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  • Passing data between objects in Chain of Responsibility pattern

    - by AbrahamJP
    While implementing the Chain of Responsibility pattern, i came across a dilemma om how to pass data between objects in the chain. The datatypes passed between object in the chain can differ for each object. As a temporary fix I had created a Static class containing a stack where each object in the chain can push the results to the stack while the next object in the chain could pop the results from the stack. Here is a sample code on what I had implemented. public interface IHandler { void Process(); } public static class StackManager { public static Stack DataStack = new Stack(); } //This class doesn't require any input to operate public class OpsA : IHandler { public IHandler Successor {get; set; } public void Process() { //Do some processing, store the result into Stack var ProcessedData = DoSomeOperation(); StackManager.DataStack.Push(ProcessedData); if(Successor != null) Successor(); } } //This class require input data to operate upon public class OpsB : IHandler { public IHandler Successor {get; set; } public void Process() { //Retrieve the results from the previous Operation var InputData = StackManager.DataStack.Pop(); //Do some processing, store the result into Stack var NewProcessedData = DoMoreProcessing(InputData); StackManager.DataStack.Push(NewProcessedData); if(Successor != null) Successor(); } } public class ChainOfResponsibilityPattern { public void Process() { IHandler ProcessA = new OpsA(); IHandler ProcessB = new OpsB(); ProcessA.Successor = ProcessB; ProcessA.Process(); } } Please help me to find a better approach to pass data between handlers objects in the chain.

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  • Creation of Objects: Constructors or Static Factory Methods

    - by Rachel
    I am going through Effective Java and some of my things which I consider as standard are not suggested by the book, for instance creation of object, I was under the impression that constructors are the best way of doing it and books says we should make use of static factory methods, I am not able to few some advantages and so disadvantages and so am asking this question, here are the benefits of using it. Advantages: One advantage of static factory methods is that, unlike constructors, they have names. A second advantage of static factory methods is that, unlike constructors, they are not required to create a new object each time they’re invoked. A third advantage of static factory methods is that, unlike constructors, they can return an object of any subtype of their return type. A fourth advantage of static factory methods is that they reduce the verbosity of creating parameterized type instances. I am not able to understand this advantage and would appreciate if someone can explain this point Disadvantages: The main disadvantage of providing only static factory methods is that classes without public or protected constructors cannot be subclassed. A second disadvantage of static factory methods is that they are not readily distinguishable from other static methods.I am not getting this point and so would really appreciate some explanation. Reference: Effective Java, Joshua Bloch, Edition 2, pg: 5-10 Also, How to decide to use whether to go for Constructor or Static Factory Method for Object Creation ?

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  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

    - by Zviadi
    Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • SQL Query to duplicate records based on If statement

    - by user328371
    Hi, I'm trying to write an SQL query that will duplicate records depending on a field in another table. I am running mySQL 5. (I know duplicating records shows that the database structure is bad, but I did not design the database and am not in a position to redo it all - it's a shopp ecommerce database running on wordpress.) Each product with a particular attribute needs a link to the same few images, so the product will need a row per image in a table - the database doesn't actually contain the image, just its filename. (the images are of clipart for a customer to select from) Based on these records... SELECT * FROM `wp_shopp_spec` WHERE name='Can Be Personalised' and content='Yes' I want to do something like this.. For each record that matches that query, copy records 5134 - 5139 from wp_shopp_asset but change the id so it's unique and set the cell in column 'parent' to have the value of 'product' from the table wp_shopp_spec. This will mean 6 new records are created for each record matching the above query, all with the same value in 'parent' but with unique ids and every other column copied from the original (ie. records 5134-5139) Hope that's clear enough - any help greatly appreciated.

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  • iPhone: detect "touch-and-drag" gesture from UIBarButtonItem?

    - by Greg Maletic
    I have an "add" button that's represented by a UIBarButtonItem. Hitting the "add" button adds an object into a list that represents a moment in time. By default, that time is "now"...but I'd like to be able to use dragging behavior to let the user specify earlier times for the object. Here's the behavior I want to implement: If the user touches on the UIBarButtonItem and lets go quickly, an object is added to the list that represents "now." If the user touches on the UIBarButtonItem and drags, a little UI pops up that shows the time that the distance of their drag represents. The further they drag, the further back in time their touch will represent. When they let go, the object representing an earlier time will get added to the list. (Though the description of the behavior is complicated, I'm convinced this will be pretty intuitive for users of the app.) I haven't implemented code for anything but the most simple touches in the past, and I'm at a loss as to the best way to try this. Does anyone have any suggestions, or could point me towards some sample code that implements something like this? Thanks very much.

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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  • C# parameter count mismatch when trying to add AsyncCallback into BeginInvoke()

    - by PunX
    I have main form (PrenosForm) and I am trying to run Form2 asynchronously. It works without callback delegate: this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, null); //works 1. Doesn't work with callback delegate (parameter count mismatch): this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //doesn't work parameter count mismatch 2. Works with callback delegate if I do it like this: cp.BeginInvoke(datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //works 3. My question is why does one way work and the other doesn't? I'm new at this. Would anyone be so kind as to answer my question and point out my mistakes? private delegate void copyDelegat(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, string path, PrenosForm forma, DragDropEffects efekt); private delegate void callBackDelegat(IAsyncResult a); public void doCopy(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, string path, PrenosForm forma, DragDropEffects efekt) { new Form2(datoteke, path, forma, efekt); } public void callBackFunc(IAsyncResult a) { AsyncResult res = a.AsyncState as AsyncResult; copyDelegat delegat = res.AsyncDelegate as copyDelegat; delegat.EndInvoke(a); } public void kopiraj(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, DragDropEffects efekt) { copyDelegat cp = new copyDelegat(doCopy); callBackDelegat callBackDelegate = new callBackDelegat(callBackFunc); this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //doesn't work parameter count missmatch 2. this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, null); //works 1. cp.BeginInvoke(datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //works 3. }

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  • Converting to a column oriented array in Java

    - by halfwarp
    Although I have Java in the title, this could be for any OO language. I'd like to know a few new ideas to improve the performance of something I'm trying to do. I have a method that is constantly receiving an Object[] array. I need to split the Objects in this array through multiple arrays (List or something), so that I have an independent list for each column of all arrays the method receives. Example: List<List<Object>> column-oriented = new ArrayList<ArrayList<Object>>(); public void newObject(Object[] obj) { for(int i = 0; i < obj.length; i++) { column-oriented.get(i).add(obj[i]); } } Note: For simplicity I've omitted the initialization of objects and stuff. The code I've shown above is slow of course. I've already tried a few other things, but would like to hear some new ideas. How would you do this knowing it's very performance sensitive?

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

    - by NobleK
    Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

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  • Why can I call a non-const member function pointer from a const method?

    - by sdg
    A co-worker asked about some code like this that originally had templates in it. I have removed the templates, but the core question remains: why does this compile OK? #include <iostream> class X { public: void foo() { std::cout << "Here\n"; } }; typedef void (X::*XFUNC)() ; class CX { public: explicit CX(X& t, XFUNC xF) : object(t), F(xF) {} void execute() const { (object.*F)(); } private: X& object; XFUNC F; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { X x; const CX cx(x,&X::foo); cx.execute(); return 0; } Given that CX is a const object, and its member function execute is const, therefore inside CX::execute the this pointer is const. But I am able to call a non-const member function through a member function pointer. Are member function pointers a documented hole in the const-ness of the world? What (presumably obvious to others) issue have we missed?

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  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

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  • How to keep activity on Force Close?

    - by SushiRoll
    I have this piece of code that's really prone to errors so I wrapped it with try{}catch statement. I don't want to go back to the previous activity, I just want it to stay on the current activity so that the user can edit whatever is wrong with them. How do I implement this? try{ orgi.insertOrThrow(tableName, null, values); Toast.makeText(this, "You have successfully created a new profile!", 2).show(); gotoProfileList(); Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(),"Successfully added to database"); }catch(SQLiteException se){ Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "Database connection failed!" + se); //Stay in this activity... }finally{ if (orgi != null){ orgi.close(); } } Forget it, I was able to solve my own problem by showing up an alertDialog that tells the user about the error. Thanks anyways. :) try{ orgi.insertOrThrow(tableName, null, values); Toast.makeText(this, "You have successfully created a new profile!", 2).show(); gotoProfileList(); Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(),"Successfully added to database"); }catch(SQLiteException se){ Log.e(getClass().getSimpleName(), "Database connection failed!" + se); displayError(); //stayInThisActivity(); }finally{ if (orgi != null){ orgi.close(); } public void displayError(){ AlertDialog.Builder error = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); error.setMessage("That profile name already exists, try another one.").setCancelable(false).setPositiveButton("Yes",new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { dialog.cancel(); } }); AlertDialog alert = error.create(); alert.setTitle("Error"); alert.show(); }

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  • Archiver Securing SQLite Data without using Encryption on iPhone

    - by Redrocks
    I'm developing an iphone app that uses Core Data with a SQLite data store and lots of images in the resource bundle. I want a "simple" way to obfuscate the file structure of the SQLite database and the image files to prevent the casual hacker/unscrupulous developer from gaining access to them. When the app is deployed, the database file and image files would be obfuscated. Upon launching the app it would read in and un-obfuscate the database file, write the un-obfuscated version to the users "tmp" directory for use by core data, and read/un-obfuscate image files as needed. I'd like to apply a simple algorithm to the files that would somehow scramble/manipulate the file data so that the sqlite database data isn't discernible when the db is opened in a text editor and so that neither is recognized by other applications (SQLite Manager, Photoshop, etc.) It seems, from the information I've read, that I could use NSFileManager, NSKeyedArchiver, and NSData to accomplish this but I'm not sure how to proceed. Been developing software for many years but I'm new to everything CocoaTouch, Mac and iPhone. Also never had to secure/encrypt my data so this is new. Any thoughts, suggestions, or links to solutions are appreciated.

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  • Problems with objectatasource,giving attributes like delete insert and update

    - by kamal
    After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

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  • Should I Use Anchor, Button Or Form Submit For "Follow" Feature In Rails

    - by James
    I am developing an application in Rails 3 using a nosql database. I am trying to add a "Follow" feature similar to twitter or github. In terms of markup, I have determined that there are three ways to do this. 1) Use a regular anchor. (Github Uses This Method) <a href="/users/follow?target=Joe">Follow</a> 2) Use a button. (Twitter Uses This Method) <button href="/friendships/create/">Follow</button> 3) Use a form with a submit button. (Has some advantages for me, but I haven't see anyone do it yet.) <form method="post" id="connection_new" class="connection_new" action="/users/follow"> <input type="hidden" value="60d7b563355243796dd8496e17d36329" name="target" id="target"> <input type="submit" value="Follow" name="commit" id="connection_submit"> </form> Since I want to store the user_id in the database and not the username, options 1 and 2 will force me to do a database query to get the actual user_id, whereas option 3 will allow me to store the user_id in a hidden form field so that I don't have to do any database lookups. I can just get the id from the params hash on form submission. I have successfully got each of these methods working, but I would like to know what is the best way to do this. Which way is more semantic, secure, better for spiders, etc...? Is there a reason both twitter and github don't use forms to do this? Any guidance would be appreciated. I am leaning towards using the form method since then I don't have to query the db to get the id of the user, but I am worried that there must be a reason the big guys are just using anchors or buttons for this. I am a newb so go easy on me if I am totally missing something. Thanks!

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  • Intermittent Issue Writing to Google Appengine Datastore

    - by user242153
    Hi, I have a functioning app and recently have had intermittent problems writing to the datastore. I did not make any relevant code changes, however in the last few days my attempts to write to the datastore sometimes work and sometimes don't. I am trying to save an object that is in a many to one relationship with an existing persisted parent. So, the logic works like this: 1) Parent pulled from the datastore 2) Child created / instantiated using constructor 3) Parent.addSingleChild(child); // the "addSingleChild" method just adds the object argument to the collection of children 4) child.setParent(Parent); // sets the Parent object to the parent field I am using transactions as explained in the documentation ending with "finally {if (tx.isActive()) {tx.rollback(); } }" When the servlet is called, the parent is called from the datastore and the child object is created and added to the many to one mapping to the pre-existing parent. The child should automatically be persisted, since the parent is already persistent, and the child is added to the collection of children that map to the parent. And it worked this way in the past. However, to be sure, i did add a pm.makePersistent(child). Doesn't seem to help, still have the intermittent problem. Any suggestions would be appreciated, and if you need to see the actual code I can post. Thanks

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  • php class scope when calling a non-method function not accessing all class members

    - by Aglystas
    So I'm using a stand alone function from within a class that that uses the class it's being called from. Here's the function function catalogProductLink($product_id,$product_name,$categories=true) { //This is the class that the function is called from global $STATE; if ($categories) { //The $STATE->category_id is the property I want to access, which I can't if (is_array($STATE->category_id)) { foreach($STATE->category_id as $cat_id) { if ($cat_id == 0) continue; $str .= "c$cat_id/"; } } } $str .= catalogUrlKeywords($product_name).'-p'.$product_id.'.html'; return $str; } And here's the function call, which is being made from within the $STATE class. $redirect = catalogProductLink($this->product_id, $tempProd->product_name, true, false); The object that I need access to is the $STATE object that has been declared global. Prior to this function call there are lots of public properties populated, but when I look at the $STATE object within the function scope it loses all the properties but one, product_id. The property that matters for this function is the category_id property, which is an array of category id's. I'm wondering why I don't have access to all the public properties of the $STATE object and how I can get access to them.

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  • MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

    - by Eric G
    I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

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  • safe placement new & explicit destructor call

    - by uray
    this is an example of my codes: ` template <typename T> struct MyStruct { T object; } template <typename T> class MyClass { MyStruct<T>* structPool; size_t structCount; MyClass(size_t count) { this->structCount = count; this->structPool = new MyStruct<T>[count]; for( size_t i=0 ; i<count ; i++ ) { //placement new to call constructor new (&this->structPool[i].object) T(); } } ~MyClass() { for( size_t i=0 ; i<this->structCount ; i++ ) { //explicit destructor call this->structPool[i].object.~T(); } delete[] this->structPool; } } ` my question is, is this a safe way to do? do I make some hidden mistake at some condition? will it work for every type of object (POD and non-POD) ?

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