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ResolveUrl Problem in Master Page

- by Tarik

Okay, I know it is weird but when I put this code between <head runat="server"></head> in master.page, this is how it renders into: <link id="ctl00_Link1" rel="shortcut icon" href="../%3C%25%20ResolveUrl(%22~/Resources/Pictures/Shared/Misc/favicon.ico%22);%20%25%3E" type="image/x-icon" /> It doesn't see something asp.net needs to take care of. This is the original code : <link id="Link1" rel="shortcut icon" href='<%=ResolveUrl("~/Resources/Pictures/Shared/Misc/favicon.ico") %>' type="image/x-icon" runat="server" /> Basically Asp.Net doesn't take care of the code below and renders as a normal html. How can I get over this problem? Thanks in advance... Edit and Resolved Okay people, there is no way for doing this. I've finally figured out because ResolveUrl or ResolveClientUrl is only working for these below : @import '<%= ResolveUrl("~/Resources/Styles/MainMaster/MainDesign.css") %>'; <script src='Resources/Scripts/Libraries/jquery-1.4.2.js' type="text/javascript"</script> it is too literal for link so you need to put link elements in body tag like : <body> <link id="iconOne" rel="shortcut icon" type="image/x-icon" href="Resources/Pictures/Shared/Misc/favicon.ico"/> <link id="iconTwo" rel="icon" href='Resources/Pictures/Shared/Misc/favicon.ico' type="image/ico" /> </body>

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Broken tables in RichTextBox control (word wrap)

- by Ben Robbins

We are having problems with the Windows.Forms.RichTextBox control in Visual Studio 2008. We are trying to display text supplied as an RTF file by a 3rd party in a windows forms application (.NET 3.5). In this RTF text file there are tables, which contain text that spans multiple lines. The RTF file displays correctly when opened with either WordPad or Word 2003. However, when we load the RTF file into the RichTextBox control, or copy & paste the whole text (including the table) into the control, the table does not display correctly - the cells are only single line, without wrapping. Here are links to images showing the exact problem: Correctly displayed in WordPad Incorrectly displayed in RichTextBox control I have googled for solutions and 3rd party .net RTF controls without success. I have found this exact problem asked on another forum without an answer (in fact that's where the link to the images come from) so I'm hoping stack overflow does better ;-) My preferred solution would be to use code or a 3rd party control that can correctly render the RTF. However, I suspect the problem is that the RichTextBox control only supports a subset of the full RTF spec, so another option would be to modify the RTF directly to remove the unsupported control codes or otherwise fix the RTF file itself (in which case any information as to what control codes need to be removed or modified would be a huge help).

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Webservice complex types and class inheritance

- by pygorex1

Using the following Webservice definition using aClientArgs as a complex type: [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class Controller : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public void save_client(aClientArgs client) { // Save client data } } Then defining aClientArgs as a sub-class: public class aArgs { public string id = null; public string name = null; } public class aClientArgs : aArgs { public string address = null; public string website = null; } Returns the following WSDL fragment for the save_client args: <save_client xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <client> <address>string</address> <website>string</website> </client> </save_client> When I'm expecting the following: <save_client xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <client> <id>string</id> <name>string</name> <address>string</address> <website>string</website> </client> </save_client> So it appears that the .NET WebService is not treating inherited properties as arguments/variables for purposes of a web service. How do I get .NET to also use the properties of the base class?

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How to use SSL3 instead of TLS in a particular HttpWebRequest?

- by Anton Tykhyy

My application has to talk to different hosts over https, and the default setting of ServicePointManager.SecurityProtocol = TLS served me well up to this day. Now I have some hosts which (as System.Net trace log shows) don't answer the initial TLS handshake message but keep the underlying connection open until it times out, throwing a timeout exception. I tried setting HttpWebRequest's timeout to as much as 5mins, with the same result. Presumably these hosts are waiting for an SSL3 handshake since both IE and Firefox are able to connect to these hosts after a 30-40 seconds' delay. There seems to be some fallback mechanism in .NET which degrades TLS to SSL3, but it doesn't kick in for some reason. FWIW, here's the handshake message my request is sending: 00000000 : 16 03 01 00 57 01 00 00-53 03 01 4C 12 39 B4 F9 : ....W...S..L.9.. 00000010 : A3 2C 3D EE E1 2A 7A 3E-D2 D6 0D 2E A9 A8 6C 03 : .,=..*z>......l. 00000020 : E7 8F A3 43 0A 73 9C CE-D7 EE CF 00 00 18 00 2F : ...C.s........./ 00000030 : 00 35 00 05 00 0A C0 09-C0 0A C0 13 C0 14 00 32 : .5.............2 00000040 : 00 38 00 13 00 04 01 00-00 12 00 0A 00 08 00 06 : .8.............. 00000050 : 00 17 00 18 00 19 00 0B-00 02 01 00 : ............ Is there a way to use SSL3 instead of TLS in a particular HttpWebRequest, or force a fallback? It seems that ServicePointManager's setting is global, and I'd really hate to have to degrade the security protocol setting to SSL3 for the whole application.

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Integrating a Custom Compiler with the Visual Studio IDE

- by M.A. Hanin

Background: I want to create a custom VB compiler, extending the "original" compiler, to handle my custom compile-time attributes. Question: after I've created my custom compiler and I've got an executable file capable of compiling VB code via the standard command-line interface, how do I integrate this compiler with the Visual Studio IDE? (such that pressing "compile" or "build" will make use of my compiler instead of the default compiler). EDIT: (Correct me if i'm wrong) From the reactions here, I see this question is a bit shocking, so I shall further explain my needs and background: .NET provides us with a great mechanism called Attributes. As far as I understand, making attributes apply their intended behavior upon the attributed element (assembly, module, class, method, etc.) - attributes must be reflected upon. So the real trick here is reflecting and applying behavior at the right spot. Lets take Serialization for example: We decorate a class with the Serializable attribute. We then pass an instance of the class to the formatter's Serialize method. The formatter reflects upon the instance, checking if it has the Serializable attribute, and acting accordingly. Now, if we examine the Synchronization, Flags, Obsolete and CLSCompliant attributes, then the real question is: who reflects upon them? At least in some cases, it has to be the compiler (and/or IDE). Therefore, it seems that if I wish to create custom attributes that change an element's behavior regardless of any specific consumer, i must extend the compiler to reflect upon them at compilation. Of course, these are not my personal insights: the book "Applied .NET Attributes" provides a complete example of creating a custom attribute and a custom C# compiler to reflect upon that attribute at compilation (the example is used to implement "java-style checked exceptions").

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Send HTTP 404 from Application_Error

- by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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Missing line number in stack trace eventhough the PDB files are included

- by Farzad

This is running me nuts. I have this web service implemented w/ C# using VS 2008. I publish it on IIS. I have modified the release build so the pdb files are copied along with the dlls into the target directory on inetpub. Also web.config file has debug=true. Then I call a web service that throws an exception. The stack trace does not contain the line numbers. I have no idea what I am missing here, any ideas? Additional Info: If I run the web app using VS built-in web server, it works and I get line numbers in stack trace. But if I copy the same files (pdb and dll) that the VS built-in web server is using to IIS, still the line numbers are missing in stack trace. It seems that there is something related to the IIS that ignores the pdb files! Update When I publish to IIS, all the pdb files are published under the bin directory and everything looks fine. But when I go to "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" under the specific directory related to my project, I can see that the assembly (.dll) files are all there, but there is no pdb files. But this does not happen if I run the project using VS built-in web server. So if I copy the pdb files manually to the temp folder, I can see the line numbers. Any idea why the pdb files are not copied to the temp folder? BTW, when I attach to the worker process I can see that it says Symbols loaded!

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Recommended (remote) backup technique for SQL Compact?

- by Cool Jon

Hello. Is there a generally recommended approach to backing up an SQL CE/SQLite database over the Internet? The client source is .NET/Windows based, the backup destination runs Ubuntu. I am using a small SQL CE database and have been trying to figure out the most reasonable approach to doing this. The file size (in terms of transfer time/bandwidth) isn't a big deal. I had a look around, and so far the things I've given thought are: Online backup services (Dropbox, Mozy) Opening an FTP/SFTP connection Writing a custom protocol with public/private keys Unsure regarding #1 because I doubt they would like it if somebody transferred gigabytes of data using a POST; and they do not seem to offer native (or .NET) APIs. FTP/SFTP seems risky in terms of security and privileges (as the password/key would need to be stored on the client side). With the right user group/user privileges this may work. Custom protocol seems overkill, which is why I am hoping somebody has already defined a reasonable API for language/platform-independent backups over the Internet. Any hints S.O.?

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Setting up a "cookieless domain" to improve site performance

- by Django Reinhardt

I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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Weird error running com-exposed assembly

- by Bernabé Panarello

I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

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How to determine the (natural) language of a document?

- by Robert Petermeier

I have a set of documents in two languages: English and German. There is no usable meta information about these documents, a program can look at the content only. Based on that, the program has to decide which of the two languages the document is written in. Is there any "standard" algorithm for this problem that can be implemented in a few hours' time? Or alternatively, a free .NET library or toolkit that can do this? I know about LingPipe, but it is Java Not free for "semi-commercial" usage This problem seems to be surprisingly hard. I checked out the Google AJAX Language API (which I found by searching this site first), but it was ridiculously bad. For six web pages in German to which I pointed it only one guess was correct. The other guesses were Swedish, English, Danish and French... A simple approach I came up with is to use a list of stop words. My app already uses such a list for German documents in order to analyze them with Lucene.Net. If my app scans the documents for occurrences of stop words from either language the one with more occurrences would win. A very naive approach, to be sure, but it might be good enough. Unfortunately I don't have the time to become an expert at natural-language processing, although it is an intriguing topic.

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A generic error in GDI+ with ToolStrip in ManagerRenderMode

- by volody

I have a vb.net form with ToolStrip menu RenderMode - ManagerRenderMode LayoutStyle - HorizontalStackWithOverflow My development environment is .net 4.0, VS2010, windows 7 x64; but occasionally I am getting next error A generic error occurred in GDI+. Stacktrace: at System.Drawing.Graphics.CheckErrorStatus(Int32 status) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Int32 x, Int32 y, Int32 width, Int32 height) at System.Drawing.Graphics.FillRectangle(Brush brush, Rectangle rect) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.FillWithDoubleGradient(Color beginColor, Color middleColor, Color endColor, Graphics g, Rectangle bounds, Int32 firstGradientWidth, Int32 secondGradientWidth, LinearGradientMode mode, Boolean flipHorizontal) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.RenderToolStripBackgroundInternal(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripProfessionalRenderer.OnRenderToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripRenderer.DrawToolStripBackground(ToolStripRenderEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.OnPaintBackground(PaintEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PaintWithErrorHandling(PaintEventArgs e, Int16 layer) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmPaint(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ToolStrip.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam)

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LINQ compiled query DataBind issue

- by Brian

Hello All, I have a pretty extensive reporting page that uses LINQ. There is one main function that returns an IQueryable object. I then further filter / aggregate the returned query depending on the report the user needs. I changed this function to a compiled query, it worked great, and the speed increase was astonishing. The only problem comes when i want to databind the results. I am databinding to a standard asp.net GridView and it works fine, no problems. I am also databinding to an asp.net chart control, this is where my page is throwing an error. this works well: GridView gv = new GridView(); gv.DataSource = gridSource; But this does not: Series s1 = new Series("Series One"); s1.Points.DataBindXY(gridSource, "Month", gridSource, "Success"); The error i receive is this: System.NotSupportedException Specified method is not supported When i look into my gridSource var at run time i see this using a typical linq query: SELECT [t33].[value2] AS [Year], [t33].[value22] AS [Month], [t33].[value3] AS [Calls]...... I see this after i change the query to compiled: {System.Linq.OrderedEnumerable<<>f__AnonymousType15<string,int,int,int,int,int,int,int>,string>} This is obviously the reason why the databindxy is no longer working, but i am not sure how to get around it. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks

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Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

- by Keith Barrows

I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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automated email downloading and treading similar messages

- by Michael

Okay here it is : I have built an c# console app that downloads email, save attachments , and stores the subject, from, to, body to a MS SQL Database. I use aspNetPOP3 Component to do this. I have build a front end ASP.NET application to search and view the messages. Works great. Next Steps (this is where I need help ): Now I want my users (of the asp.net app) to reply to this message send the email to the originator, and tread any additional replies back and forth on from that original message(like basecamp). This would allow my end user not to have to log-in to a system, they just continue using email (our users can as well). The question is what should I use to determine if messages are related? Subject line I think is a bad approach. I believe the best method i've seen so far is way basecamp does it, but I'm not sure how that is done, here is a real example of the reply to address from a basecamp email (I've changed the host name): [email protected] Basecamp obviously are prefixing the pre-pending a tracking id to the email address, however , when I try this with my mail service, it's rejected. Is this the best approach, is there a way I can accomplish this, is there a better approach, or even a better email component tool? Thanks, Mike

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User roles - why not store in session?

- by Phil

I'm porting an ASP.NET application to MVC and need to store two items relating to an authenitcated user: a list of roles and a list of visible item IDs, to determine what the user can or cannot see. We've used WSE with a web service in the past and this made things unbelievably complex and impossible to debug properly. Now we're ditching the web service I was looking foward to drastically simplifying the solution simply to store these things in the session. A colleague suggested using the roles and membership providers but on looking into this I've found a number of problems: a) It suffers from similar but different problems to WSE in that it has to be used in a very constrained way maing it tricky even to write tests; b) The only caching option for the RolesProvider is based on cookies which we've rejected on security grounds; c) It introduces no end of complications and extra unwanted baggage; All we want to do, in a nutshell, is store two string variables in a user's session or something equivalent in a secure way and refer to them when we need to. What seems to be a ten minute job has so far taken several days of investigation and to compound the problem we have now discovered that session IDs can apparently be faked, see http://blogs.sans.org/appsecstreetfighter/2009/06/14/session-attacks-and-aspnet-part-1/ I'm left thinking there is no easy way to do this very simple job, but I find that impossible to believe. Could anyone: a) provide simple information on how to make ASP.NET MVC sessions secure as I always believed they were? b) suggest another simple way to store these two string variables for a logged in user's roles etc. without having to replace one complex nightmare with another as described above? Thank you.

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NAnt not running NUnit tests

- by ctford

I'm using NUnit 2.5 and NAnt 0.85 to compile a .NET 3.5 library. Because NAnt 0.85 doesn't support .NET 3.5 out of the box, I've added an entry for the 3.5 framework to NAnt.exe.config. 'MyLibrary' builds, but when I hit the "test" target to execute the NUnit tests, none of them seem to run. [nunit2] Tests run: 0, Failures: 0, Not run: 0, Time: 0.012 seconds Here are the entries in my NAnt.build file for the building and running the tests: <target name="build_tests" depends="build_core"> <mkdir dir="Target" /> <csc target="library" output="Target\Test.dll" debug="true"> <references> <include name="Target\MyLibrary.dll"/> <include name="Libraries\nunit.framework.dll"/> </references> <sources> <include name="Test\**\*.cs" /> </sources> </csc> </target> <target name="test" depends="build_tests"> <nunit2> <formatter type="Plain" /> <test assemblyname="Target\Test.dll" /> </nunit2> </target> Is there some versioning issue I need to be aware of? Test.dll runs fine in the NUnit GUI. The testing dll is definitely being found, because if I move it I get the following error: Failure executing test(s). If you assembly is not build using NUnit 2.2.8.0... Could not load file or assembly 'Test' or one of its dependencies... I would be grateful if anyone could point me in the right direction or describe a similary situation they have encountered. Edit I have since tried it with NAnt 0.86 beta 1, and the same problem occurs.

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Parent Control Mouse Enter/Leave Events With Child Controls

- by Paul Williams

I have a C# .NET 2.0 WinForms app. My app has a control that is a container for two child controls: a label, and some kind of edit control. You can think of it like this, where the outer box is the parent control: +---------------------------------+ | [Label Control] [Edit Control] | +---------------------------------+ I am trying to do something when the mouse enters or leaves the parent control, but I don't care if the mouse moves into one of its children. I want a single flag to represent "the mouse is somewhere inside the parent or children" and "the mouse has moved outside of the parent control bounds". I've tried handling MouseEnter and MouseLeave on the parent and both child controls, but this means the action begins and ends multiple times as the mouse moves across the control. In other words, I get this: Parent.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Parent.OnMouseLeave (stop) Child.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Child.OnMouseLeave (stop) Parent.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Parent.OnMouseLeave (stop) The intermediate OnMouseLeave events cause some undesired effects as whatever I'm doing gets started and then stopped. I want to avoid that. I don't want to capture the mouse as the parent gets the mouse over, because the child controls need their mouse events, and I want menu and other shortcut keys to work. Is there a way to do this inside the .NET framework? Or do I need to use a Windows mouse hook?

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Windows Service Conundrum

- by Paul Johnson

All, I have a Custom object which I have written using VB.NET (.net 2.0). The object instantiates its own threading.timer object and carries out a number of background process including periodic interrogation of an oracle database and delivery of emails via smtp according to data detected in the database. The following is the code implemented in the windows service class Public Class IncidentManagerService 'Fakes Private _fakeRepoFactory As IRepoFactory Private _incidentRepo As FakeIncidentRepo Private _incidentDefinitionRepo As FakeIncidentDefinitionRepo Private _incManager As IncidentManager.Session 'Real Private _started As Boolean = False Private _repoFactory As New NHibernateRepoFactory Private _psalertsEventRepo As IPsalertsEventRepo = _repoFactory.GetPsalertsEventRepo() Protected Overrides Sub OnStart(ByVal args() As String) ' Add code here to start your service. This method should set things ' in motion so your service can do its work. If Not _started Then Startup() _started = True End If End Sub Protected Overrides Sub OnStop() 'Tear down class variables in order to ensure the service stops cleanly _incManager.Dispose() _incidentDefinitionRepo = Nothing _incidentRepo = Nothing _fakeRepoFactory = Nothing _repoFactory = Nothing End Sub Private Sub Startup() Dim incidents As IList(Of Incident) = Nothing Dim incidentFactory As New IncidentFactory incidents = IncidentFactory.GetTwoFakeIncidents _repoFactory = New NHibernateRepoFactory _fakeRepoFactory = New FakeRepoFactory(incidents) _incidentRepo = _fakeRepoFactory.GetIncidentRepo _incidentDefinitionRepo = _fakeRepoFactory.GetIncidentDefinitionRepo 'Start an incident manager session _incManager = New IncidentManager.Session(_incidentRepo, _incidentDefinitionRepo, _psalertsEventRepo) _incManager.Start() End Sub End Class After a little bit of experimentation I arrived at the above code in the OnStart method. All functionality passed testing when deployed from VS2005 on my development PC, however when deployed on a true target machine, the service would not start and responds with the following message: "The service on local computer started and then stopped..." Am I going about this the correct way? If not how can I best implement my incident manager within the confines of the Windows Service class. It seems pointless to implement a timer for the incidentmanager because this already implements its own timer... Any assistance much appreciated. Kind Regards Paul J.

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How to display value in the SimpleModal's dialog?

- by bhsstudio

Hi, my question is really simple. I have a asp.net button. I can use it to call the simpleModal and have a dialog displayed. Now, I added a label control in the dialog, and would like this label to display some value. What should I do? Here is my codes $('#<%= btnOpen.ClientID %>').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#content').modal({ onOpen: function(dialog) { dialog.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function() { dialog.data.hide(); dialog.container.fadeIn('slow', function() { dialog.data.slideDown('slow'); }); }); }, onClose: function(dialog) { dialog.data.fadeOut('slow', function() { dialog.container.slideUp('slow', function() { dialog.overlay.fadeOut('slow', function() { $.modal.close(); // must call this! }); }); }); } }); e.preventDefault(); // return false; }); <asp:Button ID="btnOpen" runat="server" Text="ASP.NET Open"/> <div id="content" style="display: none;"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text=""></asp:Label> </div>

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QueryString malformed after URLDecode

- by pdavis

I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

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WCF identity when moving from dev to prod. environment

- by Anders Abel

I have a web service developed with WCF. In the development environment the endpoint has the following identity section under the endpoint configuration. <identity> <dns value="myservice.devdomain.local" /> </identity> myservice.devdomain.local is the dns name used to reach the development version of the service. The binding used is: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name ="myBinding"> <security mode ="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> I am about to put this into production. The binding will be the same, but the address will be a new production address myservice.proddomain.local. I have planned to change the dns value in the configuration to myservice.proddomain.local in the production environment. However this MSDN article on WCF Identity makes me worried about the impact on the clients when I change the identity. There are two clients - one .NET and one Java using this service. Both of those have been developed against the dev instance of the service. The idea is to just reconfigure the endpoint used by the clients, without reloading the WSDL. But if the identity is somehow part of the WSDL and the identity changes when deploying to prod that might not work. Will the new identity in the prod version cause issues for the clients that were developed using the dev wsdl? Do the Java and the .NET clients handle this differently?

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Translate an exception into 404 from Application_Error

- by Dmitriy Nagirnyak

Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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Mysterious socket / HttpWebRequest timeouts

- by Daniel Mošmondor

I have a great app for capturing shoutcast streams :-) . So far, it worked with a charm on dozens of machines, and never exhibited behaviour I found now, which is ultimately very strange. I use HttpWebRequest to connect to the shoutcast server and when I connect two streams, everything's OK. When I go for third one, response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); throws with Connection Timeout exception. WTF? I must point out that I had to create .config for the application in order to allow my headers to be sent out from the application, otherwise it wouldn't work at all. Here it is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.net> <settings> <httpWebRequest useUnsafeHeaderParsing = "true" /> </settings> </system.net> </configuration> Does any of this ring a bell?

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Application connection with database persist after sucessfull transaction also.

- by anupam3m

Hi , I am using Spring.Data.NHibernate12 on my database level.my application connection with database is not getting released. Underneath given is Dataconfiguration.xml < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net" xmlns:db="http://www.springframework.net/database" < object id="AuditLogger" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit.AuditLogger, Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit" singleton="false" < property name="CacheSettings" ref="CacheSettings"/ < /object < object id="CacheSettings" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities.UpdateEntityCacheHelper, Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities" singleton="false"/ < object type="Spring.Objects.Factory.Config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, Spring.Core" < <property name="ConfigSections" value="databaseSettings"/> < < db:provider id="AMACDbProvider" provider="OracleClient-2.0" connectionString="Data Source=RISCODEVDB;User ID=amsbvt; Password=amsuser1234;"/ Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.Mapping Risco.Rsp.Ac.Logging.Appenders Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMappings --

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