Search Results

Search found 22308 results on 893 pages for 'floating point'.

Page 764/893 | < Previous Page | 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770 771  | Next Page >

  • Object disapear/don't scale in the Z-AXIS of OPENGL.

    - by user315684
    This code is susposed to have a QUAD orbit around a center point in basically a circle. The problem is while it does the X rotation fine it disapears when it moves in Z axis and doesn't appear to change in size. It feel like it's rendering everything in Orthagraphic view or something. This is my first OpenGL project. OPENGL CODE START HERE glClearColor(0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glMatrixMode (GL_PROJECTION); glPushMatrix(); //glRotatef(theta, 0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glScalef(0.75f, 0.75f, 0.75f); glTranslatef(planeX, -0.0f, 0.0f); glBegin(GL_QUADS); glColor3f(1.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); glVertex3f(0.0f, 0.0f, planeZ); glColor3f(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f); glVertex3f(0.0f, 1.0f, planeZ); glColor3f(0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glVertex3f(1.0f, 1.0f, planeZ); glColor3f(0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glVertex3f(1.0f, 0.0f, planeZ); glEnd(); glPopMatrix(); SwapBuffers(hDC); theta += 1.0f; planeX = (sin(0.0314159265f*theta)); planeZ = (cos(0.0314159265f*theta)); Sleep (1); ENDS HERE

    Read the article

  • SQL: Limit rows linked to each joined row

    - by SolidSnakeGTI
    Hello, I've certain situation that requires certain result set from MySQL query, let's see the current query first & then ask my question: SELECT thread.dateline AS tdateline, post.dateline AS pdateline, MIN(post.dateline) FROM thread AS thread LEFT JOIN post AS post ON(thread.threadid = post.threadid) LEFT JOIN forum AS forum ON(thread.forumid = forum.forumid) WHERE post.postid != thread.firstpostid AND thread.open = 1 AND thread.visible = 1 AND thread.replycount >= 1 AND post.visible = 1 AND (forum.options & 1) AND (forum.options & 2) AND (forum.options & 4) AND forum.forumid IN(1,2,3) GROUP BY post.threadid ORDER BY tdateline DESC, pdateline ASC As you can see, mainly I need to select dateline of threads from 'thread' table, in addition to dateline of the second post of each thread, that's all under the conditions you see in the WHERE CLAUSE. Since each thread has many posts, and I need only one result per thread, I've used GROUP BY CLAUSE for that purpose. This query will return only one post's dateline with it's related unique thread. My questions are: How to limit returned threads per each forum!? Suppose I need only 5 threads -as a maximum- to be returned for each forum declared in the WHERE CLAUSE 'forum.forumid IN(1,2,3)', how can this be achieved. Is there any recommendations for optimizing this query (of course after solving the first point)? Notes: I prefer not to use sub-queries, but if it's the only solution available I'll accept it. Double queries not recommended. I'm sure there's a smart solution for this situation. I'm using MySQL 4.1+, but if you know the answer for another engine, just share. Appreciated advice in advance :)

    Read the article

  • What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

    - by int3
    I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Interpretation of range(n) and boolean list, one-to-one map, simpler?

    - by HH
    #!/usr/bin/python # # Description: bitwise factorization and then trying to find # an elegant way to print numbers # Source: http://forums.xkcd.com/viewtopic.php?f=11&t=61300#p2195422 # bug with large numbers such as 99, but main point in simplifying it # def primes(n): # all even numbers greater than 2 are not prime. s = [False]*2 + [True]*2 + [False,True]*((n-4)//2) + [False]*(n%2) i = 3; while i*i < n: # get rid of ** and skip even numbers. s[i*i : n : i*2] = [False]*(1+(n-i*i)//(i*2)) i += 2 # skip non-primes while not s[i]: i += 2 return s # TRIAL: can you find a simpler way to print them? # feeling the overuse of assignments but cannot see a way to get it simpler # p = 49 boolPrimes = primes(p) numbs = range(len(boolPrimes)) mydict = dict(zip(numbs, boolPrimes)) print([numb for numb in numbs if mydict[numb]]) Something I am looking for, can you get TRIAL to be of the extreme simplicity below? Any such method? a=[True, False, True] b=[1,2,3] b_a # any such simple way to get it evaluated to [1,3] # above a crude way to do it in TRIAL

    Read the article

  • Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

    - by user1216775
    I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

    Read the article

  • lightbox dynamic image retrieval

    - by GSTAR
    I am constructing a lighbox gallery, currently experimenting with FancyBox (http://fancybox.net) and ColorBox (http://colorpowered.com/colorbox). By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, I am wanting to have the image link URLs pointing to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg"> I want to do: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $user=$photo->user; $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('user'=>$user, 'photo'=>$photo, true)); } } At some point in the future the function will also update the view count of the image. Now this approach is working to an extent - most images load up but some do not load up (the lightbox gets displayed in a malformed state). I think the reason for this is because it is not processing the function quick enough. For example when I click the "next" button it needs to go to the URL, process the function and retreive/output the response. Does anybody know how I can get this working properly?

    Read the article

  • jQuery trigger function on change

    - by Michael Pasqualone
    I have the following two slider functions which work well and display like so: I have diskAmount and transferAmount stored in global vars, however what I am now trying to figure out is how do I get the sum of the two to initially show as the monthly fee, and then update when either of the two sliders are changed. So in my screenshot above the initial state will be $24.75, and the fee will update if the sliders change. Can anyone point me in the right direction? I get can the initial fee to show, but can't figure out how to get 1 function to call another function within jQuery. $(function() { $("#disk").slider({ value:3, min: 1, max: 80, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#diskamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * diskCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial diskamount state $("#diskamount").val($("#disk").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial diskamountUnit state diskAmount = $("#disk").slider("value") * diskCost; $("#diskamountUnit").val('$' + diskAmount.toFixed(2)); }); $(function() { $("#data").slider({ value:25, min: 1, max: 200, step: 1, slide: function(event, ui) { $("#dataamount").val(ui.value + ' Gb'); $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + parseFloat(ui.value * transferCost).toFixed(2)); } }); // Set initial dataamount state $("#dataamount").val($("#data").slider("value") + ' Gb'); // Set initial dataamountUnit state transferAmount = $("#data").slider("value") * transferCost; $("#dataamountUnit").val('$' + transferAmount.toFixed(2)); });

    Read the article

  • IIS redirect url for virtual directory

    - by Jouni
    Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

    Read the article

  • Recommendation for using equals in Entities and avoiding LazyInitializationExceptions?

    - by huxendupsel
    In the beginning there is a problem that wants to be solved. In my case i got an LazyInitializationException while using indexof in a Collection to retrieve an Object for manipulation. Here i start to think about using equals in EntityBeans (OR-Mapper at all). I know there are some discussions about overriding equals in association with OR-Mapper as hibernate like [1] Entities equals(), hashCode() and toString(). How to correctly implement them? [2] To equals and hashcode or not on entity classes, that is the question. [3] Overriding equals and hashCode in Java I currently have some entities which implements the equals but inside the code i could not use equals several times because of the LazyInitializationExceptions. So i had to workaround and use eg. the name property of the object to identify it's equality. From my point of view the whole 'LazyInitializationException-thing' is not really mentioned in this questions. I'd like to know have you got some good patterns or real live recommendations how to avoid such exception in an equal-Method. Shall i use some helper Methodes to distinguish if a Object of a class is already initialized (4) or should i apdicate the use of equals and use helper classes instead (2)? And what is about catching LazyInitializationExceptions in the equals? [Edit]: If you put equals in context with the initialization of the Object then it will gain importance. Sometimes it is nessesary to have the Object fully initialized but sometimes you don't want to. Because you just need the Object itself (name, id, ...) not its Collection-Properties. So just for equalization you have to reattach the Object and load the whole bunch you don't realy need? Are there any other solutions for such a problem?

    Read the article

  • VB.Net Memory Issue

    - by Skulmuk
    We have an application that has some interesting memory usage issues. When it first opens, the program uses aroun 50-60MB of memory. This stays consistent on 32-bit machines. On 64-bit machines, however, re-activating the form in any way (clicking, dragging, alt-tabbing, etc.) adds around another 50MB to it's memory usage. It repeats this process several times before resetting back to around 45MB, at which point the cycle begins again. I've done some research and a lot of people have said that VB in general has pretty poor garbage collection, which could be affecting the software in some way. However, I've yet to find a solution. There are no events fired when the application is activated (as shown by 32-bit usage) - the applications is merely sitting awaiting the user's actions. At load, the system pulls some data into a tree view, but that's the only external connection, and it only re-fires the routine when the user makes a change to something and saves the change. Has anyone else experienced anything this strange, and if so, does anyone know of what might fix it? It seems strange that it only occurs under x64 systems. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Best practices to deal with "slightly different" branches of source code

    - by jedi_coder
    This question is rather agnostic than related to a certain version control program. Assume there is a source code tree under certain distributed version control. Let's call it A. At some point somebody else clones it and gets its own copy. Let's call it B. I'll call A and B branches, even if some version control tools have different definitions for branches (some might call A and B repositories). Let's assume that branch A is the "main" branch. In the context of distributed version control this only means that branch A is modified much more actively and the owner of branch B periodically syncs (pulls) new updates from branch A. Let's consider that a certain source file in branch B contains a class (again, it's also language agnostic). The owner of branch B considers that some class methods are more appropriate and groups them together by moving them inside the class body. Functionally nothing has changed - this is a very trivial refactoring of the code. But the change gets reflected in diffs. Now, assuming that this change from branch B will never get merged into branch A, the owner of branch B will always get this difference when pulling from branch A and merging into his own workspace. Even if there's only one such trivial change, the owner of branch B needs to resolve conflicts every time when pulling from branch A. As long as branches A and B are modified independently, more and more conflicts like this appear. What is the workaround for this situation? Which workflow should the owner of branch B follow to minimize the effort for periodically syncing with branch A?

    Read the article

  • hash fragments and collisions cont.

    - by Mark
    For this application I've mine I feel like I can get away with a 40 bit hash key, which seems awfully low, but see if you can confirm my reasoning (I want a small key because I want a small filename and the key will be converted to a filename): (Note: only accidental collisions a concern - no security issues.) A key point here is that the population in question is divided into groups, and a collision is only relevant if it occurs within the same group. A "group" is a directory on a user's system (the contents of files are hashed and a collision is only relevant if it occurs for files within the same directory). So with speculating roughly 100,000 potential users, say 2^17, that corresponds to 2^18 "groups" assuming 2 directories per user on average. So with a 40 bit key I can expect 2^(20+9) files created (among all users) before a collision occurs for some user somewhere. (Or IOW 2^((40+18)/2), due to the "birthday effect".) That's an average 4096 unique files created per user, for 2^17 users, before a single collision occurs for some user somewhere. And then that long again before another collision occurs somewhere (right?)

    Read the article

  • Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

    - by Geren White
    I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I tile and overlay images in WPF?

    - by imnlfn
    I'm very new to WPF and trying to port an application from VB6 to C# and XAML. What I need to do now is create one big image out of a number of small ones, arranged like a series of "tiles." Some of these smaller ones will have overlays superimposed on them. In VB6, accomplishing both the tiling and overlaying would simply be a matter of using the PaintPicture method with the PictureBox control. This is my attempt at the tiling and overlaying in one step (though really the overlaying could occur beforehand): ImageDrawing Drawing1 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\one.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(0, 0, 40, 130)); ImageDrawing Drawing2 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\two.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(40, 0, 45, 130)); ImageDrawing Drawing3 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\overlay.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(40, 0, 45, 130)); DrawingGroup myDrawingGroup = new DrawingGroup(); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing1); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing2); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing3); myImage.Source = new DrawingImage(myDrawingGroup); The tiling works fine, but the overlay is a no-go. I was wondering if someone could point me towards a means of accomplishing the overlays and someone could indicate whether this is the best way to do the tiling. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • How to change the Array Element names in XmlSerialization?

    - by MSDN Geek
    Hi Guys, Consider the following code: [Serializable] public class Human { public string Name { get; set; } } Then, using (MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream()) { Human[] mans = new Human[] { new Human() { Name = "Moim" } }; XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Human[])); xs.Serialize(ms, mans); string s = System.Text.ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(ms.ToArray()); } At this point, the variable s will hold a value like, <?xml version="1.0"?> <ArrayOfHuman xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Human> <Name>Moim</Name> </Human> </ArrayOfHuman> Now all I need to do is, changing the xml array root element 'ArrayOfHuman' to something like 'MyFavoriteArrayRootName'. I have seen the IXmlSerializable interface but, that skips the root element name. Anybody has got any idea how to achieve this? All comments will be greatly appreciated. Best regards.

    Read the article

  • What's the steps for SQL optimization and changes without reflect live system ?

    - by Space Cracker
    we have a big portal that build using SharePoint 2007 , asp.net 3.5 , SQL Server 2005 .. many developers work in it since 01/2008 and we are now doing huge analysis for current SQL Databases [not share-point DB ] to optimize and enhance it. The main db have about 330 table and 1720 stored procedure (SP) created from 01/2008 till now Many table names / Columns is very long and we want to short it we found SP names is written in 25 format :( , some of them are very complex and also we want to rename many SP parameters need to be renamed one of the biggest table is Registered user table, that will be spitted in more than one table for some optimization, many columns name will be changed I searched for the way that i can rename table names ,columns and i found SQL refactor tool but i still trying it .. my questions : Is SQl Refactor is the best tool for renaming ? or is there any other one ? if i want to make it manually, is there any references or best practice for that ? How can i do such changes in fast and stable way .. i search for recommendations and case studies if exist ?

    Read the article

  • Is `super` local variable?

    - by Michael
    // A : Parent @implementation A -(id) init { // change self here then return it } @end A A *a = [[A alloc] init]; a. Just wondering, if self is a local variable or global? If it's local then what is the point of self = [super init] in init? I can successfully define some local variable and use like this, why would I need to assign it to self. -(id) init { id tmp = [super init]; if(tmp != nil) { //do stuff } return tmp; } b. If [super init] returns some other object instance and I have to overwrite self then I will not be able to access A's methods any more, since it will be completely new object? Am I right? c. super and self pointing to the same memory and the major difference between them is method lookup order. Am I right? sorry, don't have Mac to try, learning theory as for now...

    Read the article

  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

    Read the article

  • How to delay execution of a method in c#?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I have this if condition, if (sendSMS(Convert.ToInt32(DLComportNo.SelectedItem.Text), TxtDriMob.Text, TxtCliDet.Text) && sendSMS(Convert.ToInt32(DLComportNo.SelectedItem.Text), TxtCliMob.Text, TxtDriDet.Text)) { // I am inserting details to my db } and my sendSMS method looks like this, private bool sendSMS(int portNo, string mobNo, string details) { try { SerialPort SerialPort1 = new SerialPort(); SerialPort1.PortName = "COM" + portNo.ToString(); SerialPort1.BaudRate = 9600; SerialPort1.Parity = Parity.None; SerialPort1.DataBits = 8; SerialPort1.StopBits = StopBits.One; SerialPort1.RtsEnable = true; SerialPort1.DtrEnable = true; SerialPort1.Encoding.GetEncoder(); SerialPort1.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; SerialPort1.NewLine = Environment.NewLine; SerialPort1.Open(); SerialPort1.Write("AT" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGF=1" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGS=" + (char)34 + mobNo + (char)34 + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(1000); SerialPort1.Write(details + (char)26); Sleep(2000); SerialPort1.Close(); } catch { } return true; } What happens is when i use break point in my sendSMS i get my output (ie) both the methods get executed and messages are sent properly... But when i removed my breakpoint both the methods in the if statement are executed but message from the first method is sent and not from the second method.... Any suggestion?

    Read the article

  • Image resizing efficiency in C# and .NET 3.5

    - by Matthew Nichols
    I have written a web service to resize user uploaded images and all works correctly from a functional point of view, but it causes CPU usage to spike every time it is used. It is running on Windows Server 2008 64 bit. I have tried compiling to 32 and 64 bit and get about the same results. The heart of the service is this function: private Image CreateReducedImage(Image imgOrig, Size NewSize) { var newBM = new Bitmap(NewSize.Width, NewSize.Height); using (var newGrapics = Graphics.FromImage(newBM)) { newGrapics.CompositingQuality = CompositingQuality.HighSpeed; newGrapics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighSpeed; newGrapics.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.HighQualityBicubic; newGrapics.DrawImage(imgOrig, new Rectangle(0, 0, NewSize.Width, NewSize.Height)); } return newBM; } I put a profiler on the service and it seemed to indicate the vast majority of the time is spent in the GDI+ library itself and there is not much to be gained in my code. Questions: Am I doing something glaringly inefficient in my code here? It seems to conform to the example I have seen. Are there gains to be had in using libraries other than GDI+? The benchmarks I have seen seem to indicate that GDI+ does well compare to other libraries but I didn't find enough of these to be confident. Are there gains to be had by using "unsafe code" blocks? Please let me know if I have not included enough of the code...I am happy to put as much up as requested but don't want to be obnoxious in the post.

    Read the article

  • Which one gives you more advantages: Microsoft or SUN/Oracle certification?

    - by edwin.nathaniel
    Which one gives you more advantages: Microsoft or SUN/Oracle certification? If you don't mind, please relate your answer to your career (dev, sys-admin, dba), industry (finance, general consulting, business apps, software house), and location (where you live, does it influence your decision?) as well. One reason I asked this because I heard that having MCP (in C#, MCSAD or whatever the cert is called these days) could give you extra point from the employer perspective if they're a Microsoft Partner. I don't quite understand why and am also wondering if SUN/Oracle certificate holder have similar edge/benefit. I'm also interested to know if Certification plays role where you live. For example: certification could be a big negative sign in Silicon Valley, but might be helpful if you're in other US/Canada cities or outside USA/Canada. If you are an independent software consultant, do these certification helps you win bids? I totally understand that this question might be subjective and could be "closed". But it doesn't hurt to ask I suppose. I also understand that there are people who dislike/disagree (or have negative perspective on technology certification). While there are people who have the opinion that "these are not the kind of employers you would want to work with", I respect you guys, but sometime a pure software product company might not exist in certain cities in the world. And if certification can help one's career somewhere else, I guess that means more opportunities right? I've had experienced in both platforms: (short) .NET and (not too long) Java (minus Oracle DB stuff), but I think it's about time I have to pick one of them and be good at. Where I live right now might also dictates my career albeit insignificant. Anyhow, this last paragraph is just tiny blurb. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why newly created entity object with navigation property is automaticly added to ObjectContext?

    - by Levelbit
    I have to entities: Company and Location (one to many). When I create new Location entity object and assign navigation property(Company) with the navigation property of already existing Location object (Location _new = new Location(); _new.Company = _old.Company). It seems that at that point newly created object is added to Object Context automatically, because when I call SaveChanges method that object is insert to database although I didn't call ObjectContext.AddObject(_new). I'm new in EF so there is probably reason why I have result like this? Is there need to assign also CompanyReference filed too and how to do it? IDaoFactory daoFactory = new DaoFactory(); ILocationDao locaitonDao = daoFactory.GetLocationDao(); IEnumerable<Location> locations = locaitonDao.GetLocations(); Location _old = locations.First(); Location _new = new Location(); _new.LocationName = _old.LocationName; _new.Company = _old.Company;// 1 _new.Address = _old.Address; //... ContactEntities.SaveChanges();//2 If I execute line (1) instantly _new object is added to object context and I can see additional datarow in my datagrid after line (2) is executed.

    Read the article

  • Integration testing - can it be done right?

    - by Max
    I used TDD as a development style on some projects in the past two years, but I always get stuck on the same point: how can I test the integration of the various parts of my program? What I am currently doing is writing a testcase per class (this is my rule of thumb: a "unit" is a class, and each class has one or more testcases). I try to resolve dependencies by using mocks and stubs and this works really well as each class can be tested independently. After some coding, all important classes are tested. I then "wire" them together using an IoC container. And here I am stuck: How to test if the wiring was successfull and the objects interact the way I want? An example: Think of a web application. There is a controller class which takes an array of ids, uses a repository to fetch the records based on these ids and then iterates over the records and writes them as a string to an outfile. To make it simple, there would be three classes: Controller, Repository, OutfileWriter. Each of them is tested in isolation. What I would do in order to test the "real" application: making the http request (either manually or automated) with some ids from the database and then look in the filesystem if the file was written. Of course this process could be automated, but still: doesn´t that duplicate the test-logic? Is this what is called an "integration test"? In a book i recently read about Unit Testing it seemed to me that integration testing was more of an anti-pattern?

    Read the article

  • Replacing XML in File from "Document" in Java

    - by poeschlorn
    Hi, after processing my first steps in working with XML in java I am now at the point where I want to update some data in my XML/GPX file... Reaplacing it in my "Document" data type works great :) How here comes the question: how can I store the changed "document"-model back to my file? Do I have to do this by using the standart file-functions (via steams and so on) oder is the a more elegant way to do this? ;-) Here's the code I already worked out, maybe that could help. (the method getParsedXML is just puting the conversion from the file into an extra method) Document tmpDoc = getParsedXML(currentGPX); //XML Parsind tests: // Access to tag attribute <tag attribut="bla"> System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getAttributes().getNamedItem("lat").getTextContent()); // Access to the value of an child element <a><CHILD>ValueOfChild</CHILD></a> System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getChildNodes().item(5).getTextContent()); // Replacing access to tag attribute tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getAttributes().getNamedItem("lat").setTextContent("139.921055008"); System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getAttributes().getNamedItem("lat").getTextContent()); // Replacing access to child element value tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getChildNodes().item(5).setTextContent("Cala Sant Vicenç - Mallorca 2"); System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getChildNodes().item(5).getTextContent());

    Read the article

  • MySQL datetime fields and daylight savings time -- how do I reference the "extra" hour?

    - by Aaron
    I'm using the America/New York timezone. In the Fall we "fall back" an hour -- effectively "gaining" one hour at 2am. At the transition point the following happens: it's 01:59:00 -04:00 then 1 minute later it becomes: 01:00:00 -05:00 So if you simply say "1:30am" it's ambiguous as to whether or not you're referring to the first time 1:30 rolls around or the second. I'm trying to save scheduling data to a MySQL database and can't determine how to save the times properly. Here's the problem: "2009-11-01 00:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 00:30:00 -04:00 "2009-11-01 01:30:00" is stored internally as 2009-11-01 01:30:00 -05:00 This is fine and fairly expected. But how do I save anything to 01:30:00 -04:00? The documentation does not show any support for specifying the offset and, accordingly, when I've tried specifying the offset it's been duly ignored. The only solutions I've thought of involve setting the server to a timezone that doesn't use daylight savings time and doing the necessary transformations in my scripts (I'm using PHP for this). But that doesn't seem like it should be necessary. Many thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768 769 770 771  | Next Page >