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  • Problem using UnhandledException in Windows Mobile app

    - by MusiGenesis
    I have a Windows Mobile program that accesses an attached device through a third-party DLL. Each call to the device can take an unknown length of time, so each call includes a timeout property. If the call takes longer than the specified timeout to return, the DLL instead throws an exception which my app catches with no problem. The problem that I have is with closing the application. If my application has made a call to the DLL and is waiting for the timeout to occur, and I then close the application before the timeout occurs, my application locks up and requires the PDA to be rebooted. I can ensure that the application waits for the timeout before closing, under normal conditions. However, I am trying to use AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException to catch any unhandled exceptions in the program and use the event to wait for this pending timeout to occur so the program can be closed finally. My problem is that this event doesn't seem to stick around long enough. If I put a MessageBox.Show("unhandled exception"); line in the event, and then throw a new unhandled exception from my application's main form, I see the message box for a split second but then it disappears without my having clicked the OK button. The documentation I've found on this event suggests that by the time it's called the application is fully committed to closing and the closing can't be stopped, but I didn't think it meant that the event method itself won't finish. What gives (I guess that's the question)? Update: In full windows (Vista) this works as expected, but only if I use the Application.ThreadException event, which doesn't exist in .Net CF 2.0.

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  • Why is XmlSerializer so hard to use?

    - by mafutrct
    I imagine to use XML serialization like this: class Foo { public Foo (string name) { Name1 = name; Name2 = name; } [XmlInclude] public string Name1 { get; private set; } [XmlInclude] private string Name2; } StreamWriter wr = new StreamWriter("path.xml"); new XmlSerializer<Foo>().Serialize (wr, new Foo ("me")); But this does not work at all: XmlSerializer is not generic. I have to cast from and to object on (de)serialization. Every property has to be fully public. Why aren't we just using Reflection to access private setters? Private fields cannot be serialized. I'd like to decorate private fields with an attribute to have XmlSerializer include them. Did I miss something and XmlSerializer is actually offering the described possibilities? Are there alternate serializers to XML that handle these cases more sophisticatedly? If not: We're in 2010 after all, and .NET has been around for many years. XML serialization is often used, totally standard and should be really easy to perform. Or is my understanding possibly wrong and XML serialization ought not to expose the described features for a good reason? (Feel free to adjust caption or tags. If this should be CW, please just drop a note.)

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  • c# Deserializing an element based on it's parent node's name

    - by daveharnett
    The XML I'm working with has the following structure: <fixture_statistics> <home_player_1 id="2306143" teamid="2"> <element_1>Some Data</element_1> <element_2>Some Data</element_2> </home_player_1> <home_player_2 id="2306144" teamid="2"> <element_1>Some Data</element_1> <element_2>Some Data</element_2> </home_player_2> </fixture_statistics> Now the code to deserialize it would normally look like this: [XmlRootAttribute("fixture_statistics", Namespace = "", IsNullable = false)] public class FixtureRoot { [XmlElement("home_player_1")] [XmlElement("home_player_2")] public List<FixtureStats> fixtures { get; set; } } public class FixtureStats { public string element_1; [XMLElement("element_2")] public string elementTwo; } Here's the question: I'd like the FixtureStats class to have a 'position' property which corrosponds to it's parent's element name (so the FixtureStat object corrosponding to home_player_1 would have position=1). Can this be done with the built-in serialization atrributes? If it's not possible, what's the cleanest workaround? Bear in mind that each document will have about 50 player elements, each with about 50 'child' data elements.

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  • Is there any way to optimize this LINQ where clause that searches for multiple keywords on multiple

    - by Daniel T.
    I have a LINQ query that searches for multiple keywords on multiple columns. The intention is that the user can search for multiple keywords and it will search for the keywords on every property in my Media entity. Here is a simplified example: var result = repository.GetAll<Media>().Where(x => x.Title.Contains("Apples") || x.Description.Contains("Apples") || x.Tags.Contains("Apples") || x.Title.Contains("Oranges") || x.Description.Contains("Oranges") || x.Tags.Contains("Oranges") || x.Title.Contains("Pears") || x.Description.Contains("Pears") || x.Tags.Contains("Pears") ); In other words, I want to search for the keywords Apples, Oranges, and Pears on the columns Title, Description, and Tags. The outputted SQL looks like this: SELECT * FROM Media this_ WHERE (((((((( this_.Title like '%Apples%' or this_.Description like '%Apples%') or this_.Tags like '%Apples%') or this_.Title like '%Oranges%') or this_.Description like '%Oranges%') or this_.Tags like '%Oranges%') or this_.Title like '%Pears%') or this_.Description like '%Pears%') or this_.Tags like '%Pears%') Is this the most optimal SQL in this case? If not, how do I rewrite the LINQ query to create the most optimal SQL statement? I'm using SQLite for testing and SQL Server for actual deployment.

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  • NSPredicate case-insensitive matching on to-many relationship

    - by Brian Webster
    I am implementing a search field where the user can type in a string to filter the items displayed in a view. Each object being displayed has a keywords to-many relationship, and I would like to be able to filter the objects based on their keywords. Each keyword object has a name property, so I've set up an NSPredicate to do the filtering that looks like this: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS %@", self.searchString]; This works, but the problem is that the search is case-sensitive, so if the keyword has a capital letter but the user types in all lowercase, no matches are found. I've tried the following modification: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS[c] %@", self.searchString]; But that doesn't make any difference in the case sensitivity of the matching. Is there a way to do this case-insensitive matching using just a plain predicate? Or will I need to implement some sort of custom accessor on the keyword class, e.g. write a lowercaseName method and match against a lowercased version of the search string instead? Addendum: After further exploration, the workaround of adding a custom accessor works OK for manual use of NSPredicate, but does not work at all when using NSFetchRequest with Core Data, which only works when querying attributes defined in the Core Data model.

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  • JQuery datepicker not working

    - by IniTech
    I'm completely new to JQuery and MVC. I'm working on a pet project that uses both to learn them and I've hit my first snag. I have a date field and I want to add the JQuery datepicker to the UI. Here is what I have done: Added <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> to the site.master Inside my Create.aspx (View), I have <asp:Content ID="Create" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2> Create a Task</h2> <% Html.RenderPartial("TaskForm"); %> </asp:Content> and inside "TaskForm" (a user control) I have: <label for="dDueDate"> Due Date</label> <%= Html.TextBox("dDueDate",(Model.Task.TaskID > 0 ? string.Format("{0:g}",Model.Task.DueDate) : DateTime.Today.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy"))) %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#dDueDate").datepicker(); }); </script> As you can see, the above checks to see if a task has an id 0 (we're not creating a new one) if it does, it uses the date on the task, if not it defaults to today. I would expect the datepicker UI element to show up, but instead I get: "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" on the $("#dDueDate").datepicker(); Ideas? It is probably a very simple mistake, so don't over-analyze. As I said, this is the first time I've dealt with MVC or JQuery so I'm lost as to where to start.

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  • CSS3 Gradients and border-radius leading to extraneous background in webkit

    - by iamfriendly
    Hello all, After my 1st question with relation to CSS3 gradients in which I was recreating an 'inner glow' I've now got to the point where I'm not so happy with the way in which webkit renders the effect. Basically, if you give an element a background colour and apply a border radius to it, webkit lets the background colour "bleed" out to fill the surrounding box (making it look a bit awful) To reproduce the undesirable effect, try something like the following section#featured footer p a { color: rgb(255,255,255); text-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(0,0,0,0.6); text-decoration: none; padding: 5px 10px; border-radius: 15px; -moz-border-radius: 15px; -webkit-border-radius: 15px; background: rgb(98,99,100); -moz-box-shadow: inset 0 0 8px rgba(0,0,0, 0.25); -webkit-box-shadow: inset 0 0 8px rgba(0,0,0, 0.25); } You can see an example of this here: http://iamfriendly.clients.friendlygp.com/ Apparently this appears to be a Windows-only problem, so for those on a Mac, here's a screenshot: (Check the 'carry on reading' button) You'll notice that in Safari/Chrome (the latest available public downloads as well as the latest nightlies as far as I can tell), you get a rather ugly background colour bleed. However, in Firefox, you should be able to see what I'm after. If you're in Internet Explorer, woe betide you. Does anyone know of a technique which will allow me to produce the 'correct' effect? Is there a CSS Property which I've missed that tells webkit to only have the background within the border-radius'd part of the containing box. I could potentially use an image, but I'm really trying to avoid it. Naturally, as we're dealing with CSS3 and the landscape is continually changing, I might just have to 'lump' it and revert to an image. However, if anyone can suggest an alternative I would be very much appreciative!

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  • Sorting by dates (including nil) with NSFetchedResultsController

    - by glorifiedHacker
    In my NSFetchedResultsController, I set a sortDescriptor that sorts based on the date property of my managed objects. The problem that I have encountered (along with several others according to Google) is that nil values are sorted at the earliest end rather than the latest end of the date spectrum. I want my list to be sorted earliest, earlier, now, later, latest, nil. As I understand it, this sorting is done at the database level in SQLite and so I cannot construct my own compare: method to provide the sorting I want. I don't want to manually sort in memory, because I would have to give up all of the benefits of NSFetchedResultsController. I can't do compound sorting because the sectionNameKeyPaths are tightly coupled to the date ranges. I could write a routine that redirects indexPath requests so that section 0 in the results controller gets mapped to the last section of the tableView, but I fear that would add a lot of overhead, severely increase the complexity of my code, and be very, very error-prone. The latest idea that I am considering is to map all nil dates to the furthest future date that NSDate supports. My left brain hates this idea, as it feels more like a hack. It will also take a bit of work to implement, since checking for nil factors heavily into how I process dates in my app. I don't want to go this route without first checking for better options. Can anyone think of a better way to get around this problem?

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  • Dynamic Table CheckBoxes not having a "Checked" true value

    - by LuvlyOvipositor
    I have been working on a web app using ASP.NET with the code base as C#. I have a dynamic table that resizes based on a return from a SQL query; with a check box added in the third cell of each row. The checkbox is assigned an ID according to an index and the date. When users hit the submit button, the code is supposed to get a value from each row that is checked. However, when looping through the rows, none of the check boxes ever have a value of true for the Checked property. The ID persists, but the value of the checkbox seems to be lost. Code for adding the Checkboxes: cell = new TableCell(); CheckBox cb = new CheckBox(); cell.ApplyStyle(TS); cb.ID = index.ToString() + " " + lstDate.SelectedItem.Text.ToString(); if (reader["RestartStatus"].ToString() == "0") { cb.Checked = false; cb.Enabled = true; } else { cb.Checked = true; } cell.Controls.Add(cb); The code for getting the checkbox value: for (int i = 0; i < CompTable.Rows.Count; i++) { int t3 = CompTable.Rows[i].Cells[2].Controls.Count; Control temp = null; if (t3 0) { temp = CompTable.Rows[i].Cells[2].Controls[0]; } string t2 = i.ToString() + " " + lstDate.SelectedItem.Text.ToString(); if ( temp != null && ((CheckBox)temp).ID == i.ToString() + " " + lstDate.SelectedItem.Text.ToString()) { //Separated into 2 if statements for debugging purposes //ID is correct, but .Checked is always false (even if all of the boxes are checked) if (((CheckBox)temp).Checked == true) { tlist.Add(CompTable.Rows[i].Cells[0].Text.ToString()); } } }

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  • Problem with Binding Multiple Objects on WPF

    - by Diego Modolo Ribeiro
    Hi, I'm developing a user control called SearchBox, that will act as a replacer for ComboBox for multiple records, as the performance in ComboBox is low for this scenario, but I'm having a big binding problem. I have a base control with a DependencyProperty called SelectedItem, and my SearchControl shows that control so that the user can select the record. The SearchControl also has a DependencyProperty called SelectedItem on it, and it is being updated when the user selects something on the base control, but the UI, wich has the SearchControl, is not being updated. I used a null converter so that I could see if the property was updating, but it's not. Below is some of the code: This is the UI: <NectarControles:MaskedSearchControl x:Name="teste" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Height="21" ItemsSource="{Binding C001_Lista}" DisplayMember="C001_Codigo" Custom:CustomizadorTextBox.CodigoCampo="C001_Codigo" ViewType="{x:Type C001:C001_Search}" ViewModelType="{x:Type C001_ViewModel:C001_ViewModel}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=Instancia.C001_Holding, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, Converter={StaticResource DebuggingConverter}}"> </NectarControles:MaskedSearchControl> This is the relevante part of the SearchControl: Binding selectedItemBinding = new Binding("SelectedItem"); selectedItemBinding.Source = this.SearchControlBase; selectedItemBinding.Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay; selectedItemBinding.UpdateSourceTrigger = UpdateSourceTrigger.PropertyChanged; this.SetBinding(SelectedItemProperty, selectedItemBinding); ... public System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.IEntityWithKey SelectedItem { get { return (System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.IEntityWithKey)GetValue(SelectedItemProperty); } set { SetValue(SelectedItemProperty, value); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedItem")); } } Please someone help me... Tks...

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  • SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

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  • How to export Configuration of each IIS 6 Web Site using WMI

    - by Diego
    Hi all, I need to export the WebSite Configuration (MetaBase) from IIS6 for a whole server, but I need each web site configuration to be saved separately. The result should be the same that can be obtained by right clicking on each Web Site in IIS Snap-in and selecting All Tasks-Save Configuration to a File. My idea is quite simple: 1- Using WMI, retrieve a list of Web Sites. 2- Also via WMI, export each configuration to a file having the same name of the Web Site. However, I'm having some difficulties, mainly due to the complexity of WMI and, in my opinion, the poor documentation of its classes. At the moment I found out how to enumerate Virtual Directories, but not Web Sites; while it's true that this method returns Web Sites as well, I can't see how to identify them among other virtual folders (a Web Site has different properties, which are not returned in the Virtual Directory Object), and I can't find the Web Site Description property, which I'd like to use to name the exported file. I thought about a workaround for all the above issues, but it would be more a hack than a real solution... Any help if appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Mimic.js handle fault response

    - by nikolas
    i use mimic.js regarding a project that i m developing.. the issue that i face, is if there is a fault response from the webservice, mimic, doesn't handle it, and the browser remains "awaiting" for a response, that has actually been back, but hasn't been handled by mimic.. to be more specific, one typical fault response is the following.. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <methodResponse> <fault> <value> <struct> <member> <name>faultCode</name><value><int>104</int></value> </member> <member> <name>faultString</name><value><string>Invalid Input Parameters</string></value> </member> </struct></value></fault></methodResponse> and chrome console get me the error mimic.js:11 Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'childNodes' of null any suggestions on how to handle "fault" responses? mimic.js hasn't been altered at all.. also tried to bypass the fact that mimic can't handle the fault, by trying to use the isFault flag, in the if statement, with no success either.. isFault is supposed to get a boolean value, i guess true/false?

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  • Custom Cocoa Framework and a problem using it

    - by happyCoding25
    Hello, I made a custom cocoa framework just to experiment and find the best way to make one but ran in to a problem using it. The framework project builds and compiles just fine, but when I use it in an xcode project I get the error, 'LogTest' undeclared. The name of the framework is LogTest Heres the code to my app that uses the framework: AppDelegate.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import <LogTest/LogTest.h> @interface TestAppDelegate : NSObject <NSApplicationDelegate> { NSWindow *window; } @property (assign) IBOutlet NSWindow *window; @end AppDelegate.m: #import "TestAppDelegate.h" @implementation TestAppDelegate @synthesize window; - (void)awakeFromNib { [LogTest logStart:@"testing 123":@"testing 1234"]; //This is the line where the error occurs } @end Framework Code........ LogTest.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "Method.h" @protocol LogTest //Not sure if this is needed I just wanted a blank header @end Method.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Method : NSObject { } + (void)logStart:(NSString *)test:(NSString *)test2; @end Method.m: #import "Method.h" @implementation Method + (void)logStart:(NSString *)test:(NSString *)test2 { NSLog(test); NSLog(test2); } @end If anyone knows why I am getting this error please reply. Thanks for any help

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  • Generics and collections ... struggling with an implementation

    - by mattruma
    I am trying to figure out a way to leverage generics so I can make the property Value be an actual type that initialized (not sure if this is the correct way of saying it) when my collection class is created. I would like to have the syntax be something like: var list = new ListItemCollection<Guid>(parameters would go here); I have the following class: [Serializable] public class ListItem { public object Value { get; set; } public string Text { get; set; } public object DataContext { get; set; } public Nullable<bool> Checked { get; set; } public ListItem() { this.Checked = false; } } I have the following collection: [Serializable] public class ListItemCollection : List<ListItem> { public ListItem this[object value] { get { foreach (var child in this) { if (child.Value.Equals(value)) return child; } return null; } } public bool Contains(object value) { foreach (var child in this) { if (child.Value.Equals(value)) return true; } return false; } public void Add(object value, string text) { this.Add(value, text, null); } public void Add(object value, string text, object dataContext) { var child = new ListItem(); child.Value = value; child.Text = text; child.DataContext = dataContext; this.Add(child); } public ListItemCollection() { } public ListItemCollection(IEnumerable items, string displayMember, string valueMember, bool showEmptyItem, string emptyItemText, object emptyItemValue) { if (showEmptyItem) { this.Add(emptyItemValue, emptyItemText); } foreach (object item in items) { object text = null; object value = null; text = item.GetType().GetProperty(displayMember).GetValue(item, null); value = item.GetType().GetProperty(valueMember).GetValue(item, null); // Add the item this.Add(value, text.ToString(), item); } } }

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  • Getting data from array of DataSet objects returned from web service

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have a web service that I want to access when it is added as a web reference to my C# project. A particular method in the web service takes a SQL query string and returns the results of the query as a custom type. When I add the web service reference, the method shows up as returning DataSet[] instead of the custom type. This is fine provided I can still somehow access the data returned from the query within those DataSet objects. I ran a particular query that should return 6 rows; I got back a DataSet[] array with 6 elements. However, when I iterate over those DataSet objects, none of them has any tables (via the Tables property on the DataSet). What gives? Where is my data? The web service is tested and works when I use it as a data source in a Report Builder 2.0 report. I am able to send an XML SOAP query to the web service and get back XML results containing my data.

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  • Laravel 4 showing all field from one to one relationship in

    - by rivai04
    I'm trying to show all field of the chosen row from one to one relationship... Route Route::get('relasi-pasien', function() { $pasien = PasienIri::where('no_ipd', '=', '100')->first(); foreach($pasien->keadaanumum as $temp) { echo'<li> Name : '.$temp->name. 'Tekdar: '.$temp->tekdar. 'Nadi : '.$temp->nadi. '</li>'; } }); Relation at PasienIri's model public function keadaanumum() { return $this->hasOne('KeadaanUmum', 'no_ipd'); } Relation at KeadaanUmum's Model public function pasieniri() { return $this->belongsTo('PasienIri', 'no_ipd'); } When I used that way, it showed error: 'Trying to get property of non-object' But if I just trying to show only one of the field, it works, showing one field: Route::get('relasi-pasien', function() { $pasien = PasienIri::where('no_ipd', '=', '100')->first(); return $pasien->keadaanumum->name; }); anyone could help me to show all field with one to one relationship or I really have to change it to one to many relationship? cause if I change it to one to many relationship, it works

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  • How do you configure jax-ws to work with Spring using jax-ws commons?

    - by LES2
    In web.xml I have the following: <servlet> <description>JAX-WS endpoint - EARM</description> <display-name>jaxws-servlet</display-name> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/webServices/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> In my application context I have the following definitions: <bean id="helloService" class="com.foo.HelloServiceImpl"> <property name="regularService" ref="regularService" /> </bean> <wss:binding url="/webServices/helloService" service="#helloService" /> I get a NullPointerException when trying to access the WSDL: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.<init>(HttpAdapter.java:145) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapter.<init>(ServletAdapter.java:76) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:5 0) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:4 7) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapterList.createAdapter(HttpAdapterList.java:73) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.SpringBinding.create(SpringBinding.java:24) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet.init(WSSpringServlet.java:46) Strange ... appears to be a configuration error but the darn thing just dies with a NullPointerException!!!!!!!! No logging is provided. Deployed in Resin.

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  • Javascript error when attempting to open a modal window in a modal window

    - by The Sheek Geek
    The application is running on a windows server 2003 box using asp.net 2.0 and is an IE specific web app. There is a button that opens a form in an iframe using showModalDialog(...) from a function call located in the javascript. Here is an example of the fucntion: function ShowBusinessHoursSubForm( source ) { var retval = window.showModalDialog("htm/" + locLocaleID + "/SubFormHostFrame.htm", source, "dialogWidth:265px;dialogHeight:261px;help:no;scroll:no;status:no;"); } The host frame is loading an aspx page which contains the actual form that is being used. On the form that is opened there is a button that, when clicked, submits changed to the form. However, if no changed were made before the form was submitted, another modal window pops up stating that there were no changed to the form. This modal window is opened through registration of some javascript in the button click event. The code is as follows (C#): string l_S_ErrorScript = "<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'>window.showModalDialog('htm/" + l_S_Culture + "/NotChangedErrorDialog.htm', '../../" + l_S_SkinPath + "', 'dialogWidth:310px;dialogHeight:145px;scroll:no;help:no;status:no;');</script>"; if(!m_Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered("ErrorScript")) { m_Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "ErrorScript", l_S_ErrorScript); } When the button is clicked and this dialog needs to appear the following javascript error appears: Error: Object doesn't support this property or method The weird thing is, if I access the application locally and try it everything works fine, but accessing from another computer causes the error. Also, depending on what server (we have many servers for testing all with windows server 2003) the error may not occur on another computer either. These computers are running the same software version using the same version of IE with the same settings. I'm inclined to believe that there is some configuration issue somewhere, but with the settings being the same it is hard to tell. I cannot really change how the app works or the technologies used either. Anyone have any ideas as to what may be causing this?

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  • ASP.NET MVC2 DataAnnotations not catching error

    - by Paul Connolly
    Can somebody help me to figure out why DataAnnotations will not work with my MVC2 project in VS 2008 SP1? Here's the situation.. I uninstalled VS2008 and MVC1, then reinstalled VS2008 SP1 and .NET 3.5 SP1 and MVC2. Now when I create a clean project as soon as it has to hit the DataAnnotations Dll (e.g. say when I go to Register.aspx it fails at the first "LabelFor" that it encounters. I can overcome this by changing the "Copy Local" property of the dll to True but this then creates a conflict with the same dll in the Tests project. If then I delete the test project and try agan, it runs but does not catch any validation failures. I have gone right back to basics and followed the step by step ScottGu Datavalidation tutorial at : http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2010/01/15/asp-net-mvc-2-model-validation.aspx And at the "Et viola" bit where we usually go "Whoa! cool!" I say "It never caught!". Any Ideas?

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  • Best approach to storing image pixels in bottom-up order in Java

    - by finnw
    I have an array of bytes representing an image in Windows BMP format and I would like my library to present it to the Java application as a BufferedImage, without copying the pixel data. The main problem is that all implementations of Raster in the JDK store image pixels in top-down, left-to-right order whereas BMP pixel data is stored bottom-up, left-to-right. If this is not compensated for, the resulting image will be flipped vertically. The most obvious "solution" is to set the SampleModel's scanlineStride property to a negative value and change the band offsets (or the DataBuffer's array offset) to point to the top-left pixel, i.e. the first pixel of the last line in the array. Unfortunately this does not work because all of the SampleModel constructors throw an exception if given a negative scanlineStride argument. I am currently working around it by forcing the scanlineStride field to a negative value using reflection, but I would like to do it in a cleaner and more portable way if possible. e.g. is there another way to fool the Raster or SampleModel into arranging the pixels in bottom-up order but without breaking encapsulation? Or is there a library somewhere that will wrap the Raster and SampleModel, presenting the pixel rows in reverse order? I would prefer to avoid the following approaches: Copying the whole image (for performance reasons. The code must process hundreds of large (= 1Mpixels) images per second and although the whole image must be available to the application, it will normally access only a tiny (but hard-to-predict) portion of the image.) Modifying the DataBuffer to perform coordinate transformation (this actually works but is another "dirty" solution because the buffer should not need to know about the scanline/pixel layout.) Re-implementing the Raster and/or SampleModel interfaces from scratch (but I have a hunch that I will be unable to avoid this.)

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  • WiX: Forcefully launch uninstall previous using CustomAction

    - by leiflundgren
    I'm writing a new major upgrade of our product. In my installer I start by finding configuration settings of the previous version, then I'd like to uninstall the previous version. I have found several guides telling me how one should make a MSI suitable for such upgrades. However, the previous was not an MSI. It was not according to best practices. It does, however, in registry HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Uninstall{GUID} specify an UninstallString. Using a RegistrySearch I can easy find the command below, which I store in UNINSTALL_CMD. RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\PROFES~1\RunTime\10\01\Intel32\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information\{GUID}\setup.exe" -l0x9 -removeonly 4: I cannot get the hang of the CustomAction needed to perform the actual uninstall. <CustomAction Id="ca.UninstPrev" Property="UNINSTALL_CMD" ExeCommand="" /> The MSI logs says: Info 1721. There is a problem with this Windows Installer package. A program required for this install to complete could not be run. Contact your support personnel or package vendor. Action: ca.UninstallPrevious, location: RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\PROFES~1\RunTime\10\01\Intel32\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information{GUID}\setup.exe" -l0x9 -removeonly, command: Anyone seeing what I am doing wrong here? Regards Leif

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  • How to make this OO?

    - by John
    Hello, Sorry for the poor title,I'm new to OOP so I don't know what is the term for what I need to do. I have, say, 10 different Objects that inherit one Object.They have different amount and type of class members,but all of them have one property in common - Visible. type TObj1=class(TObject) private a:integer; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; TObj2=class(TObject) private b:String; ...(More members) Visible:Boolean; end; ...(Other 8 objects) For each of them I have a variable. var Obj1:TObj1; Obj2:TObj2; Obj3:TObj3; ....(Other 7 objects) Rule 1: Only one object can be initialized at a time(others have to be freed) to be visible. For this rule I have a global variable var CurrentVisibleObj:TObject; //Because they all inherit TObject Finally there is a procedure that changes visibility. procedure ChangeObjVisibility(newObj:TObject); begin CurrentVisibleObj.Free; //Free the old object CurrentVisibleObj:=newObj; //assign the new object CurrentVisibleObj:= ??? //Create new object CurrentVisibleObj.Visible:=true; //Set visibility to new object end; There is my problem,I don't know how to initialize it,because the derived class is unknown. How do I do this? I simplified the explanation,in the project there are TFrames each having different controls and I have to set visible/not visible the same way(By leaving only one frame initialized). Sorry again for the title,I'm very new to OOP.

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  • Overlaying 2D paths on UIImage without scaling artifacts

    - by tat0
    I need to draw a path along the shape of an image in a way that it is always matching its position on the image independent of the image scale. Think of this like the hybrid view of Google Maps where streets names and roads are superimposed on top of the aerial pictures. Furthermore, this path will be drawn by the user's finger movements and I need to be able to retrieve the path keypoints on the image pixel coordinates. The user zooms-in in order to more precisely set the paths location. I manage to somehow make it work using this approach: -Create a custom UIView called CanvasView that handles touches interaction and delivers scaling, rotation, translation values to either the UIImageView or PathsView (see bellow) depending on a flag: deliverToImageOrPaths. -Create a UIImageView holding the base image. This is set as a children of CanvasView -Create a custom UIView called PathsView that keeps track of the 2D paths geometry and draws itself with a custom drawRect. This is set as children of the UIImageView. So hierarchy: CanvasView - UIImageView -PathsView In this way when deliverToImageOrPaths is YES, finger gestures transforms both the UIImageView and its child PathsView. When deliverToImageOrPaths is NO the gestures affect only the PathsView altering its geometry. So far so good. QUESTION: The problem I have is that when scaling the base UIImageView (via its .transform property) the PathsView is scaled with aliasing artifacts. drawRect is still being called on the PathsView but I guess it's performing the drawing using the original buffer size and then interpolating. How can I solve this issue? Are there better ways to implement these features? PS: I tried changing the PathsView layer class to CATiledLayer with levelsOfDetailBias 4 and levelsOfDetail 4. It solves the aliasing problem to some extent but it's unacceptable slow to render.

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  • objective-c 2.0 properties and 'retain'

    - by Adam
    Stupid question, but why do we need to use 'retain' when declaring a property? Doesn't it get retained anyway when it's assigned something? Looking at this example, it seems that an object is automatically retained when alloc'ed, so what's the point? #import "Fraction.h" #import <stdio.h> int main( int argc, const char *argv[] ) { Fraction *frac1 = [[Fraction alloc] init]; Fraction *frac2 = [[Fraction alloc] init]; // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // increment them [frac1 retain]; // 2 [frac1 retain]; // 3 [frac2 retain]; // 2 // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // decrement [frac1 release]; // 2 [frac2 release]; // 1 // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // release them until they dealloc themselves [frac1 release]; // 1 [frac1 release]; // 0 [frac2 release]; // 0 ¦output Fraction 1 retain count: 1 Fraction 2 retain count: 1 Fraction 1 retain count: 3 Fraction 2 retain count: 2 Fraction 1 retain count: 2 Fraction 2 retain count: 1 Deallocing fraction Deallocing fraction This is driving me crazy!

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