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  • clean html a string by element id using php

    - by user327140
    Hi, as you can see by the subject am looking for a tool for cleaning up a HTML string in php using a HTML id property, example: According to the following PHP string I wish to clean the HTML erasing the black11 $test = ' <div id="block1"> <div id="block11">Hello1 <span>more html here...</span></div> <div id="block12">Hello2 <span>more html here...</span></div> </div> <div id="block2"></div> '; Will became $test = ' <div id="block1"> <div id="block12">Hello2 <span>more html here...</span></div> </div> <div id="block2"></div> '; I already tried the tool from htmlpurifier.org and can't get the desirable result. Only thing I achieved was removing elements by tag; erasing id; erasing class. Is there any simple way to achieve this using purifier or other? Thanks in advance,

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  • assigning width to li

    - by badnaam
    I am using jquery ui tabs, which requires the tabs to be <li> elements, by default at least. I only need 2 tabs, but I am not able to size them so that they are both equal and take up 100% of available width of the ul. here is my code. <div id="intro_tabs" class="tabs"> <ul id="intro_nav"> <li> <h3><a href ="#tabs-1" class="null_link"><%= t('home.index.what_is_it') %></a></h3> </li> <li> <h3><a href ="#tabs-2" class="null_link"><%= t('home.index.how_works') %></a></h3> </li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <%= simple_format t 'home.index.what_intro_details' %> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <div id="intro_accordion"> <h3><a href="#">Users</a></h3> <div> <%= t 'home.index.how_intro_details_user' %> </div> <h3><a href="#">Merchants</a></h3> <div> <%= t 'home.index.how_intro_details_merchant' %> </div> </div> </div> </div> I have tried using css property width:50%, on both li's but it doesn't work. Thanks

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  • Creating a framework for ASP.NET web forms similar to Flex states.

    - by Shawn Simon
    I really enjoy the flex states framework. You define a few states for your control, and then can set child controls to only appear in certain states. Check out this code: <s:states> <s:State name="signin"/> <s:State name="register"/> </s:states> <mx:FormItem label="Last name:" includeIn="register" id="lastNameItem" alpha="0.0"> <s:TextInput id="lastName" width="220"/> </mx:FormItem> Now the last name form will only appear in the register screen. This would be really useful I think in .NET where you use the page for views like update / insert. I was considering extending the Page element to have a states property using extension methods, and adding the include in to controls. This way I could auto-hide controls based on the current view at render time. What is even cooler in Flex, is that you can use different handlers / properties based on the current state. <s:Button label="Sign in" label.register="Register" id="loginButton" enabled="true" click.signin="signin()" click.register="register()"/> I'm sure there's a way I could implement something similar to this as well. Do you think this is a good idea? Or does it just add a level of abstraction to framework that already has a poor separation of concerns?

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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  • setting up 301 redirects: dynamic urls to static urls

    - by MS
    We are currently using a template-based website and are hoping to move to a site with static urls. Our domain will stay the same. I understand that using 301 redirects in a .htaccess file is the preferred method -- and the one that has the highest chance of preserving our google rankings. I am still new at all this and am having a hard time figuring out the proper way to code it all. Over a hundred of our pages are indexed. They all have a similar URL but with different pageIDs: http://www.realestate-bigbear.com/Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 Some link out to provided content, ex. /RealEstateNews/Default.aspx Then there are many that flow from the main featured listings page: /ListNow/Default.aspx Down to all the specific properties.. where the PropertyId changes /ListNow/Property.aspx?PropertyID=2048098 would a simple set of codes work... like the following.... redirect 301 /Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 www.realestate.bigbear.com/SearchBigBearMLS.htm or do I need to do something entirely different?

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • Virtual properties duplicated during serialization when XmlElement attribute used

    - by Laramie
    The Goal: XML serialize an object that contains a list of objects of that and its derived types. The resulting XML should not use the xsi:type attribute to describe the type, to wit the names of the serialized XML elements would be an assigned name specific to the derived type, not always that of the base class, which is the default behavior. The Attempt: After exploring IXmlSerializable and IXmlSerializable with eerie XmlSchemaProvider methods and voodoo reflection to return specialized schemas and an XmlQualifiedName over the course of days, I found I was able to use the simple [XmlElement] attribute to accomplish the goal... almost. The Problem: Overridden properties appear twice when serializing. The exception reads "The XML element 'overriddenProperty' from namespace '' is already present in the current scope. Use XML attributes to specify another XML name or namespace for the element." I attempted using a *Specified property (see code), but it didn't work. Sample Code: Class Declaration using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlInclude(typeof(DerivedClass))] public class BaseClass { public BaseClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public virtual string Virtual { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public bool VirtualSpecified { get { return (this is BaseClass); } set { } } [XmlElement(ElementName = "B", Type = typeof(BaseClass), IsNullable = false)] [XmlElement(ElementName = "D", Type = typeof(DerivedClass), IsNullable = false)] public List<BaseClass> Children { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public DerivedClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public override string Virtual { get { return "always return spackle"; } set { } } } Driver: BaseClass baseClass = new BaseClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; BaseClass baseClass2 = new BaseClass(){}; DerivedClass derivedClass1 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; DerivedClass derivedClass2 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass1); baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass2); derivedClass1.Children.Add(baseClass2); I've been wrestling with this on and off for weeks and can't find the answer anywhere.

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • How to set QNetworkReply properties to get correct NCBI pages?

    - by Claire Huang
    I try to get this following url using the downloadURL function: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/nuccore/27884304 But the data is not as what we can see through the browser. Now I know it's because that I need to give the correct information such as browser, how can I know what kind of information I need to set, and how can I set it? (By setHeader function??) In VC++, we can use CInternetSession and CHttpConnection Object to get the correct information without setting any other detail information, is there any similar way in Qt or other cross-platform C++ network lib?? (Yes, I need the the cross-platform property.) QNetworkReply::NetworkError downloadURL(const QUrl &url, QByteArray &data) { QNetworkAccessManager manager; QNetworkRequest request(url); request.setHeader(QNetworkRequest::ContentTypeHeader ,"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.0; en-US; rv:1.9.1.7) Gecko/20091221 Firefox/3.5.7 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729)"); QNetworkReply *reply = manager.get(request); QEventLoop loop; QObject::connect(reply, SIGNAL(finished()), &loop, SLOT(quit())); loop.exec(); QVariant statusCodeV = reply->attribute(QNetworkRequest::RedirectionTargetAttribute); QUrl redirectTo = statusCodeV.toUrl(); if (!redirectTo.isEmpty()) { if (redirectTo.host().isEmpty()) { const QByteArray newaddr = ("http://"+url.host()+redirectTo.encodedPath()).toAscii(); redirectTo.setEncodedUrl(newaddr); redirectTo.setHost(url.host()); } return (downloadURL(redirectTo, data)); } if (reply->error() != QNetworkReply::NoError) { return reply->error(); } data = reply->readAll(); delete reply; return QNetworkReply::NoError; }

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  • In what order does DOJO handles ajax requests?

    - by mm2887
    Hi, Using a form in a dialog box I am using Dojo in jsp to save the form in my database. After that request is completed using dojo.xhrPost() I am sending in another request to update a dropdown box that should include the added form object that was just saved, but for some reason the request to update the dropdown is executed before saving the form in the database even though the form save is called first. Using Firebug I can see that the getLocations() request is completed before the sendForm() request. This is the code: Add Team sendForm("ajaxResult1", "addTeamForm"); dijit.byId("addTeamDialog").hide(); getLocations("locationsTeam"); </script> function sendForm(target, form){ var targetNode = dojo.byId(target); var xhrArgs = { form: form, url: "ajax", handleAs: "text", load: function(data) { targetNode.innerHTML = data; }, error: function(error) { targetNode.innerHTML = "An unexpected error occurred: " + error; } } //Call the asynchronous xhrGet var deferred = dojo.xhrPost(xhrArgs); } function getLocations(id) { var targetNode = dojo.byId(id); var xhrArgs = { url: "ajax", handleAs: "text", content: { location: "yes" }, load: function(data) { targetNode.innerHTML = data; }, error: function(error) { targetNode.innerHTML = "An unexpected error occurred: " + error; } } //Call the asynchronous xhrGet var deferred = dojo.xhrGet(xhrArgs); } Why is this happening? Is there way to make the first request complete first before the second executes? To reduce the possibilities of why this is happening I tried setting the cache property in xhrGet to false but the result is still the same. Please help!

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  • Setting objects (not users) inactive after period of time in asp.net mvc

    - by bastijn
    This question is mainly to verify my current idea. I have a series of objects which I want to be active for a specified amount of time. For instance objects like ads which are shown in the ad space only for the amount of time bought, objects in search results which should only pop up when active, and frontpage posts which should be set to inactive after a prespecified time. My current idea is to just give those type of objects a StartDate and EndDate and filter the search routines to only show results which fall in the range StartDate < currentDate < EndDate. Is this the normal structure or should there be some sort of auto-routine which routinely checks for objects which are "over-time" and set a property "inactive" to true or something. Seems like this approach is such a hassle since I need a checker which runs say, every 5 minutes, to scan all DB objects. Seems like a bad idea to me. So is the first structure the most commonly used or are there any other options? When searching on google or SO the search queries only return results setting users inactive.

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  • Java and dynamic variables

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, I am wondering whether it is possible to make dynamic variables in Java. In other words, variables that change depending on my instructions. FYI, I am making a trading program. A given merchant will have an array of items for sale for various prices. The dynamism I am calling for comes in because each category of items for sale has its own properties. For example, a book item has two properties: int pages, and boolean hardCover. In contrast, a bookmark item has one property, String pattern. Here are skeleton snippets of code so you can see what I am trying to do: public class Merchants extends /* certain parent class */ { // only 10 items for sale to begin with Stock[] itemsForSale = new Stock[10]; // Array holding Merchants public static Merchants[] merchantsArray = new Merchants[maxArrayLength]; // method to fill array of stock goes here } and public class Stock { int stockPrice; int stockQuantity; String stockType; // e.g. book and bookmark // Dynamic variables here, but they should only be invoked depending on stockType int pages; boolean hardCover; String pattern; }

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  • Execute sybase stored proc from hibernate

    - by Padmanabh
    I am having issues with executing a simple sybase stored proc from hibernate. The procedure takes some input and returns one record. I tried with the following tag in hibernate mappings file and java code. <hibernate-mapping> <sql-query name="sybaseproc" callable="true"> <return class="Myentity"> <return-property name="next" column="next"/> </return> { ? = call nextnum(?,?) } </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> java code is as follows Query q = session.getNamedQuery("sybaseproc"); q.setString(0,"test"); q.setInteger(1,new Integer(10)); Myentity entity = (Myentity) q.uniqueResult(); When I run my test. I get a error saying "Errors in Named Query sybaseproc" and the test does not run. Any help is appreciated. Thanks Padmanabh

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Setting WPF control background image using styles?

    - by aviv
    Hi, I have a set of buttons inside a stack panel. I want them all to have a background image. How can i do it using styles? since i don't want to set manually the Background image for each button. Here is a code snippet: <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" Height="100px" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <StackPanel.Resources> <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="2,4" /> </Style> </StackPanel.Resources> <Button Width="127px" Height="79px" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"> <Button.Background> <ImageBrush ImageSource="images/Tab.png" /> </Button.Background> </Button> <Button>A</Button> <Button>R</Button> <Button>S</Button> </StackPanel> Thanks.

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  • How to change the view angle and label value of a chart .NET C#

    - by George
    Short Description I am using charts for a specific application where i need to change the view angle of the rendered 3D Pie chart and value of automatic labels from pie label names to corresponding pie values. This how the chart looks: Initialization This is how i initialize it: Dictionary<string, decimal> secondPersonsWithValues = HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); decimal[] yValues = new decimal[secondPersonsWithValues.Values.Count]; //VALUES string[] xValues = new string[secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.Count]; //LABELS secondPersonsWithValues.Keys.CopyTo(xValues, 0); secondPersonsWithValues.Values.CopyTo(yValues, 0); incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].ChartType = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.SeriesChartType.Pie; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].Points.DataBindXY(xValues, yValues); incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.Enable3D = true; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"].CustomProperties = "PieLabelStyle=Outside"; incomeExpenseChart.Legends["Default"].Enabled = true; incomeExpenseChart.ChartAreas["Default"].Area3DStyle.LightStyle = System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.LightStyle.Realistic; incomeExpenseChart.Series["Default"]["PieDrawingStyle"] = "SoftEdge"; Basically i am querying data from database using the HistoryModel.getSecondPersonWithValues(); to get pairs as Dictionary<string, decimal> where key is the person and value is ammount. Problem #1 What i need is to be able to change the marked labels from person names to the ammounts or add another label of ammounts with the same colors (See Image). Problem #2 Another problem is that i need to change the view angle of 3D Pie chart. Maybe it's very simple and I just don't know the needed property or maybe i need to override some paint event. Either ways any kind of ways would be appriciated. Thanks in advance George.

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  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

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  • IList<Item> Collection Class accessing database

    - by Mike
    Hi, I have a database with Users. Users have Items. These Items can change actively. How do you access the items in a collection type format? For the user, I fill all the user properties at the time of instantiation. If I load the user's items at the time of the instantiation, and the items change, they will have old data. I was thinking, maybe I need an ItemCollection class and have that a field/property apart of the user class, that way to traverse all the user's items I could use a foreach loop. So, my question is, what is the best practice/best way of accessing the items from a database using some sort of collection? On accessing the particular Item, it needs to get the latest database information, and when the user does do a foreach loop, the latest item information must be available. I.e. What I'm trying to do Console.WriteLine(User.Items[3].ID); returns 5. //this updates the item information and saves it to the database. User.Items[3].ID = 13; //Add a new item to the database. User.Items.Add(new Item { id = 17}); foreach (Item item in User.Items) { //this would traverse all items in the database. //not some cached copy at the time of instantiation of the user. }

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  • Why is PackageInfo.requestedPermissions always null?

    - by Luke
    I'm trying to enumerate all the permissions used by all the installed packages, however when I check the requestedPermissions property for each of my installed packages it is always null. The following is the code that does this: private HashMap<String, List<String>> buildMasterList() { HashMap<String, List<String>> result = new HashMap<String, List<String>>(); List<PackageInfo> packages = getPackageManager().getInstalledPackages(PackageManager.GET_PERMISSIONS); for (int i = 0; i < packages.size(); i++) { String[] packagePermissions = packages.get(i).requestedPermissions; Log.d("AppList", packages.get(i).packageName); if (packagePermissions != null) { for (int j = 0; j < packagePermissions.length; j++) { if (!result.containsKey(packagePermissions[j])) { result.put(packagePermissions[j], new ArrayList<String>()); } result.get(packagePermissions[j]).add(packages.get(i).packageName); } } else { Log.d("AppList", packages.get(i).packageName + ": no permissions"); } } return result; } Edit: Oops! I just needed to pass the PackageManager.GET_PERMISSIONS flag to getInstalledPackages(). Updated the code snippet.

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  • MVC Localization of Default Model Binder

    - by Dai Bok
    Hi, I am currently trying to figure out how to localize the error messages generated by MVC. Let me use the default model binder as an example, so I can explain the problem. Assuming I have a form, where a user enters thier age. The user then enters "ten" in to the form, but instead of getting the expected error of "Age must be beween 18 and 25." the message "The value 'ten' is not valid for Age." is displayed. The entity's age property is defined below: [Range(18, 25, ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof (Errors), ErrorMessageResourceName = "Age", ErrorMessage = "Range_ErrorMessage")] public int Age { get; set; } After some digging, I notice that this error text comes from the System.Web.Mvc.Resources.DefaultModelBinder_ValueInvalid in the MvcResources.resx file. Now, how can create localized versions of this file? As A solution, for example, should I download MVC source and add MvcResources.en_GB.resx, MvcResources.fr_FR.resx, MvcResources.es_ES.resx and MvcResources.de_DE.resx, and then compile my own version of MVC.dll? But I don't like this idea. Any one else know a better way?

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  • WPF abnormal CPU usage for animation

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    HI! I am developing WPF application and client reports extreamly high CPU usage (90%) (whereas i am unable to repeat that behavior). I have traced bootleneck down to these lines. It is simple glowing animation for small single led control (blinking led). What could be reason for this simple annimation taking up SO huge CPU resources? <Trigger Property="State"> <Trigger.Value> <local:BlinkingLedStatus>Blinking</local:BlinkingLedStatus> </Trigger.Value> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Name="beginStoryBoard"> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="glow" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" AutoReverse="True" From="0.0" To="1.0" Duration="0:0:0.5" RepeatBehavior="Forever"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <StopStoryboard BeginStoryboardName="beginStoryBoard"/> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger>

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  • Nested factory methods in Objective-C

    - by StephenT
    What's the best way to handle memory management with nested factory methods, such as in the following example? @implementation MyClass + (MyClass *) SpecialCase1 { return [MyClass myClassWithArg:1]; } + (MyClass *) SpecialCase2 { return [MyClass myClassWithArg:2]; } + (MyClass *) myClassWithArg:(int)arg { MyClass *instance = [[[MyClass alloc] initWithArg:arg] autorelease]; return instance; } - (id) initWithArg:(int)arg { self = [super init]; if (nil != self) { self.arg = arg; } return self; } @end The problem here (I think) is that the autorelease pool is flushed before the SpecialCaseN methods return to their callers. Hence, the ultimate caller of SpecialCaseN can't rely on the result having been retained. (I get "[MyClass copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x100110250" on trying to assign the result of [MyClass SpecialCase1] to a property on another object.) The reason for wanting the SpecialCaseN factory methods is that in my actual project, there are multiple parameters required to initialize the instance and I have a pre-defined list of "model" instances that I'd like to be able to create easily. I'm sure there's a better approach than this.

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  • How to use <c:out value=...> taglib

    - by artaxerxe
    I have the class A: package a; public class A { private int x = 9; public int getX() { return x; } } and the ajsp.jsp file: <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib prefix="c" uri="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> </head> <body> <jsp:useBean id = "a" class = "a.A" /> <c:out value = "${a.x}" /> </body> </html> when i run it, it gives an error : org.apache.jasper.JasperException: /ajsp.jsp(11,0) PWC6236: According to TLD or attribute directive in tag file, attribute value does not accept any expressions if instead of <c:out value = "${a.x}" /> i use <jsp:getProperty property="x" name="a"/> it goes perfect. So, what is the problem? Thank advance.

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