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• Spring webflow 1.0 - Downloading a file

  - by Dave

  I am using spring webflow 1.0. I am uploading a csv file, parsing it, and displying results before proceeding. The user has an option to download a csv file that contains the records that did not pass validation. When I click the link in a JSP to download this file, webflow invokes a form Action. The form action writes out a file via getting the output stream off the response: HttpServletResponse response = ((ServletExternalContext) context.getExternalContext()).getResponse(); I do not want to leave the jsp I'm currently on. I just want to download the file. In other words, I do not want to transition to another state. I just want to serve the dynamically rendered file. Everything works (I don't leave the page, and I download the file), but I'm getting the following error in my console: _pEncydKfggPHJo8=org.springframework.webflow.engine.NoMatchingTransitionException: No transition was matched on the event(s) signaled by the [1] action(s) that executed in this action state 'downloadErrorReportAction' of flow 'myFlow'; transitions must be defined to handle action result outcomes -- possible flow configuration error? Note: the eventIds signaled were: 'array<String>[[null]]', while the supported set of transitional criteria for this action state is 'array<TransitionCriteria>[[empty]]' at org.springframework.webflow.engine.ActionState.doEnter(ActionState.java:187) at org.springframework.webflow.engine.State.enter(State.java:191) at org.springframework.webflow.engine.Transition.execute(Transition.java:212) at org.springframework.webflow.engine.TransitionableState.onEvent(TransitionableState.java:107) at org.springframework.webflow.engine.Flow.onEvent(Flow.java:534) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace Here is the relevant portion of my webflow config. <view-state id="showUploadResults" view="UploadResults3.0"> <render-actions> <action bean="UploadResultsAction" method="transitionToWebflow"/> <action bean="UploadResultsAction" method="setupData"/> </render-actions> <transition on="submit" to="proceed"/> <transition on="downloadErrorReport" to="downloadErrorReportAction"/> </view-state> <action-state id="downloadErrorReportAction"> <action bean="UploadResultsAction" method="downloadErrorReport" name="downloadErrorReport"/> </action-state>

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• Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

  - by Carl Jokl

  I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

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• Stumbleupon type query...

  - by Chris Denman

  Wow, makes your head spin! I am about to start a project, and although my mySql is OK, I can't get my head around what required for this: I have a table of web addresses. id,url 1,http://www.url1.com 2,http://www.url2.com 3,http://www.url3.com 4,http://www.url4.com I have a table of users. id,name 1,fred bloggs 2,john bloggs 3,amy bloggs I have a table of categories. id,name 1,science 2,tech 3,adult 4,stackoverflow I have a table of categories the user likes as numerical ref relating to the category unique ref. For example: user,category 1,4 1,6 1,7 1,10 2,3 2,4 3,5 . . . I have a table of scores relating to each website address. When a user visits one of these sites and says they like it, it's stored like so: url_ref,category 4,2 4,3 4,6 4,2 4,3 5,2 5,3 . . . So based on the above data, URL 4 would score (in it's own right) as follows: 2=2 3=2 6=1 What I was hoping to do was pick out a random URL from over 2,000,000 records based on the current users interests. So if the logged in user likes categories 1,2,3 then I would like to ORDER BY a score generated based on their interest. If the logged in user likes categories 2 3 and 6 then the total score would be 5. However, if the current logged in user only like categories 2 and 6, the URL score would be 3. So the order by would be in context of the logged in users interests. Think of stumbleupon. I was thinking of using a set of VIEWS to help with sub queries. I'm guessing that all 2,000,000 records will need to be looked at and based on the id of the url it will look to see what scores it has based on each selected category of the current user. So we need to know the user ID and this gets passed into the query as a constant from the start. Ain't got a clue! Chris Denman

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• Add new row to asp .net grid view using button

  - by SARAVAN

  Hi, I am working in ASP .net 2.0. I am a learner. I have a grid view which has a button in it. Please find the asp mark up below <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="myGridView" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button CommandName="AddARowBelow" Text="Add A Row Below" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div> </form> Please find the code behind below. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Data; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace GridViewDemo { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = new DataTable("myTable"); dt.Columns.Add("col1"); dt.Columns.Add("col2"); dt.Columns.Add("col3"); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); myGridView.DataSource = dt; myGridView.DataBind(); } protected void myGridView_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { } } } I was thinking that when I click the command button, it would fire the mygridview_rowcommand() but instead it threw an error as follows: Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" % in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. Can any one let me know on where I am going wrong?

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• CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

  - by ControlFlow

  I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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• MS Access MSChart.Graph.8 not printing

  - by Tanj

  Software: Microsoft Access 2007 SP2 Database File Version: Access 2000 I have an access program that I inherited from a previous employee. It uses forms for reports and since I don't have much experience in access I have continued to do this. I have created a copy of the program for another project and modified it to suit. I am having trouble getting more then one chart to print. All the charts display in form view, they all have the same properties (excepting data, position, etc.) For some reason they are not printing. They don't even show up in the print preview. I am thinking it must be something with the graphs themselves as they sometimes lose all information. I have to open the graphs in edit mode and change the data source from column to row and back again so that it gets redrawn. (Refresh doesn't fix it) So right now I don't even have a clue as to where to look so ideas are welcome. Edit #1 It seems to be a problem with linking to an unbound form. Subform Field Linker: Can't build a link between unbound forms. The query for the main form is SELECT tTest.ixTest, tMotorTypes.ixMotorType, tMotorTypes.asMotorType, tMotorTypes.fDeprecated, tTestType.asTest, tTest.asSerialNum, tTest.asOrderNum, tTest.asFrameNum, tTest.asRotorNum, tTest.asOperator, tTest.iStation, tTest.dtTestDate, tTest.ixTestType FROM tMotorTypes INNER JOIN (tTestType INNER JOIN tTest ON tTestType.ixTestType=tTest.ixTestType) ON tMotorTypes.ixMotorType=tTest.ixMotorType; The query for the chart is: SELECT qGraphRSTTemperatures.Frequency, qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Non Drive End], qGraphRSTTemperatures.[Air In], qGraphRSTTemperatures.Core FROM qGraphRSTTemperatures ORDER BY qGraphRSTTemperatures.ixTemperature; Query qGraphRSTTemperatures: SELECT tElectricalData.dblFrequency AS Frequency, tTemperatures.dblDrvEnd AS [Drive End], tTemperatures.dblNonDrvEnd AS [Non Drive End], tTemperatures.dblAirIn AS [Air In], tTemperatures.dblCore AS Core, tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature FROM (tSubTest INNER JOIN tElectricalData ON tSubTest.ixSubTest = tElectricalData.ixSubTest) LEFT JOIN tTemperatures ON tElectricalData.ixElectrical = tTemperatures.ixElectrical WHERE (((tSubTest.ixSubTestType)=5)) ORDER BY tSubTest.ixTest, tTemperatures.ixTemperature; So how come, in the form view it shows the graph with the correct data when linked thus: Child field: ixTest Master field: ixTest but won't print the graph. The graph will print if I remove the links, but then I have all the data from chart query as it is not limited by ixTest. edit #2 It seems to be a data retrieval/rendering issue in printing. Is there anything in printing that changes the context of records with respect to parent/child relationships?

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• Postgresql: Implicit lock acquisition from foreign-key constraint evaluation

  - by fennec

  So, I'm being confused about foreign key constraint handling in Postgresql. (version 8.4.4, for what it's worth). We've got a couple of tables, mildly anonymized below: device: (id, blah, blah, blah, blah, blah x 50)… primary key on id whooooole bunch of other junk device_foo: (id, device_id, left, right) Foreign key (device_id) references device(id) on delete cascade; primary key on id btree index on 'left' and 'right' So I set out with two database windows to run some queries. db1> begin; lock table device in exclusive mode; db2> begin; update device_foo set left = left + 1; The db2 connection blocks. It seems odd to me that an update of the 'left' column on device_stuff should be affected by activity on the device table. But it is. In fact, if I go back to db1: db1> select * from device_stuff for update; *** deadlock occurs *** The pgsql log has the following: blah blah blah deadlock blah. CONTEXT: SQL statement "SELECT 1 FROM ONLY "public"."device" x WHERE "id" OPERATOR(pg_catalog.=) $1 FOR SHARE OF X: update device_foo set left = left + 1; I suppose I've got two issues: the first is that I don't understand the precise mechanism by which this sort of locking occurs. I have got a couple of useful queries to query pg_locks to see what sort of locks a statement invokes, but I haven't been able to observe this particular sort of locking when I run the update device_foo command in isolation. (Perhaps I'm doing something wrong, though.) I also can't find any documentation on the lock acquisition behavior of foreign-key constraint checks. All I have is a log message. Am I to infer from this that any change to a row will acquire an update lock on all the tables which it's foreign-keyed against? The second issue is that I'd like to find some way to make it not happen like that. I'm ending up with occasional deadlocks in the actual application. I'd like to be able to run big update statements that impact all rows on device_foo without acquiring a big lock on the device table. (There's a lot of access going on in the device table, and it's kind of an expensive lock to get.)

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• How to use the Value of a Selected Value from a DropDownList populated with AJAX/PHP

  - by mouthpiec

  Hi, I have form with two dropdownlists (lets say A and B). When I select a value from A, B is being populated accordingly using AJAX In the same page I have a button, that when pressed, posts the values of the selected items of the dropdownlists to another PHP page. The problem I am having is that the selected value of B is returned as Blank/Empty. Is there a way to store the selected value of a dropdownlist populated using AJAX? Code below: (Main FORM) <form name="NewBar" method="post" onsubmit="return validateFormOnSubmit(this)" action="AssignContactDetailToBar_f.php"> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Bar:</b></td> <td> <select name = "bar" onChange="getContact('AssignContactDetailToBar_f_getContacts.php?bar='+this.value)" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">---Select---</option> <?php while ($data = mysql_fetch_array($r_getBarsDetails)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['bar_id']."\">".$data['bar_name']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="150"><b>Contact Person:</b></td> <td> <div id="persondiv"><select name = "person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Bar--</option> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input name="security" type="text" size="15"> </td> <td> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </td> </tr> </form> FORM to populate the 2nd Dropdownlist <select name="person" size = 1 style = "width:190px"> <option value = "">--Select Person--</option> <?php while($data=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<option value=\"".$data['person_id']."\">".$data['person_name']." ".$data['person_surname']." (".$data['town_name'].")</option>"; } ?> if you would like to see the complete code download from here

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• Under what circumstances would a LINQ-to-SQL Entity "lose" a changed field?

  - by John Rudy

  I'm going nuts over what should be a very simple situation. In an ASP.NET MVC 2 app (not that I think this matters), I have an edit action which takes a very small entity and makes a few changes. The key portion (outside of error handling/security) looks like this: Todo t = Repository.GetTodoByID(todoID); UpdateModel(t); Repository.Save(); Todo is the very simple, small entity with the following fields: ID (primary key), FolderID (foreign key), PercentComplete, TodoText, IsDeleted and SaleEffortID (foreign key). Each of these obviously corresponds to a field in the database. When UpdateModel(t) is called, t does get correctly updated for all fields which have changed. When Repository.Save() is called, by the time the SQL is written out, FolderID reverts back to its original value. The complete code to Repository.Save(): public void Save() { myDataContext.SubmitChanges(); } myDataContext is an instance of the DataContext class created by the LINQ-to-SQL designer. Nothing custom has been done to this aside from adding some common interfaces to some of the entities. I've validated that the FolderID is getting lost before the call to Repository.Save() by logging out the generated SQL: UPDATE [Todo].[TD_TODO] SET [TD_PercentComplete] = @p4, [TD_TodoText] = @p5, [TD_IsDeleted] = @p6 WHERE ([TD_ID] = @p0) AND ([TD_TDF_ID] = @p1) AND /* Folder ID */ ([TD_PercentComplete] = @p2) AND ([TD_TodoText] = @p3) AND (NOT ([TD_IsDeleted] = 1)) AND ([TD_SE_ID] IS NULL) /* SaleEffort ID */ -- @p0: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] /* this SHOULD be 4 and in the update list */ -- @p2: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [90] -- @p3: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text] -- @p4: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [0] -- @p5: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text foo] -- @p6: Input Bit (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [True] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1 So somewhere between UpdateModel(t) (where I've validated in the debugger that FolderID updated) and the output of this SQL, the FolderID reverts. The other fields all save. (Well, OK, I haven't validated SaleEffortID yet, because that subsystem isn't really ready yet, but everything else saves.) I've exhausted my own means of research on this: Does anyone know of conditions which would cause a partial entity reset (EG, something to do with long foreign keys?), and/or how to work around this?

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• With EJB 2.1, is declaring references to resources in ejb-jar.xml required?

  - by zwerd328

  I'm using Weblogic 9.2 with a lot of MDBs. These MDBs access JDBC DataSources and write to both locally and externally managed JMS Destinations using local and foreign XAConnectionFactorys, respectively. Each MDB demarcates a container-managed JTA transaction that should be distributed amongst all of these resources. Below is an excerpt from my ejb-jar.xml for an MDB that consumes from a local Queue called "MyDestination" and produces to an IBM Websphere MQ Queue called "MyOtherDestination". These logical names are linked to physical objects in my weblogic-ejb-jar.xml file. Is it required to use the <resource-ref> and <message-destination-ref> tags to expose the ConnectionFactory and Queue to the MDB? If so, is it required by Weblogic or is it required by the J2EE spec? And for what purpose? For example, is it required to support XA transactionality? I'm already aware of the benefit of decoupling the administered objects from my MDB using names exposed to the naming context of the MDB. Is this the only value added when specifying these tags? In other words, is it acceptable to just reference these objects from my MDB using the InitialContext and the objects' fully-qualified names? <enterprise-bean> <message-driven> <ejb-name>MyMDB</ejb-name> <ejb-class>com.mycompany.MyMessageDrivenBean</ejb-class> <transaction-type>Container</transaction-type> <message-destination-type>javax.jms.Queue</message-destination> <message-destination-link>MyDestination</message-destination-link> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jms/myQCF</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.jms.XAConnectionFactory</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> <message-destination-ref> <message-destination-ref-name>jms/myOtherDestination</message-destination-ref-name> <message-destination-type>javax.jms.Queue</message-destination-type> <message-destination-usage>Produces</message-destination-usage> <message-destination-link>MyOtherDestination</message-destination-link> </message-destination-ref> </message-driven> <enterprise-bean>

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• AD-DirectoryServices: .NET2.0 - Speaking architecture, approach and best practices... Suggestions?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I've been mandated to write an application to migrate the Active Directory access models to another environment. Here's the context: I'm stuck with VB.NET 2005 and .NET Framework 2.0; The application must use the Windows authenticated user to manage AD; The objects I have to handle are Groups, Users and OrganizationalUnits; I intend to use the Façade design pattern to provider ease of use and a fully reusable code; I plan to write a factory for each of the objects managed (group, ou, user); The use of Attributes should be useful here, I guess; As everything is about the DirectoryEntry class when accessing the AD, it seems a good candidate for generic types. Obligatory features: User creates new OUs manually; User creates new group manually; User creates new user (these users are services accounts) manually; Application reads an XML file which contains the OUs, groups and users to create; Application informs the user about the OUs, groups and users that shall be created; User specifies the domain environment where to migrate the XML input file designated objects; User makes changes if needed, and launches the task operations; Application performs required by the XML input file operations against the underlying AD as specified by the user; Application informs the user upon completion. Linear features: User fetches OUs, groups, users; User changes OUs, groups, users; User deletes OUs, groups, users; The application logs AD entries and operations performed, plus errors and exceptions; Nice-to-have features: Application rollbacks operations on error or exception. I've been working for weeks now to get acquainted with the AD and the System.DirectoryServices assembly. But I don't seem to find a way to be fully satisfied with what I'm doing and always looking for better. I have studied Bret de Smet's Linq to AD on CodePlex, but then again, I can't use it as I'm stuck with .NET 2.0, so no Linq! But I've learned about Attributes, and seen that he's working with generic types as he codes a DirectorySource class to perform the operations for OUs, groups and users. I have been able to add groups to the AD; I have been able to add users to the AD; The created user is automatically disabled? I seem to get confused with the use of a LDAP path to add objects. For instance, one needs two instances of a System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry class to add a group, for instance. Why this? Any suggestions? Thanks for any help, code sample, ideas, architural solution, everything!

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• Escaping Code for Different Shells

  - by Jon Purdy

  Question: What characters do I need to escape in a user-entered string to securely pass it into shells on Windows and Unix? What shell differences and version differences should be taken into account? Can I use printf "%q" somehow, and is that reliable across shells? Backstory (a.k.a. Shameless Self-Promotion): I made a little DSL, the Vision Web Template Language, which allows the user to create templates for X(HT)ML documents and fragments, then automatically fill them in with content. It's designed to separate template logic from dynamic content generation, in the same way that CSS is used to separate markup from presentation. In order to generate dynamic content, a Vision script must defer to a program written in a language that can handle the generation logic, such as Perl or Python. (Aside: using PHP is also possible, but Vision is intended to solve some of the very problems that PHP perpetuates.) In order to do this, the script makes use of the @system directive, which executes a shell command and expands to its output. (Platform-specific generation can be handled using @unix or @windows, which only expand on the proper platform.) The problem is obvious, I should think: test.htm: <!-- ... --> <form action="login.vis" method="POST"> <input type="text" name="USERNAME"/> <input type="password" name="PASSWORD"/> </form> <!-- ... --> login.vis: #!/usr/bin/vision # Think USERNAME = ";rm -f;" @system './login.pl' { USERNAME; PASSWORD } One way to safeguard against this kind of attack is to set proper permissions on scripts and directories, but Web developers may not always set things up correctly, and the naive developer should get just as much security as the experienced one. The solution, logically, is to include a @quote directive that produces a properly escaped string for the current platform. @system './login.pl' { @quote : USERNAME; @quote : PASSWORD } But what should @quote actually do? It needs to be both cross-platform and secure, and I don't want to create terrible problems with a naive implementation. Any thoughts?

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• whats wrong in this LINQ synatx?

  - by Saurabh Kumar

  Hi, I am trying to convert a SQL query to LINQ. Somehow my count(distinct(x)) logic does not seem to be working correctly. The original SQL is quite efficient(or so i think), but the generated SQL is not even returning the correct result. I am trying to fix this LINQ to do what the original SQL is doing, AND in an efficient way as the original query is doing. Help here would be really apreciated as I am stuck here :( SQL which is working and I need to make a comparable LINQ of: SELECT [t1].[PersonID] AS [personid] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PhoneCode] = [t0].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[person] ON [t1].[PersonID]= [dbo].[Person].PersonID WHERE ([t0].[codetype] = 'phone') AND ( ([t0].[CodeDescription] = 'Home') AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = '111') OR ([t0].[CodeDescription] = 'Work') AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = '222') ) GROUP BY [t1].[PersonID] HAVING COUNT(DISTINCT([t1].[PhoneNum]))=2 The LINQ which I made is approximately as below: var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; Unfortunately, the above LINQ is NOT generating the correct result, and is actually internally getting generated to the SQL shown below. By the way, this generated query is also reading ALL the rows(about 19592040) around 2 times due to the COUNTS :( Wich is a big performance issue too. Please help/point me to the right direction. Declare @p0 VarChar(10)='phone' Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Work' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 VarChar(10)='2' SELECT [t9].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t13].[PhoneNum] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t10] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t11] ON [t11].[PhoneType] = [t10].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Person] AS [t12] ON [t12].[PersonID] = [t11].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t13] ON [t13].[PhoneType] = [t10].[Code] WHERE ([t9].[PersonID] = [t12].[PersonID]) AND ([t10].[codetype] = @p0) AND ((([t10].[codetype] = @p1) AND ([t11].[PhoneNum] = @p2)) OR (([t10].[codetype] = @p3) AND ([t11].[PhoneNum] = @p4))) ) AS [t14] ) AS [cnt] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneNum] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PhoneType] = [t4].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Person] AS [t6] ON [t6].[PersonID] = [t5].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PhoneType] = [t4].[Code] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t6].[PersonID]) AND ([t4].[codetype] = @p0) AND ((([t4].[codetype] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneNum] = @p2)) OR (([t4].[codetype] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneNum] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t2].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Code] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[phonenumbers] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PhoneType] = [t0].[Code] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Person] AS [t2] ON [t2].[PersonID] = [t1].[PersonID] WHERE ([t0].[codetype] = @p0) AND ((([t0].[codetype] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = @p2)) OR (([t0].[codetype] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneNum] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t2].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5 Thanks!

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• Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

  - by Giffyguy

  I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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• How to set which version of the VC++ runtime Visual Studio 2005 targets

  - by TallGuy

  I have an application that contains a VC++ project (along with C# projects). Previously, (i.e. during the last year or so) when a build has been done, Visual Studio 2005 appears to be targeting the VC++ runtime version 8.0.50727.762. At least, that is what the Assembly.dll.intermediate.manifest file is telling me: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.762' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> This version number matches the Visual Studio 2005 version number. The application worked fine when deployed to the webserver. The sun was shining, the birds were singing and all was right with the world. Now something has changed. I don't know what - a security patch, an obscure Visual Studio setting or something. Now Visual Studio 2005 seems to be targeting the wrong version of the VC++ runtime: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.4053' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> When I deploy the application to the webserver, I get the dreaded This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B1) error. This problem occurs even when I recompile previous versions of the application. I can absolutely guarantee that nothing at all has changed in the solution - we zip up the entire contents of the solution as part of the build process and archive it. I have unzipped a number of these to a temp directory, verified that the previous manifest file refers to 8.0.50727.762, recompiled using exactly the same command at the command line and then verified that the new manifest file now refers to 8.0.50727.4053. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 Version 8.0.50727.762 (SP.050727-7600) and Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 77646-008-0000007-41610. Why would Visual Studio revert to a previous version of the VC++ runtime? How do I specify which version it should use? What is going wrong here?

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• Login function runs different between local and server

  - by quangnd

  Here is my check login function: protected bool checkLoginStatus(String email, String password) { bool loginStatus = false; bool status = false; try { Connector.openConn(); String str = "SELECT * FROM [User]"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(str, Connector.conn); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tblUser"); //check valid foreach (DataRow dr in ds.Tables[0].Rows) { if (email == dr["Email"].ToString() && password == Connector.base64Decode(dr["Password"].ToString())) { Session["login_status"] = true; Session["username"] = dr["Name"].ToString(); Session["userId"] = dr["UserId"].ToString(); status = true; break; } } } catch (Exception ex) { } finally { Connector.closeConn(); } return status; } And call it at my aspx page: String email = Login1.UserName.Trim(); String password = Login1.Password.Trim(); if (checkLoginStatus(email, password)) Response.Redirect(homeSite); else lblFailure.Text = "Invalid!"; I ran this page at localhost successful! When I published it to server, this function only can run if email and password correct! Other, error occured: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I tried open SQL Server 2008 Configuration Manager and enable SQL Server Browser service (Logon as:NT Authority/Local Service) but it stills error. (note: here is connection string of openConn() at Localhost (run on SQLEXpress 2005) connectionString="Data Source=MYLAPTOP\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=Spider_Vcms;Integrated Security=True" /> ) At server (run on SQL Server Enterprise 2008) connectionString="Data Source=SVR;Initial Catalog=Spider_Vcms;User Id=abc;password=123456;" /> anyone have an answer for my problem :( thanks a lot!

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• Various GPS Android Functionality Questions..

  - by Tyler

  Hello - I have a few questions (so far) with the the LocationManager on Android and GPS in general.. Feel free to answer any number of the questions below, and I appreciate your help in advance! (I noticed this stuff doesn't appear to be documented very well, so hopefully these questions will help others out too!) 1) I am using the following code, but I think there may be extra fluff in here that I do not need. Can you tell me if I can delete any of this? LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); LocationListener locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, locationListener); LocationProvider locationProvider = lm.getProvider("gps"); Location currentLocation = lm.getLastKnownLocation(locationProvider.getName()); 2) Is there a way to hold off on the last step (accessing "getLastKnownLocation" until after I am sure I have a GPS lock? What happens if this is called and GPS is still looking for signal? 3) MOST importantly, I want to ensure I have a GPS lock before I proceed to my next method, so is there a way to check to see if GPS is locked on and getLastKnownLocation is up to date? 4) Is there a way to 'shut down' the GPS listener once it does receive a lock and getLastKnownLocation is updated? I don't see a need to keep this running for my application once I have obtained a lock.. 5) Can you please confirm my assumption that "getLastKnownLocation" is updated frequently as the receiver moves? 6) In my code, I also have a class called "MyLocationListener" (code below) that I honestly just took from another example.. Is this actually needed? I assume this updates my location manager whenever the location changes, but it sure doesn't appear that there is much to the class itself! private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { //Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } }

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• NoSuchMessageException: No message found

  - by adisembiring

  Hi .... I try to learn Spring MVC 3.0 validation. but I got NoSuchMessageException: No message found under code 'name.required' for locale 'en_US' error message when form submted. I have create message.properties in src/message.properties and the content of that file is: name.required = User Name is required password.required = Password is required gender.required = Gender is required I have set ResourceBundleMessageSource in my app-servlet.xml <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource" p:basename="messages" /> My validator code is: @Component("registrationValidator") public class RegistrationValidator implements Validator { @Override public boolean supports(Class<?> clazz) { return RegistrationCommand.class.isAssignableFrom(clazz); } @Override public void validate(Object target, Errors errors) { RegistrationCommand registrationCommand = (RegistrationCommand) target; ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "name", "name.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "password", "password.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "gender", "gender.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "country", "country.required"); //ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmpty(errors, "community", "community.required"); ValidationUtils.rejectIfEmptyOrWhitespace(errors, "description", "description.required"); if (registrationCommand.getCommunity().length == 0) { errors.rejectValue("community", "community.required"); } } } and JSP Page is: <form:form commandName="registrationCommand"> <p class="name"> <label for="name">Name</label> <form:input path="name" /> <form:errors path="name" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="password"> <label for="password">Password</label> <form:password path="password" /> <form:errors path="password" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="gender"> <label>Gender</label> <form:radiobutton path="gender" value="M" label="M" /> <form:radiobutton path="gender" value="F" label="F" /> <form:errors path="gender" cssClass="error"></form:errors> </p> <p class="submit"> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form:form>

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• How to combine designable components with dependency injection

  - by Wim Coenen

  When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

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• Scrolling RelativeLayout- white border over part of the content

  - by Tanis.7x

  I have a fairly simply Fragment that adds a handful of colored ImageViews to a RelativeLayout. There are more images than can fit on screen, so I implemented some custom scrolling. However, When I scroll around, I see that there is an approximately 90dp white border overlapping part of the content right where the edges of the screen are before I scroll. It is obvious that the ImageViews are still being created and drawn properly, but they are being covered up. How do I get rid of this? I have tried: Changing both the RelativeLayout and FrameLayout to WRAP_CONTENT, FILL_PARENT, MATCH_PARENT, and a few combinations of those. Setting the padding and margins of both layouts to 0dp. Example: Fragment: public class MyFrag extends Fragment implements OnTouchListener { int currentX; int currentY; RelativeLayout container; final int[] colors = {Color.BLACK, Color.RED, Color.BLUE}; @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup fragContainer, Bundle savedInstanceState) { return inflater.inflate(R.layout.fragment_myfrag, null); } @Override public void onActivityCreated(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onActivityCreated(savedInstanceState); container = (RelativeLayout) getView().findViewById(R.id.container); container.setOnTouchListener(this); // Temp- Add a bunch of images to test scrolling for(int i=0; i<1500; i+=100) { for (int j=0; j<1500; j+=100) { int color = colors[(i+j)%3]; ImageView image = new ImageView(getActivity()); image.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER); image.setBackgroundColor(color); LayoutParams lp = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(100, 100); lp.setMargins(i, j, 0, 0); image.setLayoutParams(lp); container.addView(image); } } } @Override public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { switch (event.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: { currentX = (int) event.getRawX(); currentY = (int) event.getRawY(); break; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: { int x2 = (int) event.getRawX(); int y2 = (int) event.getRawY(); container.scrollBy(currentX - x2 , currentY - y2); currentX = x2; currentY = y2; break; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_UP: { break; } } return true; } } XML: <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" tools:context=".FloorPlanFrag"> <RelativeLayout android:id="@+id/container" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </FrameLayout>

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• ProgressDialog does not disappear after executing dismiss, hide or cancel?

  - by Martin

  Hello, I have an Overlay extension which has 2 dialogs as private attributes - one Dialog and one ProgressDialog. After clicking on the Overlay in the MapView, the Dialog object appears. When the user clicks a button in the Dialog it disappears and the ProgressDialog is shown. Simultaneously a background task is started by notifying a running Service. When the task is done, a method (buildingLoaded) in the Overlay object is called to switch the View and to dismiss the ProgressDialog. The View is being switched, the code is being run (I checked with the debugger) but the ProgressDialog is not dismissed. I also tried hide() and cancel() methods, but nothing works. Can somebody help me? Android version is 2.2 Here is the code: public class LODOverlay extends Overlay implements OnClickListener { private Dialog overlayDialog; private ProgressDialog progressDialog; .............. @Override public void onClick(View view) { ....... final Context ctx = view.getContext(); this.progressDialog = new ProgressDialog(ctx); ListView lv = new ListView(ctx); ArrayAdapter<String> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(ctx, R.layout.layerlist, names); lv.setAdapter(adapter); final LODOverlay obj = this; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { String name = ((TextView) view).getText().toString(); Intent getFloorIntent = new Intent(Map.RENDERER); getFloorIntent.putExtra("type", "onGetBuildingLayer"); getFloorIntent.putExtra("id", name); view.getContext().sendBroadcast(getFloorIntent); overlayDialog.dismiss(); obj.waitingForLayer = name; progressDialog.show(ctx, "Loading...", "Wait!!!"); } }); ....... } public void buildingLoaded(String id) { if (null != this.progressDialog) { if (id.equals(this.waitingForLayer)) { this.progressDialog.hide(); this.progressDialog.dismiss(); ............ Map.flipper.showNext(); // changes the view } } } }

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• dynamically generated pageview issue

  - by user203127

  hi, I have created dynamic tab function. When i create dynamic tab it will create pageview for that tab. But when i deleted that tab that pageview is not deleting. Can any one help me to fix this. using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; using Telerik.WebControls; using Telerik; public partial class Radstrip2 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label PageContent; protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Repeater BuildingSummary; protected Telerik.WebControls.PageView PageView1; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { Tab tab = new Tab(); tab.Text = string.Format("New Page {0}", 1); RadTabStrip1.Tabs.Add(tab); PageView pageView = new PageView(); RadMultiPage1.PageViews.Add(pageView); BuildPageViewContents(pageView, RadTabStrip1.Tabs.Count); RadTabStrip1.SelectedIndex = 0; } } private void BuildPageViewContents(PageView pageView, int index) { pageView.ID = "Page " + index.ToString(); pageView.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(" <B>New page</B>" + (index).ToString())); } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Tab tab = new Tab(); tab.Text = string.Format("New Page {0}", RadTabStrip1.Tabs.Count + 1); RadTabStrip1.Tabs.Add(tab); PageView pageView = new PageView(); pageView.ID = "Page " + pageView.Index.ToString(); RadMultiPage1.PageViews.Add(pageView); BuildPageViewContents(pageView, RadTabStrip1.Tabs.Count); RadTabStrip1.SelectedIndex = RadTabStrip1.SelectedIndex + 1; RadMultiPage1.SelectedIndex = RadTabStrip1.SelectedIndex; } protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Tab currentTab = RadTabStrip1.InnerMostSelectedTab; if (currentTab != null) { ITabContainer owner = currentTab.Owner; owner.Tabs.Remove(currentTab); //RadMultiPage1.PageViews.Remove(currentTab.PageView); if (owner.Tabs.Count > 0) { owner.SelectedIndex = 0; } } } protected void RadMultiPage1_PageViewItemCreated1(PageView view, int viewIndex) { BuildPageViewContents(view, viewIndex + 1); } }

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• Image rescale and write rescaled image file in blackberry

  - by Karthick

  I am using the following code to resize and save the file in to the blackberry device. After image scale I try to write image file into device. But it gives the same data. (Height and width of the image are same).I have to make rescaled image file.Can anyone help me ??? class ResizeImage extends MainScreen implements FieldChangeListener { private String path="file:///SDCard/BlackBerry/pictures/test.jpg"; private ButtonField btn; ResizeImage() { btn=new ButtonField("Write File"); btn.setChangeListener(this); add(btn); } public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if (field == btn) { try { InputStream inputStream = null; //Get File Connection FileConnection fileConnection = (FileConnection) Connector.open(path); if (fileConnection.exists()) { inputStream = fileConnection.openInputStream(); //byte data[]=inputStream.toString().getBytes(); ByteArrayOutputStream baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int j = 0; while((j=inputStream.read()) != -1) { baos.write(j); } byte data[] = baos.toByteArray(); inputStream.close(); fileConnection.close(); WriteFile("file:///SDCard/BlackBerry/pictures/org_Image.jpg",data); EncodedImage eImage = EncodedImage.createEncodedImage(data,0,data.length); int scaleFactorX = Fixed32.div(Fixed32.toFP(eImage.getWidth()), Fixed32.toFP(80)); int scaleFactorY = Fixed32.div(Fixed32.toFP(eImage.getHeight()), Fixed32.toFP(80)); eImage=eImage.scaleImage32(scaleFactorX, scaleFactorY); WriteFile("file:///SDCard/BlackBerry/pictures/resize.jpg",eImage.getData()); BitmapField bit=new BitmapField(eImage.getBitmap()); add(bit); } } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception is ==> "+e.getMessage()); } } } void WriteFile(String fileName,byte[] data) { FileConnection fconn = null; try { fconn = (FileConnection) Connector.open(fileName,Connector.READ_WRITE); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.print("Error opening file"); } if (fconn.exists()) try { fconn.delete(); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.print("Error deleting file"); } try { fconn.create(); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.print("Error creating file"); } OutputStream out = null; try { out = fconn.openOutputStream(); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.print("Error opening output stream"); } try { out.write(data); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.print("Error writing to output stream"); } try { fconn.close(); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.print("Error closing file"); } } }

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• Silverlight? WPF? or Windows Form?

  - by Amit

  After Silverlight 4.0 has been released with new WPF, I am kind of confused with these technologies: Silverlight? WPF? Windows Form? The main motive that we want to achieve for BIG business project is following: Performance Security And platform independent** If I consider all above three points then only Silverlight is the option as I don’t want people buying emulator on MacOS for WPF or Windows Form. Now how good the Silverlight is for Business applications, I was completely against when Silverlight 2.0 was in the market but now it is Silverlight 4.0 and they have provided many new features (but still basics) that is required in any challenging business applications. Comparing Silverlight and WPF -* Silverlight and WPF are very new technology and if I'd to compare from these two then I'd prefer WPF because it can be considered stable and mature. But it is not same as Windows Form. -* If I go with Silverlight then I am sure about keep updating to the latest version of Silverlight. I remembered when we were developing software for version 2.0 then we'd to create our own framework with dynamic loading DLL, and then Navigation concept. But everything was got changed once Silverlight 3.0 came. I don't want this to be happening with this new product. -* If we go with WPF then we don't get the platform independence. Now, why not we just focus on making WPF and then move to Silverlght. As someone (Tim?) from Microsoft has said that the idea is to make Silverlight as close as WPF. But if that is the case then why XAML structure is different; I will not be convinced with by saying that .Net framework for SL is too small.. well the difference is coming from the namespace ? I was searching on this subject and found "Microsoft WPF-Silverlight Comparison Whitepaper v1.1.pdf". This guide is very good that gives you ins-outs about how can we build common apps that runs on both. But again, it is comparing Silverlight 2 and not 4. I am sure many architect/ developers/ project managers must be facing similar kind of questions in their premises and wants to initiate this discussion, if it has not been :). We've still got 2 weeks to make this decision, so I'm expecting everyone to participate, gurus?

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• Container item implementation

  - by onurozcelik

  Hi, I am working in Train Traffic Controller software project. My responsibility in this project is to develop the visual railroad GUI. We are implementing the project with Qt. By now I am using QGraphicsLinearLayout to hold my items. I am using the layout because I do not want to calculate coordinates of each item. So far I wrote item classes to add the layout. For instance SwitchItem class symbolizes railroad switch in real world. Each item class is responsible for its own painting and events. So far so good. Now I need a composite item that can contain two or more item. This class is going to be responsible for painting the items contained in it. I need this class because I have to put two or more items inside same layout cell. If I don' t put them in same cell I can' t use layout. See the image below. BlockSegmentItem and SignalItem inside same cell. Here is my compositeitem implementation. #include "compositeitem.h" CompositeItem::CompositeItem(QString id,QList<FieldItem *> _children) { children = _children; } CompositeItem::~CompositeItem() { } QRectF CompositeItem::boundingRect() const { FieldItem *child; QRectF rect(0,0,0,0); foreach(child,children) { rect = rect.united(child->boundingRect()); } return rect; } void CompositeItem::paint(QPainter *painter, const QStyleOptionGraphicsItem *option, QWidget *widget ) { FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { child->paint(painter,option,widget); } } QSizeF CompositeItem::sizeHint(Qt::SizeHint which, const QSizeF &constraint) const { QSizeF itsSize(0,0); FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { // if its size empty set first child size to itsSize if(itsSize.isEmpty()) itsSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); else { QSizeF childSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); if(itsSize.width() < childSize.width()) itsSize.setWidth(childSize.width()); itsSize.setHeight(itsSize.height() + childSize.height()); } } return itsSize; } void CompositeItem::contextMenuEvent(QGraphicsSceneContextMenuEvent *event) { qDebug()<<"Test"; } This code works good with painting but when it comes to item events it is problematic. QGraphicsScene treats the composite item like a single item which is right for layout but not for events. Because each item has its own event implementation.(e.g. SignalItem has its special context menu event.) I have to handle item events seperately. Also I need a composite item implementation for the layout. How can I overcome this dilemma?

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