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• Ibator didn't generate Oracle varchar2 field

  - by bugbug

  I have table APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE with following fields: "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "TRACK_NO" VARCHAR2(20 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "REQ_DATE" DATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "OFFCODE" CHAR(6 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "COMPARE_CASE_ID" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "VEHICLE_NAME" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "ENGINE_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "BODY_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "HOLD_SHIP" NUMBER, "OWNERSHIP" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "RENT_NAME" VARCHAR2(200 BYTE), "CONTRACT" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_NO" VARCHAR2(100 BYTE), "CONTRACT_DATE" DATE, "ISLAWBREAKERRENT" CHAR(1 BYTE) NOT NULL ENABLE, "MISTAKE_DETAIL" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "COMPARE_REASON" VARCHAR2(4000 BYTE), "CREATE_BY" NUMBER NOT NULL ENABLE, "CREATE_ON" DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL ENABLE, "UPDATE_BY" NUMBER, "UPDATE_ON" DATE, When I generate a java bean using Ibator , I didn't find trackNo, VehicalName, ... (all fields defined as varchar2). What is the problem in my case? Here is my Ibator configuration file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE ibatorConfiguration PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Apache iBATIS Ibator Configuration 1.0//EN" "http://ibatis.apache.org/dtd/ibator-config_1_0.dtd"> <ibatorConfiguration> <classPathEntry location="/dos/connector/oracle_jdbc.jar"/> <ibatorContext id="autoPerson" defaultModelType="flat" targetRuntime="Ibatis2Java2"> <jdbcConnection connectionURL="jdbc:oracle:thin:@192.168.42.144:1521:orcl" driverClass="oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver" userId="user" password="password"/> <javaModelGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> <property name="trimStrings" value="true"/> </javaModelGenerator> <sqlMapGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.map" targetProject="FormConfig"> <property name="enableSubPackages" value="true"/> </sqlMapGenerator> <daoGenerator targetPackage="com.ko.model.dao" type="SPRING" targetProject="FormConfig" implementationPackage="com.ko.model.dao.impl" > <property name="enableSubPackges" value="true"/> <property name="methodNameCalculator" value="extended"/> </daoGenerator> <table tableName="APP_REQ_APPROVE_COMPARE" domainObjectName="AppReqApproveCompare"/> <ibatorConfiguration>

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• How does browser know when to prompt user to save password?

  - by Eric

  This is related to the question I asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2382329/how-can-i-get-browser-to-prompt-to-save-password This is the problem: I CAN'T get my browser to prompt me to save the password for the site I'm developing. (I'm talking about the bar that appears sometimes when you submit a form on Firefox, that says "Remember the password for yoursite.com? Yes / Not now / Never") This is super frustrating because this feature of Firefox (and most other modern browsers, which I hope work in a similar fashion) seems to be a mystery. It's like a magic trick the browser does, where it looks at your code, or what you submit, or something, and if it "looks" like a login form with a username (or email address) field and a password field, it offers to save. Except in this case, where it's not offering my users that option after they use my login form, and it's making me nuts. :-) (I checked my Firefox settings-- I have NOT told the browser "never" for this site. It should be prompting.) My question: exactly what the heuristics are that Firefox (or any other modern browser) uses to know when it should prompt the user to save? This shouldn't be too difficult to answer, since it's right there in the Mozilla source (I don't know where to look or else I'd try to dig it out myself). You'd think there would be a blog post or some other similar developer note from the Mozilla developers about this but I can't find that either. (* Note that if your answer to me has anything to do with cookies, encryption or anything else that is about how I'm storing the user's passwords in the database, you've probably misread my question. :-)

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• setInterval works only the first time

  - by Neil

  Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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• MS SQL datetime precision problem

  - by Nailuj

  I have a situation where two persons might work on the same order (stored in an MS SQL database) from two different computers. To prevent data loss in the case where one would save his copy of the order first, and then a little later the second would save his copy and overwrite the first, I've added a check against the lastSaved field (datetime) before saving. The code looks roughly like this: private bool orderIsChangedByOtherUser(Order localOrderCopy) { // Look up fresh version of the order from the DB Order databaseOrder = orderService.GetByOrderId(localOrderCopy.Id); if (databaseOrder != null && databaseOrder.LastSaved > localOrderCopy.LastSaved) { return true; } else { return false; } } This works for most of the time, but I have found one small bug. If orderIsChangedByOtherUser returns false, the local copy will have its lastSaved updated to the current time and then be persisted to the database. The value of lastSaved in the local copy and the DB should now be the same. However, if orderIsChangedByOtherUser is run again, it sometimes returns true even though no other user has made changes to the DB. When debugging in Visual Studio, databaseOrder.LastSaved and localOrderCopy.LastSaved appear to have the same value, but when looking closer they some times differ by a few milliseconds. I found this article with a short notice on the millisecond precision for datetime in SQL: Another problem is that SQL Server stores DATETIME with a precision of 3.33 milliseconds (0. 00333 seconds). The solution I could think of for this problem, is to compare the two datetimes and consider them equal if they differ by less than say 10 milliseconds. My question to you is then: are there any better/safer ways to compare two datetime values in MS SQL to see if they are exactly the same?

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• .NET 4: Process.Start using credentials returns empty output

  - by alexey

  I run an external program from ASP.NET: var process = new Process(); var startInfo = process.StartInfo; startInfo.FileName = filePath; startInfo.Arguments = arguments; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; startInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; startInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); process.WaitForExit(); Console.Write("Output: {0}", process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd()); Console.Write("Error Output: {0}", process.StandardError.ReadToEnd()); Everything works fine with this code: the external program is executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns the correct output. But after I add these two lines before process.Start() (to run the program in the context of another user account): startInfo.UserName = userName; startInfo.Password = securePassword; The program is not executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns an empty string. No exceptions are thrown. userName and securePassword are correct (in case of incorrect credentials an exception is thrown). How to run the program in the context of another user account?

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• Find actual value of PHP variable

  - by Simon S

  Hi all. I am having a real headache with reading in a tab delimited text file and inserting it into a MySQL Database. The tab delimited text file was generated (I think) from a MS SQL Database, and I have written a simple script to read in the file and insert it into an existing table in my MySQL database. However, there seems to be some problem with the data in the txt file. When my PHP script parses the file and I output the INSERT statements, the values in each of the fields are longer than they should be. For example, the first field should be a simple two character alphanumeric value. If I echo out the INSERT statements, using Firebug (in Firefox), between each of the characters is a question mark in a black diamond. If I var_dump the values, I get the following: string(5) "A1" Now, this clearly shows a two character string, but var_dump tells me it is five characters long!! If I trim() the value, all I get is the first character (in this case "A"). How can I get at the other characters, even if it is only to remove them? Additionally, this appears to be forcing MySQL to insert the value as a BLOB, not as a varchar as it should. Simon

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• Duplicate Items Using Join in NHibernate Map

  - by Colin Bowern

  I am trying to retrieve the individual detail rows without having to create an object for the parent. I have a map which joins a parent table with the detail to achieve this: Table("UdfTemplate"); Id(x => x.Id, "Template_Id"); Map(x => x.FieldCode, "Field_Code"); Map(x => x.ClientId, "Client_Id"); Join("UdfFields", join => { join.KeyColumn("Template_Id"); join.Map(x => x.Name, "COLUMN_NAME"); join.Map(x => x.Label, "DISPLAY_NAME"); join.Map(x => x.IsRequired, "MANDATORY_FLAG") .CustomType<YesNoType>(); join.Map(x => x.MaxLength, "DATA_LENGTH"); join.Map(x => x.Scale, "DATA_SCALE"); join.Map(x => x.Precision, "DATA_PRECISION"); join.Map(x => x.MinValue, "MIN_VALUE"); join.Map(x => x.MaxValue, "MAX_VALUE"); }); When I run the query in NH using: Session.CreateCriteria(typeof(UserDefinedField)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("FieldCode", code)).List<UserDefinedField>(); I get back the first row three times as opposed to the three individual rows it should return. Looking at the SQL trace in NH Profiler the query appears to be correct. The problem feels like it is in the mapping but I am unsure how to troubleshoot that process. I am about to turn on logging to see what I can find but I thought I would post here in case someone with experience mapping joins knows where I am going wrong.

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• Why does the page posts take so long?

  - by Olle

  Hi! I am having some problems with some page post backs that take a loooong time to execute. If I do a "appcmd list requests" I can get something like this: REQUEST "79000001800004e3" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:87219 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:ExecuteRequestHandler, module:ManagedPipelineHandler) REQUEST "8600000080002f82" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:61391 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) REQUEST "5e00010280000420" (url:POST /dir/file.aspx, time:21047 msec, client:xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx, stage:AcquireRequestState, module:Session) It's one particular file that causes the problem (dir/file.aspx in this case). It comes from the same IP-adress. And the first on is from ManagedPipelineHandler module and the two after that from Session module. I do not have any details about the web browser, or anything more about the client for that matter. I have looked for sql dead locks and did not find any. There are no long running sql queries at all. Do you have any idea of what can be the problem? Regards.

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• ObjectContext disposed puzzle

  - by jaklucky

  Hi, I have the follwing method. public List<MyEntity> GetMyEntities(MyObjectContext objCtx) { using(MyObjectContext ctx = objCtx ?? new MyObjectContext()) { retun ctx.MyEntities.ToList(); } } The idea is, user of this method can pass in the objectcontext if they have. If not then a new objectcontext will be created. If I am passing an object context to it, then it is getting disposed after the method is done. I was expecting only "ctx" variable gets disposed. If I write a small app, to know the using and dispose mechanism. It is acting differently. class TestClass : IDisposable { public int Number { get; set; } public string Str { get; set; } public ChildClass Child { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class ChildClass : IDisposable { public string StrChild { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Child Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TestClass test = null; test = new TestClass(); test.Child = new ChildClass(); using (TestClass test1 = test ?? new TestClass()) { test1.Number = 1; test1.Str = "hi"; test1.Child.StrChild = "Child one"; test1.Child.Dispose(); } test.Str = "hi"; test.Child.StrChild = "hi child"; Console.ReadLine(); } } In this example, "test1"gets disposed but not "test". Where as in the first case both ctx and objCtx get disposed. Any ideas what is happening here with objectContext? Thank you, Suresh

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• Why isn't UIScrollView always calling viewDidLoad on subviews?

  - by Rob S.

  I'm a bit confused on the behaviour of UIScrollView as it pertains to subview loading. In my app, I lazily load subviews into my scroller. Most of the time, -viewDidLoad is called on the subview immediately after adding it the UIScrollView. There is one scenario where it isn't being called. At the 'end' of my scroll view I have a "please wait" view. When it is fully scrolled on to the page, it fades out, I add the subview and -viewDidLoad is not called. In this case, when I remove the last subview and add another subview, I get nothing. I've tried [scrollView setNeedsDisplay] and [scrollView setNeedsLayout] to no avail. I've also sent the same messages to the view I just added - no dice. Does anyone have any insight here? Many people have many questions about -viewDidLoad and I haven't been able to find one related to direct subviews inside of a scrollview. Or I have and I haven't realized it :) Thanks in advance! Rob

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• Extending EF4 SQL Generation

  - by Basiclife

  Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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• How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

  - by Bill Zimmerman

  I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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• How can I choose different hints for different joins for a single table in a query hint?

  - by RenderIn

  Suppose I have the following query: select * from A, B, C, D where A.x = B.x and B.y = C.y and A.z = D.z I have indexes on A.x and B.x and B.y and C.y and D.z There is no index on A.z. How can I give a hint to this query to use an INDEX hint on A.x but a USE_HASH hint on A.z? It seems like hints only take the table name, not the specific join, so when using a single table with multiple joins I can only specify a single strategy for all of them. Alternative, suppose I'm using a LEADING or ORDERED hint on the above query. Both of these hints only take a table name as well, so how can I ensure that the A.x = B.x join takes place before the A.z = D.z one? I realize in this case I could list D first, but imagine D subsequently joins to E and that the D-E join is the last one I want in the entire query. A third configuration -- Suppose I want the A.x join to be the first of the entire query, and I want the A.z join to be the last one. How can I use a hint to have a single join from A to take place, followed by the B-C join, and the A-D join last?

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• Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

  - by Andrey

  Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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• GetEffectiveRightsFromAcl throws invalid acl error

  - by apoorv020

  I am trying to get the effective rights a user has on a file using interop in C#. Following is the code I am using : public static FileSystemRights GetFileEffectiveRights(string FileName, string UserName) { IntPtr pDacl, pZero = IntPtr.Zero; int Mask = 0; uint errorReturn = GetNamedSecurityInfo(FileName, SE_OBJECT_TYPE.SE_FILE_OBJECT, SECURITY_INFORMATION.Dacl , out pZero, out pZero, out pDacl, out pZero, out pZero); if (errorReturn != 0) { throw new Exception("Win error : " + errorReturn); } Program.TRUSTEE pTrustee = new TRUSTEE(); pTrustee.pMultipleTrustee = IntPtr.Zero; pTrustee.MultipleTrusteeOperation = (int)Program.MULTIPLE_TRUSTEE_OPERATION.NO_MULTIPLE_TRUSTEE; pTrustee.ptstrName = UserName; pTrustee.TrusteeForm = (int)Program.TRUSTEE_FORM.TRUSTEE_IS_NAME; pTrustee.TrusteeType = (int)Program.TRUSTEE_TYPE.TRUSTEE_IS_USER; errorReturn = GetEffectiveRightsFromAcl(pDacl, ref pTrustee, ref Mask); if (errorReturn != 0) { throw new Exception("Win error : " + errorReturn); } return (FileSystemRights)Mask; } This code works fine until I start modifying the ACL structure using the classes FileAccessRule and FileInfo, and then I start getting Windows Error 1336 : ERROR_INVALID_ACL. Same is the case if I debug the process call GetFileEffectiveRights once, pause the process,change the ACL through windows API, and resume and call GetFileEffectiveRights again(the 1st call succeeds but the second gives 1336.) What is going wrong?

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• How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

  - by Nivas

  I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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• CLLocationDistance NaN

  - by Kaspa

  Hi, I'm trying to calculate a distance between two sets of coordinate points in an iPhone application on the fly using - (CLLocationDistance)getDistanceFrom:(const CLLocation *)location I saw that I started getting NaN's in strange places, thus investigated the matter up close, with the following hardcoded values. CLLocationDistance testDistance; placeLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; userLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; testDistance = [userLocation getDistanceFrom:placeLocation]; if(isnan(testDistance)) NSLog(@"ISNaN!"); [placeLocation release]; [userLocation release]; The above gets called multiple times, and in some situations the testDistance is NaN. I fear I'm missing something very simple here. Anyone have any idea? UPDATE 1: Ok, so I've moved the above code into a new project (put everything in the app delegate), looped it for 100 times and all is fine. This thus suggests that the problem is project related, but this helps very little... since all the variables are in the scope of 1 function. THE SOLUTION: OK, this seems to be a simulator bug. The same code build runs perfectly fine on the device. Case solved.

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• grep 5 seconds of input from the serial port inside a shell-script

  - by pica

  I've got a device that I'm operating next to my PC and as it runs it's spitting log lines out it's serial port. I have this wired to my PC and I can see the log lines fine if I'm using either minicom or something like: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 I want to write 5 seconds of the device serial output to a temp file (or assign it to a variable) and then later grep that file for keywords that will let me know how the device is operating. I've already tried redirecting the output to a file while running the command in the background, and then sleeping 5 seconds and killing the process, but the log lines never get written to my temp file. Example: touch tempFile ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 >> tempFile & serialPID=$! sleep 5 #kill ${serialPID} #does not work, gets wrong PID killall ttylog cat tempFile The file gets created but never filled with any data. I can also replace the ttylog line with: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 |tee -a tempFile & In neither case do I ever see any log lines logged to stdout or the log file unless I have multiple versions of ttylog running by mistake (see commented out line, D'oh). I have no idea what's going on here. It seems to be a failure of redirection within my script. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to sample 5 seconds of the serial port?

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• unable to place breakpoints in eclipse

  - by anjanb

  I am using eclipse europa (3.5) on windows vista home premium 64-bit using JDK 1.6.0_18 (32 BIT). Normally, I am able to put breakpoints just fine; However, for a particular class which is NOT part of the project (this class is inside a .JAR file (.JAR file is part of the project) ), although I have attached a source directory to this .JAR file, I am unable to place a breakpoint in this class. If I double-click on the breakpoint pane(left border), I notice that a class breakpoint is placed. I was wondering if there was NO debug info; However, found that this particular class was compiled using ant/javac task using debug="true" and debuglevel="lines,vars,source". I even ran jad on this class to confirm that it indeed contained the debug info. So, why is eclipse preventing me from placing a breakpoint ? EDIT : Just so everyone understands the context, this is a webapp running under tomcat 6.0. I am remote debugging the application from eclipse after having started tomcat outside. The application is working just fine. I am trying to understand the behavior of the above class which I'm unable to do since eclipse is not letting me set a BP. P.S : I saw a few threads here talking about BPs not being hit but in my case, I am unable to place the BP! P.P.S : I tried JDK 1.6.0_16 before trying out 1.6.0_18. Thanks for any pointers.

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• MyMessage<T> throws an exception when calling XmlSerializer

  - by Arthis

  I am very new to nservicebus. I am using version 3.0.1, the last one up to date. And I wonder if my case is a normal limitation of NSB, I am not aware of. I have an asp.net MVC application, I am trying to setup and in my global.asax, I have the following : var configure = Configure.WithWeb() .DefaultBuilder() .ForMvc() .XmlSerializer(); But I have an error with the XmlSerializer when dealing with one of my object: [Serializable] public class MyMessage<T> : IMessage { public T myobject { get; set; } } I pass trough : XmlSerializer() instance.Initialize(types); this.InitType(type, moduleBuilder); this.InitType(info2.PropertyType, moduleBuilder); and then when dealing With T, string typeName = GetTypeName(t); typename is null and the following instruction : if (!nameToType.ContainsKey(typeName)) ends in error. null value not allowed. Is this some limitations to Nservicebus, or am I messing something up?

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• How to get the ui:param value in Javabean

  - by mihaela

  Hello, I am learning facelets and Seam and I'm facing the following problem: I'm have 2 xhtml files, one includes the other and each one has its own Seam component as backing bean. I want to send and object to the included facelet and obtain that object in the backing bean corresponding to the included facelet. I'll take an example to explain better the situation: registration.xhtml with Seam component as backing bean Registration.java. In this class I have an object of type Person address.html with Seam component as backing bean Address.java. In this class i want to obtain the Person object from the Registration component and set the address. registration.xhtml includes the address.xhtml and passes an object using How to obtain this object in Address bean? Will be the same reference of the object from the Registration bean? is the solution of passing this object or there is another solution for that? (maybe f:attribute, but even in this case how do I obtain the object in bean) This example is simple and not necessarily realistic but I have a similar problem and I don't know how to solve it. Thanks in advance.

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• Why aren't google api clients built on top of Apache's Abdera project ?

  - by lisak

  Hey, Could anybody please explain that to me? As far as I can see, the developers of java's google api client library are reinventing the wheel. It's like writing a new JDK for a Java project. I'm aware of the fact that google data protocol is a little specific re atom publishing, but if one needs to use some of the fancy extensions and features that Apache Abdera project offers for this protocol, it is better not to use google api client library and implement the client from scratch with Abdera... And I'm sure that in a lot of cases its features such as Abdera's JCR adapter would become very handy for google docs, google translator toolkit and others. Now it's great that there is a google api client library to be used for google docs, but what am I going to do with the documents? I believe that in more than a half cases there is also a repository or database on the other side. And in that case, abdera is needed, not the simple google api clients that are only marshalling/unmarshalling the feeds... In fact, there is something to persist in all of the google APIs. It would make sense, if google decided to invest the effort into Abdera enhancement... This doesn't... Also for the question to be more specific: How are you developing google api clients, that need entry persistence (JCR for instance) ? What would be the best way to integrate a google api client library with Apache Abdera ?

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• How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

  - by Code Sherpa

  Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

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• radgrid insert using radwinow

  - by Hamza

  Hello Everybody, The company details page in my system has a user control to show the founders of the company, that user control represents the founders by using a Rad Grid and three buttons for insert/edit/delete founders, the founders grid is being bind by using a WCF service. the insert button calls a javascript method that opens a Rad Window in which the user can insert the data for a new founder my problem is: in the Add Founder Rad Window I shouldn't save the new founder in the database, when I press Add the Rad Grid should be closed and the new founder should be added to the founders Grid's datasource, and then the grid should be bind again the questions is: what is the best way to do that, I don't want to use sessions nor json, I tried to use another wcf service which takes two parameters: reference to the grid and the new founder, and in this wcf service I get the old datasource then add the new founder to it and finally rebind the grid again, but I have faced some problems like how can I send the reference to the grid from javascript method to a WCF service, also if I add more than one founder how can keep track of the new founders and the original datasource if any of you can lead me to an example similar to my case this would be very much appreciated, also any comments and feedback are most welcomed

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• .NET RegEx - First N chars of First M lines

  - by George

  Hello! I want 4 general RegEx expressions for the following 4 basic cases: Up to A chars starting after B chars from start of line on up to C lines starting after D lines from start of file Up to A chars starting after B chars from start of line on up to C lines occurring before D lines from end of file Up to A chars starting before B chars from end of line on up to C lines starting after D lines from start of file Up to A chars starting before B chars from end of line on up to C lines starting before D lines from end of file These would allow to select arbitrary text blocks anywhere in the file. So far I have managed to come up with cases that only work for lines and chars separately: (?<=(?m:^[^\r]{N}))[^\r]{1,M} = UP TO M chars OF EVERY LINE, AFTER FIRST N chars [^\r]{1,M}(?=(?m:.{N}\r$)) = UP TO M chars OF EVERY LINE, BEFORE LAST N chars The above 2 expressions are for chars, and they return MANY matches (one for each line). (?<=(\A([^\r]*\r\n){N}))(?m:\n*[^\r]*\r$){1,M} = UP TO M lines AFTER FIRST N lines (((?=\r?)\n[^\r]*\r)|((?=\r?)\n[^\r]+\r?)){1,M}(?=((\n[^\r]*\r)|(\n[^\r]+\r?)){N}\Z) = UP TO M lines BEFORE LAST N lines from end These 2 expressions are equivalents for the lines, but they always return just ONE match. The task is to combine these expressions to allow for scenarios 1-4. Anyone can help? Note that the case in the title of the question, is just a subclass of scenario #1, where both B = 0 and D = 0. EXAMPLE: SOURCE: line1 blah 1 line2 blah 2 line3 blah 3 line4 blah 4 line5 blah 5 line6 blah 6 DESIRED RESULT: Characters 3-6 of lines 3-5: A total of 3 matches: <match>ne3 </match> <match>ne4 </match> <match>ne5 </match>

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