because they already have links to them I can't just go through renaming them. I have found that I can redirect files individually when they have spaces in the names by using quotes such as: redirect 301 "/manuals/file 123.pdf" "http://www.domain.com/manuals/file 123.pdf" However, there are loads of these files and I wondered if there is a way to create a regular expression that will handle spaces in file names that I could use to redirect the entire directory. I should add that some files contain decent file names with no spaces in, some have one space and others more than one space. It's not pretty. If you've encountered this problem before I would really appreciate hearing your advice, I'm running out of ideas. Thanks.

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• mercurial fails with a file named ---.config - any way around this?

  - by Travis Laborde

  We are just beginning to learn and evaluate Mercurial, due to an increasing number of nightmare merges, and various other problems we've had with SVN lately. A client wants us to pull down a live copy of their site, do some SEO work on it, and push it back to them. They have no source control at all. I figure this is a great project to work on with Mercurial. Instead of putting it into our SVN and exporting when we are done, we'll use Mercurial... But right away it seems I have some problem :) They have a file called "---.config" (without quotes) which seems to cause our Mercurial to barf. It just can't commit that file. I've created the repo and committed everything else, but I just can't get this one file committed. We are running on Windows 2008 x64 with TortoiseHG 1.0. I suppose I could ignore the file since it is unlikely we'll need to work with it, but still - I'd like to learn how to use Mercurial a bit better. Is there a way around this?

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• Capistrano + Git + DreamHost

  - by Michael Sync

  Hello, I'm trying to deploy my rails application by using Passenger and Capistrano on Dreamhost. I'm using Git as a version control and we bought an account from GitHub. I have installed all required gems, Passenger and Capistrano in my local machine and I have cloned the repository of my project from GitHub in my local machine as wel. According to Dreamhost support, they have Passenger, Ruby, Rails and etc on their server as well. I'm currently following this article http://github.com/guides/deploying-with-capistrano for my deployment. The following is my deploy.rb. default_run_options[:pty] = true ssh_options[:forward_agent] = true # be sure to change these set :user, 'gituser' set :domain, 'github.com' set :application, 'MyProjectOnGit' #[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git # the rest should be good set :repository, "[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git" set :deploy_to, "/ruby.michaelsync.net/" set :deploy_via, :remote_cache set :scm, 'git' set :branch, 'master' set :git_shallow_clone, 1 set :scm_verbose, true set :use_sudo, false set :git_enable_submodules, 1 server domain, :app, :web role :db, domain, :primary => true set :ssh_options, { :forward_agent => true } namespace :deploy do task :restart do run "touch #{current_path}/tmp/restart.txt" end end When I run "cap deploy", I'm getting the error below. [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) Thanks in advance..

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• IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

  - by Hitesh Riziya

  I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

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• Regarding some Update Stored procedure

  - by Serenity

  I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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• Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

  - by seth

  I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

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• When to drop an IT job

  - by Nippysaurus

  In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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• Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

  - by Rebol Tutorial

  Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

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• Python opening a file and putting list of names on separate lines

  - by Jeremy Borton

  I am trying to write a python program using Python 3 I have to open a text file and read a list of names, print the list, sort the list in alphabetical order and then finally re-print the list. There's a little more to it than that BUT the problem I am having is that I'm supposed to print the list of names with each name on a separate line Instead of printing each name on a separate line, it prints the list all on one line. How can I fix this? def main(): #create control loop keep_going = 'y' #Open name file name_file = open('names.txt', 'r') names = name_file.readlines() name_file.close() #Open outfile outfile = open('sorted_names.txt', 'w') index = 0 while index < len(names): names[index] = names[index].rstrip('\n') index += 1 #sort names print('original order:', names) names.sort() print('sorted order:', names) #write names to outfile for item in names: outfile.write(item + '\n') #close outfile outfile.close() #search names while keep_going == 'y' or keep_going == 'Y': search = input('Enter a name to search: ') if search in names: print(search, 'was found in the list.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') else: print(search, 'was not found.') keep_going = input('Would you like to do another search Y for yes: ') main()

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• What about race condition in multithreaded reading?

  - by themoob

  Hi, According to an article on IBM.com, "a race condition is a situation in which two or more threads or processes are reading or writing some shared data, and the final result depends on the timing of how the threads are scheduled. Race conditions can lead to unpredictable results and subtle program bugs." . Although the article concerns Java, I have in general been taught the same definition. As far as I know, simple operation of reading from RAM is composed of setting the states of specific input lines (address, read etc.) and reading the states of output lines. This is an operation that obviously cannot be executed simultaneously by two devices and has to be serialized. Now let's suppose we have a situation when a couple of threads access an object in memory. In theory, this access should be serialized in order to prevent race conditions. But e.g. the readers/writers algorithm assumes that an arbitrary number of readers can use the shared memory at the same time. So, the question is: does one have to implement an exclusive lock for read when using multithreading (in WinAPI e.g.)? If not, why? Where is this control implemented - OS, hardware? Best regards, Kuba

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• Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

  - by Kelly Cline

  I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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• Using the same code in different (partial) views

  - by Danny Chen

  Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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• Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

  - by Craig Walker

  I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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• Strategies for Mapping Views in NHibernate

  - by Nathan Fisher

  It seems that NHibernate needs to have an id tag specified as part of the mapping. This presents a problem for views as most of the time (in my experience) a view will not have an Id. I have mapped views before in nhibernate, but they way I did it seemed to be be messy to me. Here is a contrived example of how I am doing it currently. Mapping <class name="ProductView" table="viewProduct" mutable="false" > <id name="Id" type="Guid"> <generator class="guid.comb" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <!-- more properties --> </class> View SQL Select NewID() as Id, ProductName as Name, --More columns From Product Class public class ProductView { public virtual Id {get; set;} public virtual Name {get; set;} } I don't need an Id for the product or in the case of some views I may not have an id for the view, depending on if I have control over the View Is there a better way of mapping views to objects in nhibernate?

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• Set focus to a button in a new TabItem

  - by Jan

  I use a TabControl to display a list of items. The ItemView is a separate control I wrote. <TabControl SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentItem}" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding ItemList}"> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ctrls:ItemView/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortItemDescription}"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> </TabControl> If the user presses a Button a new ViewModel is added to the list of ViewModels and the TabControl displays it as a new tab. After adding the new tab is selected. <Button Command="{Binding AddItemCommand}" Content="Add item"/> Inside of the new ViewModel is a button that needs to be focused each time a new tab is added. I have tried to use the FocusManager and the Initialized event in the ItemView but these are only called for the first time I add a new tab. <UserControl x:Class="ItemView" ... Initialized="ViewInitialized"> <Grid> ... <!-- Set focus to this button --> <Button Content="Search" Command="{Binding SearchCommand}" Name="SearchButton" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0"/> </Grid> </UserControl> Any ideas?

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• WCF cross-domain policy security error

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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