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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • CakePHP 1.26: Bug in 'Security' component?

    - by Steve
    Okay, for those of you who may have read this earlier, I've done a little research and completely revamped my question. I've been having a problem where my form requests get blackholed by the Security component, although everything works fine when the Security component is disabled. I've traced it down to a single line in a form: <?php echo $form->create('Audition');?> <fieldset> <legend><?php __('Edit Audition');?></legend> <?php echo $form->input('ensemble'); echo $form->input('position'); echo $form->input('aud_date'); // The following line works fine... echo $form->input('owner'); // ...but the following line blackholes when Security included // and the form is submitted: // echo $form->input('owner', array('disabled'=>'disabled'); ?> </fieldset> <?php echo $form->end('Submit');?> (I've commented out the offending line for clarity) I think I'm following the rules by using the form helper; as far as I can tell, this is a bug in the Security component, but I'm too much of a CakePHP n00b to know for sure. I'd love to get some feedback, and if it's a real bug, I'll submit it to the CakePHP team. I'd also love to know if I'm just being dumb and missing something obvious here.

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  • ISBNs are used as primary key, now I want to add non-book things to the DB - should I migrate to EAN

    - by fish2000
    I built an inventory database where ISBN numbers are the primary keys for the items. This worked great for a while as the items were books. Now I want to add non-books. some of the non-books have EANs or ISSNs, some do not. It's in PostgreSQL with django apps for the frontend and JSON api, plus a few supporting python command-line tools for management. the items in question are mostly books and artist prints, some of which are self-published. What is nice about using ISBNs as primary keys is that in on top of relational integrity, you get lots of handy utilities for validating ISBNs, automatically looking up missing or additional information on the book items, etcetera, many of which I've taken advantage. some such tools are off-the-shelf (PyISBN, PyAWS etc) and some are hand-rolled -- I tried to keep all of these parts nice and decoupled, but you know how things can get. I couldn't find anything online about 'private ISBNs' or 'self-assigned ISBNs' but that's the sort of thing I was interested in doing. I doubt that's what I'll settle on, since there is already an apparent run on ISBN numbers. should I retool everything for EAN numbers, or migrate off ISBNs as primary keys in general? if anyone has any experience with working with these systems, I'd love to hear about it, your advice is most welcome.

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

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  • JQuery datepicker icon trigger broken after inserting data to database

    - by crisgine callano
    at first i got to load my icon for the JQuery datepicker but after i insert the value to my database the icon image is broken. im using Codeigniter framework. here's my html code: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html lang="en-US"> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>CRUD</title> <?php echo link_tag(base_url() . 'css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.23.custom.css'); ?> </head> <body> <div> <?php echo form_label('BDay:', 'bday'); $data = array( 'name' => 'bday', 'id' => 'datepicker' ); echo form_input($data); ?> </div> </body> </html> and here's my jscript: <script> $(function() { $( "#datepicker" ).datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, showOn: "button", buttonImage: "<?php echo base_url() . '/images/icons/calendar_24.png' ?>", buttonImageOnly: true, onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ $("input[name='bday']").val(dateText); } }); }); am i missing something? thanks!

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  • An online php debugger/code editor

    - by Zirak
    It's a simple deal: I'm sometimes in places where I don't have my laptop, and find myself with spare time and an idea for a project. But unfortunately, I can't do anything about it. I tried a variety of solutions, which include running IDEs (like phpstorm or Aptana) on a disc-on-key or cd (very slow and unappealing), trying several online solutions (like http://phpanywhere.net) and found that all of them are either buggy, overloaded or underloaded with features, just difficult to use, require FTP etc etc. All that is required here is a syntax highlighting and debugging alerts; no actual running of code. So the question is split into two: 1)Do you know of a good online php editor that you've used and enjoyed? 2)If no, then how would you go about making one? The second one seems a bit general, so I'll try and expand...It might be a good idea; if you can't find one, make one. The question is about the concept of making a syntax highlighter (shouldn't be too difficult), and the difficult part of catching php errors WITHOUT executing any php code. Thank you in advance.

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  • How do I implement "cash out" on my site using PayPal?

    - by Alex
    I have a credit system set up on my site where user A can purchase a document from user B, let's say for 1 credit and user B's account gets credited, let's say for $1. User B can then "cash out" and recieve the money they earned from my (the site's) PayPal account into their PayPal account (let's assume that their email address is valid for now). When user A purchases a credit, they are taken to PayPal where they can login and complete the purchase, for this purpose I have an IPN listener set up on my site that stores credit information to my site's database. However, I can't find a mechanism to send the "cash out" information (i.e. user's email and amount to be paid) to PayPal. To elaborate: I understand that PayPal sends the IPN when someone purchases from me, but how do I post from my site to PayPal when the user clicks the "cash out" button? I have seen mention of Mass Pay, but can't seem to locate any code samples to go from. Am I missing something, or is there perhaps a different (and better) way to do this? Thanks!

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  • Which languages and techniques can I use to improve my coding practices?

    - by Danjah
    I've been offered the opportunity upskill through study, while at work which is great. My background I am mostly self-taught, but have worked with many excellent people over the years - both self-taught and fully educated, and on many decent projects. I have mild experience in Actionscript, I'm getting better every day with my Javascript, and my CSS is angled at best practice, but needs a bit of modernising. I'm a traditional interface developer, I'm not stupid and I like a challenge. My goal I need to start seeing ways of applying better logic, optimising code, refactoring, different styles of development (agile, others?), and.. well I need to try and start thinking like.. a more solid programmer. Its hard to describe, I have good solutions and I'm efficient - but I KNOW that there's a bunch I am missing. I am already employed with a solid career, but I feel the need to fill gaps. My question/s Are there a set of guiding principles you can recommend I focus on to improve the points above? Are there particular programming languages which I might focus on to get a broader overview? Do you think I should avoid particular styles of development, or even languages, while solidifying what might end up being part 'the basics' but hopefully 'advanced programming'? -- Sorry if this appears off topic or something but I figure you're probably some of the best people to ask.

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  • what is file verification system for php project or licence checking the configuration files

    - by Jayapal Chandran
    Hi, My colleague asked me a question like "license check to config file". when i searched i got this http://www.google.com/search?q=file+verification+system&ie=utf-8&oe=utf-8&aq=t&rls=org.mozilla:en-US:official&client=firefox-a and in the result i got this http://integrit.sourceforge.net/texinfo/integrit.html but could not grasp much of its idea. Here is my thoughts... Our project is written in codeigniter. The project owner is providing it to their customer. The owner is a business partner with that concept. Besides, the owner needs control of the project code so that the customer will not break rules with him like changing the code or moving it go another server or validity. So the owner needs a system to enable disable the site. Let me give an example... owner.com will have an admin panel where he can either disable or enable the client.com. when he disables the client.com should display a custom message instead of loading the files. client.com is written i a way that i will process requests from owner.com and also the other way round. so, here i want a list of the concepts with which we can implement the ownership and control over client.com any suggestions, links, references, answers will be helpful. If i am missing something in my question i will update my question according to your comments if any so that the users can give in their idea without confusing of what i had asked. THX

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  • Adobe flex dateField

    - by JonoB
    I have some code as follows: private function onComboChange(evt:Event):void { var temp:Date = df_date.selectedDate; temp.date += 5; df_dateDue.selectedDate = new Date(temp); } In essence, I am trying to add 5 days onto the selected date in df_date, and put that date into df_dateDue. This fires off via an EventListener on a combobox. Both df_date and df_dateDue are dateFields. OK, so the first time that I run this, it works fine; df_date stays the same and df_dateDue is set to 5 days past df_date. However, the next time that I run it, df_dateDue increments by 10 days from df_date, the next time by 15, and so on. So, stepping through the code shows that somehow df_date has become linked to the temp var, and that the temp var is not resetting itself each time the function is called. Example: df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 01 Jan. Fire off the event, df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 06 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point, var temp = 06 Jan (even though df_date still shows 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 11 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point var temp = 11 Jan (even though df_date = 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 16 Jan What am I missing here?

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  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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  • SQL Server service broker reporting as off when I have written a query to turn it on

    - by dotnetdev
    I have made a small ASP.NET website. It uses sqlcachedependency The SQL Server Service Broker for the current database is not enabled, and as a result query notifications are not supported. Please enable the Service Broker for this database if you wish to use notifications. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: The SQL Server Service Broker for the current database is not enabled, and as a result query notifications are not supported. Please enable the Service Broker for this database if you wish to use notifications. Source Error: Line 12: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDependency.Start(connString); This is the erroneous line in my global.asax. However, in sql server (2005), I enabled service broker like so (I connect and run the SQL Server service when I debug my site): ALTER DATABASE mynewdatabase SET ENABLE_BROKER with rollback immediate And this was successful. What am I missing? I am trying to use sql caching dependency and have followed all procedures. Thanks

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  • GridView will not update underlying data source

    - by John Christensen
    So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

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  • How to handle checkboxes in ASP.NET MVC forms?

    - by Will
    This seems a bit bizarre to me, but as far as I can tell, this is how you do it. I have a collection of objects, and I want users to select one or more of them. This says to me "form with checkboxes." My objects don't have any concept of "selected" (they're rudimentary POCO's formed by deserializing a wcf call). So, I do the following: public class SampleObject{ public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} } In the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%foreach (var o in ViewData.Model) {%> <%=Html.CheckBox(o.Id)%>&nbsp;<%= o.Name %> <%}%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%}%> And, in the controller, this is the only way I can see to figure out what objects the user checked: public ActionResult ThisLooksWeird(FormCollection result) { var winnars = from x in result.AllKeys where result[x] != "false" select x; // yadda } Its freaky in the first place, and secondly, for those items the user checked, the FormCollection lists its value as "true false" rather than just true. Obviously, I'm missing something. I think this is built with the idea in mind that the objects in the collection that are acted upon within the html form are updated using UpdateModel() or through a ModelBinder. But my objects aren't set up for this; does that mean that this is the only way? Is there another way to do it?

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  • Using Interop.Word, is there a way to do a replace (using Find.Execute) and keep the original text's

    - by AJ
    I'm attempting to write find/replace code for Word documents using Word Automation through Interop.Word (11.0). My documents all have various fields (that don't show up in Document.Fields) that are surrounded with brackets, eg., <DATE> needs to be replaced with DateTime.Now.Format("MM/dd/yyyy"). The find/replace works fine. However, some of the text being replaced is right-justified, and upon replacement, the text wraps to the next line. Is there any way that I can keep the justification when I perform the replace? Code is below: using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; Word.Application wordApp = null; try { wordApp = new Word.Application {Visible = false}; //.... open the document .... object unitsStory = Word.WdUnits.wdStory; object moveType = Word.WdMovementType.wdMove; wordApp.Selection.HomeKey(ref unitsStory, ref moveType); wordApp.Selection.Find.ClearFormatting(); wordApp.Selection.Find.Replacement.ClearFormatting(); //tried removing this, no luck object replaceTextWith = DateTime.Now.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy"); object textToReplace = "<DATE>"; object replaceAll = Word.WdReplace.wdReplaceAll; object typeMissing = System.Reflection.Missing.Value; wordApp.Selection.Find.Execute(ref textToReplace, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref replaceTextWith, ref replaceAll, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing, ref typeMissing); // ... save quit etc.... } finally { //clean up wordApp } TIA.

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  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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  • Trouble decoding JSON string with PHP

    - by Anthony
    I'm trying to send an array of objects from JS to PHP using JSON. I have an array of players as follows: var player; var players = new Array(); //loop for number of players player = new Object(); player.id = theID; players[i] = player; Then my AJAX call looks like this: JSONplayers = JSON.stringify(players); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "php/ajax_send_players.php", data: { "players" : JSONplayers } On the PHP side the decode function looks like this $players = $_REQUEST['players']; echo var_dump($players); $players = json_decode($players); echo 'players: ' .$players. '--'. $players[0] . '--'. $players[0]->id; Debugging in chrome, the JSON players var looks like this before it is sent: JSONplayers: "[{"id":"Percipient"},{"id":"4"}]" And when I vardump in PHP it looks OK, giving this: string(40) "[{\"id\":\"Percipient\"},{\"id\":\"4\"}]" But I can't access the PHP array, and the echo statement about starting with players: outputs this: players: ---- Nothing across the board...maybe it has something to do with the \'s in the array, I am new to this and might be missing something very simple. Any help would be greatly appreciated. note I've also tried json_decode($players, true) to get it as an assoc array but get similar results.

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  • My chance to shape our development process/policy

    - by Matt Luongo
    Hey guys, I'm sorry if this is a duplicate, but the question search terms are pretty generic. I work at a small(ish) development firm. I say small, but the company is actually a fair size; however, I'm only the second full-time developer, as most past work has been organized around contractors. I'm in a position to define internal project process and policy- obvious stuff like SCM and unit-testing. Methodology is outside the scope of the document I'm putting together, but I'd really like to push us in a leaner (and maybe even Agile?) direction. I feel like I have plenty of good practice recommendations, but not enough solid motivation to make my document the spirit guide I'd like it to be. I've separated the document into "principles" and "recommendations". Recommendations have been easy to come up with. Use SCM, strive for 1-step, regularly scheduled builds, unit test first, document as you go... Listing the principles that are supposed to be informing these recommendations, though, has been rough. I've come up with "tools work for us; we should never work for tools" and a hazy clause aimed at our QA (which has been overly manual) that I'd like to read "tedium is the root of all evil". I don't want to miss an opportunity with this document to give us a good in-house start and maybe even push us toward Agile. What principles am I missing?

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  • git rebase onto remote updates

    - by Blake Chambers
    I work with a small team that uses git for source cod management. Recently, we have been doing topic branches to keep track of features then merging them into master locally then pushing them to a central git repository on a remote server. This works great when no changes have been made in master: I create my topic branch, commit it, merge it into master, then push. Hooray. However, if someone has pushed to origin before i do, my commits are not fast-forward. Thus a merge commit ensues. This also happens when a topic branch needs to merge with master locally to ensure my changes work with the code as of now. So, we end up with merge commits everywhere and a git log rivaling a friendship bracelet. So, rebasing is the obvious choice. What I would like is to: create topic branches holding several commits checkout master and pull (fast-forward because i haven't committed to master) rebase topic branches onto the new head of master rebase topics against master(so the topics start at masters head), bringing master up to my topic head My way of doing this currently is listed below: git checkout master git rebase master topic_1 git rebase topic_1 topic_2 git checkout master git rebase topic_2 git branch -d topic_1 topic_2 Is there a faster way to do this?

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  • In Inform 7, is it possible to use a second noun construct with "pull"?

    - by Beska
    I'll eat my hat if I get a good answer to this...I suspect that although I'm a rank beginner in Inform 7, and I'm guessing this isn't that hard, but there are probably not many people here who are familiar with Inform 7. Still, nothing ventured... I'm trying to create a custom response to a "pull" action. Unfortunately, I think the "pull" action doesn't normally expect a second noun. So I'm trying something like this: The nails are some things in the Foyer. The nails are scenery. Instead of pulling the nails: If the second noun is nothing: say "How? Are you going to pull the nails with your teeth?"; otherwise: say "I don't think that's going to do the job." But while this compiles, and the first part works, the "I don't think..." section is never called...the interpreter just responds "I only understood you as far as wanting to pull the nails." Do I have to create my own custom action for this? Overwrite the standard pull action? Am I missing something simple that will allow me to get this to work?

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  • Add a child inside a newly created instance, inside of a loop in AS3

    - by HeroicNate
    I am trying to create a gallery where each thumb is housed inside of it's own movie clip that will have more data, but it keeps failing because it won't let me refer to the newly created instance of the movie clip. Below is what I am trying to do. var xml:XML; var xmlReq:URLRequest = new URLRequest("xml.xml"); var xmlLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); var imageLoader:Loader; var vidThumbn:ThumbNail; var next_y:Number = 0; for(var i:int = 0; i < xml.downloads.videos.video.length(); i++) { vidThumbn = new ThumbNail(); imageLoader = new Loader(); imageLoader.load(new URLRequest(xml.downloads.videos.video[i].ThumbnailImage)); vidThumbn.y = next_y; vidThumbn.x = 0; next_y += 117; imageLoader.name = xml.downloads.videos.video[i].Files[0].File.URL; videoBox.thumbList.thumbListHolder.addChild(vidThumbn); videoBox.thumbList.thumbListHolder.vidThumbn.addChild(imageLoader); } It dies every time on that last line. How do I refer to that vidThumbn instance so I can add the imageLoader? I don't know what I'm missing. It feels like it should work.

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  • #nav css affecting all elements in page.

    - by Sam Gabriel
    Hey guys I set up this CSS file to use on the navbar: #nav { background-color: #98bf21; } #nav li { float:left; } #nav li ul{ position: absolute; width: 172px; left: -999em; } #nav li:hover ul{ left: auto; } #nav a:link,a:visited { display:block; width:164px; font-weight:bold; color:white; background-color:#98bf21; text-align:center; padding:4px; text-decoration:none; text-transform:uppercase; } #nav a:hover,a:active { background-color: #7A991A; } And it seems to be affecting all the elements. For example all elements take the styles if the #nav a styles. Is there something I'm missing here? I'm new to web design.

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  • Producer consumer with qualifications

    - by tgguy
    I am new to clojure and am trying to understand how to properly use its concurrency features, so any critique/suggestions is appreciated. So I am trying to write a small test program in clojure that works as follows: there 5 producers and 2 consumers a producer waits for a random time and then pushes a number onto a shared queue. a consumer should pull a number off the queue as soon as the queue is nonempty and then sleep for a short time to simulate doing work the consumers should block when the queue is empty producers should block when the queue has more than 4 items in it to prevent it from growing huge Here is my plan for each step above: the producers and consumers will be agents that don't really care for their state (just nil values or something); i just use the agents to send-off a "consumer" or "producer" function to do at some time. Then the shared queue will be (def queue (ref [])). Perhaps this should be an atom though? in the "producer" agent function, simply (Thread/sleep (rand-int 1000)) and then (dosync (alter queue conj (rand-int 100))) to push onto the queue. I am thinking to make the consumer agents watch the queue for changes with add-watcher. Not sure about this though..it will wake up the consumers on any change, even if the change came from a consumer pulling something off (possibly making it empty) . Perhaps checking for this in the watcher function is sufficient. Another problem I see is that if all consumers are busy, then what happens when a producer adds something new to the queue? Does the watched event get queued up on some consumer agent or does it disappear? see above I really don't know how to do this. I heard that clojure's seque may be useful, but I couldn't find enough doc on how to use it and my initial testing didn't seem to work (sorry don't have the code on me anymore)

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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