Search Results

Search found 33223 results on 1329 pages for 'database firewall'.

Page 772/1329 | < Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >

  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Deleting While Iterating in Ruby?

    - by Jesse J
    I'm iterating over a very large set of strings, which iterates over a smaller set of strings. Due to the size, this method takes a while to do, so to speed it up, I'm trying to delete one of the strings from the smaller set that no longer needs to be used. Below is my current code: Ms::Fasta.foreach(@database) do |entry| all.each do |set| if entry.header[1..40].include? set[1] + "|" startVal = entry.sequence.scan_i(set[0])[0] if startVal != nil @locations << [set[0], set[1], startVal, startVal + set[1].length] all.delete(set) end end end end The problem I face is that the easy way, array.delete(string), effectively adds a break statement to the inner loop, which messes up the results. The only way I know how to fix this is to do this: Ms::Fasta.foreach(@database) do |entry| i = 0 while i < all.length set = all[i] if entry.header[1..40].include? set[1] + "|" startVal = entry.sequence.scan_i(set[0])[0] if startVal != nil @locations << [set[0], set[1], startVal, startVal + set[1].length] all.delete_at(i) i -= 1 end end i += 1 end end This feels kind of sloppy to me. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to store Logon User information for Web Application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I was once in a project of web application developed on ASP.NET. For each logon user, there is an object (let's call it UserSessionObject here) created and stored in RAM. For each HTTP request of given user, matching UserSessoinObject instance is used to visit user state information and connection to database. So, this UserSessionObject is pretty important. This design brings several problems found later: 1) Since this UserSessionObject is cached in ASP.NET memory space, we have to config load balancer to be sticky connection. That is, HTTP request in single session would always be sent to one web server behind. This limit scalability and maintainability. 2) This UserSessionObject is accessed in every HTTP request. To keep the consistency, there is a exclusive lock for the UserSessionObject. Only one HTTP request can be processed at any given time because it must to obtain the lock first. The performance and response time is affected. Now, I'm wondering whether there is better design to handle such logon user case. It seems Sharing-Nothing-Architecture helps. That means long user info is retrieved from database each time. I'm afraid that would hurt performance. Is there any design pattern for long user web app? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • MS Access Bulk Insert exits app

    - by Brij
    In the web service, I have to bulk insert data in MS Access database. First, There was single complex Insert-Select query,There was no error but app exited after inserting some records. I have divided the query to make it simple and using linq to remove complexity of query. now I am inserting records using for loop. there are approx 10000 records. Again, same problem. I put a breakpoint after loop, but No hit. I have used try catch, but no error found. For Each item In lstSelDel Try qry = String.Format("insert into Table(Id,link,file1,file2,pID) values ({0},""{1}"",""{2}"",""{3}"",{4})", item.WebInfoID, item.Links, item.Name, item.pName, pDateID) DAL.ExecN(qry) Catch ex As Exception Throw ex End Try Next Public Shared Function ExecN(ByVal SQL As String) As Integer Dim ret As Integer = -1 Dim nowConString As String = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + System.AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "DataBase\\mydatabase.mdb;" Dim nowCon As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection nowCon = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(nowConString) Dim cmd As New OleDb.OleDbCommand(SQL, nowCon) nowCon.Open() ret = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() nowCon.Close() nowCon.Dispose() cmd.Dispose() Return ret End Function After exiting app, I see w3wp.exe uses more than 50% of Memory. Any idea, What is going wrong? Is there any limitation of MS Access?

    Read the article

  • Table not created by Hibernate

    - by User1
    I annotated a bunch of POJO's so JPA can use them to create tables in Hibernate. It appears that all of the tables are created except one very central table called "Revision". The Revision class has an @Entity(name="RevisionT") annotation so it will be renamed to RevisionT so there is not a conflict with any reserved words in MySQL (the target database). I delete the entire database, recreate it and basically open and close a JPA session. All the tables seem to get recreated without a problem. Why would a single table be missing from the created schema? What instrumentation can be used to see what Hibernate is producing and which errors? Thanks. UPDATE: I tried to create as a Derby DB and it was successful. However, one of the fields has a a name of "index". I use @org.hibernate.annotations.IndexColumn to specify the name to something other than a reserved word. However, the column is always called "index" when it is created. Here's a sample of the suspect annotations. @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="MasterTopID") @IndexColumn(name="Cx3tHApe") protected MasterTop masterTop; Instead of creating MasterTop.Cx3tHApe as a field, it creates MasterTop.Index. Why is the name ignored?

    Read the article

  • Oracle manually add an FK constraint

    - by Oxymoron
    Alright, since a client wants to automate a certain process, which includes creating a new key structure in a LIVE database, I need to create relations between tables.columns. Now I've found the tables ALL_CONS_COLS en USER_CONSTRAINTS to hold information about constraints. If I were to manually create constraints, by inserting into these tables, I should be able to recreate the original constraints. My question: are there any more tables I should look into? Do you have an alternate suggestions, as this sounds VERY dirty and error prone to begin with. Current modus operandi: Create a new column in each table for the PK; Generate a guid for this PK; Create a new column in each table for the FKs; Fetch the guid associated with the FK; ....... done sofar...... Add new constraint based on the old one; Remove old constraint; Rename new columns; This is kind of dodgy and I'd rather change my method, any ideas would be helpful. To put it different, client wants to change key structure from int to guid on a live database. What's the best way to approach this

    Read the article

  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

    Read the article

  • JasperReports reports access image via authenticated URL

    - by user363115
    Hi all, I am hoping that this is a simple issue with a simple solution and that I have missed something obvious. Let me explain the problem; We have an application that generates PDF reports (using Jasper). These reports contain data from our database, as well as imagery (photographs). These photographs are stored in S3. We use signed URLs to access these photographs. We link these photographs into our Jasper reports using these S3 URLs. Because the S3 URLs are signed and time-limited (by design), the process is as follows; User requests a report to be generated, Report is filled, and goes to our database (at which time UUIDs to any required images are retrieved), For each UUID an S3 signed URL must be generated, To do this the URL behind each report image is a call to an authenticated URL in our app (/get_img?uuid=foo), The controller behind this URL generates a signed S3 URL and returns it, Reports loads the image. The problem is with step (4) - the call to the authenticated URL fails because Jasper does not pass any authentication information with the request. Is there a solution here? Thanks all for your time. Ben

    Read the article

  • MYSQL: Limit Word Length for MySql Insert

    - by elmaso
    Hi, every search query is saved in my database, but I want to Limit the Chracterlength for one single word: odisafuoiwerjsdkle -- length too much -- dont write in the database my actually code is: $search = $_GET['q']; if (!($sql = mysql_query ('' . 'SELECT * FROM `history` WHERE `Query`=\'' . $search . '\''))) { exit ('<b>SQL ERROR:</b> 102, Cannot write history.'); ; } while ($row = mysql_fetch_array ($sql)) { $ID = '' . $row['ID']; } if ($ID == '') { mysql_query ('' . 'INSERT INTO history (Query) values (\'' . $search . '\')'); } if (!($sql = mysql_query ('SELECT * FROM `history` ORDER BY `ID` ASC LIMIT 1'))) { exit ('<b>SQL ERROR:</b> 102, Cannot write history.'); ; } while ($row = mysql_fetch_array ($sql)) { $first_id = '' . $row['ID']; } if (!($sql = mysql_query ('SELECT * FROM `history`'))) { exit ('<b>SQL ERROR:</b> 102, Cannot write history.'); ; }

    Read the article

  • Performance improvement of client server system

    - by Tanuj
    I have a legacy client server system where the server maintains a record of some data stored in a sqlite database. The data is related to monitoring access patterns of files stored on the server. The client application is basically a remote viewer of the data. When the client is launched, it connects to the server and gets the data from the server to display in a grid view. The data gets updated in real time on the server and the view in the client automatically gets refreshed. There are two problems with the current implementation: When the database gets too big, it takes a lot of time to load the client. What are the best ways to deal with this. One option is to maintain a cache at the client side. How to best implement a cache ? How can the server maintain a diff so that it only sends the diff during the refresh cycle. There can be multiple clients and each client needs to display the latest data available on the server. The server is a windows service daemon. Both the client and the server are implemented in C#

    Read the article

  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • ios UITableView reloadData don't increase content height

    - by Zoltan Varadi
    I'm facing a strange error in my iOS app and haven't been able to figure out the reason why. In my UITableView i can add new cells, so i refresh the array that is the datasource and call reloadData. Everything works without error. The numberOfRowsInSection is called again, and it's value is one more than it's previous value was. The new cell even gets inserted at the bottom of the tableview, but i cant scroll down to it. I only know that it's there because the tableview bounces and i can see it. I'm guessing the tableview's content height is not getting increased for some reason, but i have no idea why. I'm using iOS 6 btw. Any help is very much appreciated! Thanks, Zoli EDIT, answers for Srikanth's questions: How is data getting added. There's an NSArray containing objects of a specific type. The array.count is the number of the number of cells. This NSArray gets its values from a database query. When you say, you are refreshing the array, what do you mean. By refreshing the array i mean i execute a new query in the database and put the results of this query into an NSArray. this will be the tableview's datasource array. Like this: dataSourceArray = [dbManager executeQuery]; [tableView reloadData]; Are you adding the data within the same view controller Yes. Can you show some code as to what you are doing See above. Is the table view at the root of the view controllers view or is it within another view The tableview is the main view's first child. Can you try adding data to the array at the beginning, so that you can view the cell being added at the top. I don't understand what you mean.

    Read the article

  • Create Session Variable from different datasources?

    - by Szafranamn
    Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

    Read the article

  • MySQL Can Connect Remotely but not Locally

    - by A Wizard Did It
    This is a weird problem and I'm not sure what's going on. I installed MySQL on a linux box I have running Ubuntu 10.04 LTS. I can access mysql via SSH mysql -p and perform all my commands that way. I added a user, and I can use AddedUser to connect remotely from my machine, but not from the local machine. It makes no sense to me... SELECT host, user FROM mysql.user Yields: +-----------+------------------+ | host | user | +-----------+------------------+ | % | AddedUser | | 127.0.0.1 | root | | li241-255 | root | | localhost | debian-sys-maint | | localhost | root | +-----------+------------------+ Problem is I'm developing on this machine using Node.js, and I can't connect locally from the server using the same username. I've tried FLUSH PRIVILEGES but that seems to have no effect. I know it's not Node.js because I'm using the same code on another database and it's working in that environment. Edit This is the error node is giving me. node.js:50 throw e; // process.nextTick error, or 'error' event on first tick ^ Error: ECONNREFUSED, Connection refused at Stream._onConnect (net.js:687:18) at IOWatcher.onWritable [as callback] (net.js:284:12) Edit 2 I have the right port & server as best I can tell. My /etc/mysql/my.cnf contains this: port = 3306 socket = /var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock My MySQL object contains: { host: 'localhost', port: 3306, user: 'removed', password: 'removed', database: '', typeCast: true, flags: 260047, maxPacketSize: 16777216, charsetNumber: 192, debug: false, ending: false, connected: false, _greeting: null, _queue: [], _connection: null, _parser: null, server: 'ExternalIpAddress' } Possibly useful? netstat -ln | grep mysql unix 2 [ ACC ] STREAM LISTENING 1016418 /var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock

    Read the article

  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

    Read the article

  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

    Read the article

  • Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

    - by Luis
    Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is this a good starting point for iptables in Linux?

    - by sbrattla
    Hi, I'm new to iptables, and i've been trying to put together a firewall which purpose is to protect a web server. The below rules are the ones i've put together so far, and i would like to hear if the rules makes sense - and wether i've left out anything essential? In addition to port 80, i also need to have port 3306 (mysql) and 22 (ssh) open for external connections. Any feedback is highly appreciated! #!/bin/sh # Clear all existing rules. iptables -F # ACCEPT connections for loopback network connection, 127.0.0.1. iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # ALLOW established traffic iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # DROP packets that are NEW but does not have the SYN but set. iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # DROP fragmented packets, as there is no way to tell the source and destination ports of such a packet. iptables -A INPUT -f -j DROP # DROP packets with all tcp flags set (XMAS packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL ALL -j DROP # DROP packets with no tcp flags set (NULL packets). iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --tcp-flags ALL NONE -j DROP # ALLOW ssh traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport ssh -m limit --limit 1/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW http traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport http -m limit --limit 5/s -j ACCEPT # ALLOW mysql traffic (and prevent against DoS attacks) iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport mysql -m limit --limit 25/s -j ACCEPT # DROP any other traffic. iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

    Read the article

  • Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

    - by worlds-apart89
    I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

    Read the article

  • UDP server doesnt accept calls from outside.

    - by rayman
    Hi, ive implement simple udp server on my Android device.(sdk 1.5) it works fine when i am runnning a local client on the phone sends through it trigger to my server. but when i try to get udp call from an outside server to my phone, it doesnt work. already make sure the outside server isnt blocked by firewall and it's sending the udp trigger to the right port, which my phone is listening to. i used natstat on the phone and checked that the phone is realy listening to the it's local ip and the port ive setted it to. here is my code of the server:(on the device) // server will listen to one client try { Thread udpServerThread = new Thread() { @Override public void run() { try { // Retrieve the ServerName InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress .getByName("localhost"); Log.d("UDP", "S: Connecting..."); // Create new UDP-Socket socket = new DatagramSocket(SERVERPORT,serverAddr); byte[] buf = new byte[17]; // * Prepare a UDP-Packet that can contain the data we // * want to receive DatagramPacket packet = new DatagramPacket(buf, buf.length); Log.d("UDP", "S: Receiving..."); // wait to Receive the UDP-Packet socket.receive(packet); Log.d("UDP", "S: Received: '" + new String(packet.getData()) + "'"); acceptedMsg=new String(packet.getData()); notifyService(acceptedMsg); Log.d("UDP", "S: Done."); } catch (Exception e) { Log.e("UDP", "S: Error", e); } } }; udpServerThread.start(); } catch (Exception E) { Log.e("r",E.getMessage()) ; } so as i said, when i try it with local client(seperate thread) which sends udp trigger it works fine, but when i take this client implementation and put it on an outside real server, after UDP being sent, the phone doesnt respond to it. any idea? thanks, ray.

    Read the article

  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

    Read the article

  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Java "Pool" of longs or Oracle sequence with reusable values

    - by Anthony Accioly
    Several months ago I implemented a solution to choose unique values from a range between 1 and 65535 (16 bits). This range is used to generate unique Route Targets suffixes, which for this customer massive network (it's a huge ISP) are a very disputed resource, so any free index needs to become immediately available to the end user. To tackle this requirement I used a BitSet. Allocate on the RT index with set and deallocate a suffix with clear. The method nextClearBit() can find the next available index. I handle synchronization / concurrency issues manually. This works pretty well for a small range... The entire index is small (around 10k), it is blazing fast and can be easy serialized into a Blob field. The problem is, some new devices can handle RTs of 32 bits (range 1 / 4294967296). Which can't be managed with a BitSet (it would, by itself, consume around 600Mb, plus be limited to int range). Even with this massive range available, the client still wants to free available Route Targets for the end user, mainly because the lowest ones (up to 65535) - which are compatible with old routers - are being heavily disputed. Before I tell the customer that this is impossible and he will have to conform with my reusable index for lower RTs (up to 65550) and use a database sequence for the other ones (which means that when the user frees a Route Target, it will not become available again). Would anyone shed some light? Maybe some kind soul already implemented a high performance number pool for Java (6 if it matters), or I am missing a killer feature of Oracle database (11R2 if it matters)... Wishful thinking. Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • In mysql, is "explain ..." always safe?

    - by tye
    If I allow a group of users to submit "explain $whatever" to mysql (via Perl's DBI using DBD::mysql), is there anything that a user could put into $whatever that would make any database changes, leak non-trivial information, or even cause significant database load? If so, how? I know that via "explain $whatever" one can figure out what tables / columns exist (you have to guess names, though) and roughly how many records are in a table or how many records have a particular value for an indexed field. I don't expect one to be able to get any information about the contents of unindexed fields. DBD::mysql should not allow multiple statements so I don't expect it to be possible to run any query (just explain one query). Even subqueries should not be executed, just explained. But I'm not a mysql expert and there are surely features of mysql that I'm not even aware of. In trying to come up with a query plan, might the optimizer actual execute an expression in order to come up with the value that an indexed field is going to be compared against? explain select * from atable where class = somefunction(...) where atable.class is indexed and not unique and class='unused' would find no records but class='common' would find a million records. Might 'explain' evaluate somefunction(...)? And then could somefunction(...) be written such that it modifies data?

    Read the article

  • Problem in DataBinding an Enum using dictionary approach to a combobox in WPF.

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have a Dictionary which is binded to a combobox. I have used dictionary to provide spaces in enum. public enum Option {Enter_Value, Select_Value}; Dictionary<Option,string> Options; <ComboBox x:Name="optionComboBox" SelectionChanged="optionComboBox_SelectionChanged" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Options}" /> This works fine. My queries: 1. I am not able to set the initial value to a combo box. In above XAML snippet the line SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedOption}" is not working. I have declared SelectOption in my viewmodel. This is of type string and I have intialized this string value in my view model as below: SelectedOption = Options[Options.Enter_Value].ToString(); 2. The combobox is binded to datadictionary which have two options first is "Enter_value" and second is "Select_value" which is actually Option enum. Based on the Option enum value I want to perform different action. For example if option is equal to option.Enter_value then Combo box becomes editable and user can enter the numeric value in it. if option is equal to option.Select_value value then the value comes from the database and the combo box becomes read only and shows the fetched value from the database. Please Help!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >