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• How to add divs inside a div using jquery

  - by Neal

  Hi, I am trying to insert a div inside another div using add() of jquery but it is not working " <div class="portlet" id="panel1"> <div class="portlet-header">1.Feeds</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> <div class="portlet" id="panel2"> <div class="portlet-header">2.News</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> " " <div class="portlet" id="panel3"> <div class="portlet-header">3.Shopping</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> " Actually panel1 and panel2 are inside a div, and panel3 is inside another div.I want to remove panel3 from its div and place it between panel1 and panel2 in their div.

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• jQuery: how to create a new div, assign some attributes, and create an id from some other elements a

  - by Ronedog

  jQuery: how to create a new div, assign some attributes, and create an id from some other elements attributes? How can I accomplish this. What I've tried below is not working and I'm unsure how to make it work. What I'm trying to do is create a div and assign it some attributes, then append this div to all the < li elements that are the on the last node of my unordered list. And lastly, but most important I want to retrieve the value of the attribute called "p_node" from the < li that is being appended to and insert it in as part of the ID of the newly created div. Here's my current jQuery code: $('<div />,{id:"'+ $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").attr("p_node").val() +'_p_cont_div", class:"property_position"}').appendTo("#nav li:not(:has(li))"); Here's the HTML before the div creation: <ul> <li p_node="98" class="page_name">Category A</li> </ul> <ul> <li p_node="99" class="page_name">Category B</li> </ul> Here's what I want it to look like after the new div creation: <ul> <li p_node="98" class="page_name">Category A</li> <div id="98_p_cont_div" class="property_position"></div> </ul> <ul> <li p_node="99" class="page_name">Category B</li> <div id="99_p_cont_div" class="property_position"></div> </ul>

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• Visual Studio project remains "stuck" when stopped

  - by Traveling Tech Guy

  Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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• Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

  - by Wonko the Sane

  I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

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• jQuery > Update inline script on form submission

  - by Andrew Kirk

  I am using the ChemDoodle Web Components to display molecules on a web page. Basically, I can just insert the following script in my page and it will create an HTML5 canvas element to display the molecule. <script> var transform1 = new TransformCanvas('transform1', 200, 200, true); transform1.specs.bonds_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.bonds_width_2D = 3; transform1.specs.atoms_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.atoms_circles_2D = true; transform1.specs.backgroundColor = 'black'; transform1.specs.bonds_clearOverlaps_2D = true; transform1.loadMolecule(readPDB(molecule)); </script> In this example, "molecule" is a variable that I have defined in an external script by using the jQuery.ajax() function to load a PDB file. This is all fine and good. Now, I would like to include a form on the page that will allow a user to paste in a PDB molecule definition. Upon submitting the form, I want to update the "molecule" variable with the form data so that the ChemDoodle Web Components script will work its magic and display molecule defined by the PDB definition pasted into the form. I am using the following jQuery code to process the the form submission. $(".button").click(function() { // validate and process form here //hide previous errors $('.error').hide(); //validate pdb textarea field var pdb = $("textarea#pdb").val(); if (pdb == "") { $("label#pdb_error").show(); $("textarea#pdb").focus(); return false; } molecule = pdb; }); This code is setting the "molecule" variable upon the form submission but it is not being passed back to the inline script as I had hoped. I have tried a number of variations on this but can't seem to get it right. Any clues as to where I might be going wrong would be much appreciated.

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• How to develop Online Shopping Portal Application using PHP ?

  - by Sarang

  I do not know PHP & I have to develop a Shopping Portal with following Definition : Scenario: Online Shopping Portal XYZ.com wants to create an online shopping portal for managing its registered customers and their shopping. The customers need to register themselves first before they do shopping using the shopping portal. However, everyone, whether registered or not, can view the various products along with the prices listed in the portal. The registered customers, after logging in, are allowed to place order for one or more products from the products listed in the portal. Once the order is placed, the customer gets a reference order number and the order status should be “order in process”. The customers can track their order using the given reference number. The management of XYZ.com should be able to modify the order status of a particular reference order number to “shipped” once the products are shipped to the shipping address entered by the customer at the time of placing the order. The Functionalities required are : Create the interface for the XYZ.com shopping portal using HTML/XHTML and CSS. Implement the client side validations using JavaScript. Create the tables using MySQL. Implement the functionality using the server side scripting language, PHP. Integrate all the above tasks and make the XYZ.com shopping portal functional. How do I develop this application with following proper steps of development ?

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• Php JSON Response Array

  - by Nick Kl

  I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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• how does one _model_ data from relational databases in clojure ?

  - by sandeep

  I have asked this question on twitter as well the #clojure IRC channel, yet got no responses. There have been several articles about Clojure-for-Ruby-programmers, Clojure-for-lisp-programmers.. but what is the missing part is Clojure for ActiveRecord programmers . There have been articles about interacting with MongoDB, Redis, etc. - but these are key value stores at the end of the day. However, coming from a Rails background, we are used to thinking about databases in terms of inheritance - has_many, polymorphic, belongs_to, etc. The few articles about Clojure/Compojure + MySQL (ffclassic) - delve right into sql. Of course, it might be that an ORM induces impedence mismatch, but the fact remains that after thinking like ActiveRecord, it is very difficult to think any other way. I believe that relational DBs, lend themselves very well to the object-oriented paradigm because of them being , essentially, Sets. Stuff like activerecord is very well suited for modelling this data. For e.g. a blog - simply put class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments end class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post end How does one model this in Clojure - which is so strictly anti-OO ? Perhaps the question would have been better if it referred to all functional programming languages, but I am more interested from a Clojure standpoint (and Clojure examples)

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• Using HABTM relationships in cakephp plugins with unique set to false

  - by Dean

  I am working on a plugin for our CakePHP CMS that will handle blogs. When getting to the tags I needed to set the HABTM relationship to unique = false to be able add tags to a post without having to reset them all. The BlogPost model looks like this class BlogPost extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogPost'; var $actsAs = array('Core.WhoDidIt', 'Containable'); var $hasMany = array('Blog.BlogPostComment'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogTag' => array('unique' => false), 'Blog.BlogCategory'); } The BlogTag model looks like this class BlogTag extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogTag'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogPost'); } The SQL error I am getting when I have the unique = true setting in the HABTM relationship between the BlogPost and BlogTag is Query: SELECT `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`name`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`slug`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` FROM `blog_tags` AS `Blog`.`BlogTag` JOIN `blog_posts_blog_tags` AS `BlogPostsBlogTag` ON (`BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id` = 4 AND `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` = `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`) As you can see it is trying to set the blog_tags table to 'Blog'.'BlogTag. which isn't a valid MySQL name. When I remove the unique = true from the relationship it all works find and I can save one tag but when adding another it just erases the first one and puts the new one in its place. Does anyone have any ideas? is it a bug or am I just missing something? Cheers, Dean

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• Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

  - by Travelsized

  I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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• Dynamic TextBox on LinkButton click

  - by Alex Peta

  I am creating dynamic TextBoxes in a page by clicking a LinkButton. However, after that, if the page is submitted, I can't find the items created dynamically, thus, can't send the information to the database. protected void lbAddTag_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { for (int i = 0; i < 3;i++ ) { CreateTextBox("txtTag-" + i.ToString()); } } private void CreateTextBox(string ID) { TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = ID; txt.Width = Unit.Pixel(300); //txt.TextChanged += new EventHandler(OnTextChanged); txt.AutoPostBack = false; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(txt); Literal lt = new Literal(); lt.Text = "<br /><br />"; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(lt); } If I put: foreach (Control c in tagsPanel.Controls) { if (c is TextBox) { lblError.Text += c.ClientID + " , "; } } in the lbAddTag_Click method I can see the items, and they exist, but if I submit the page and try to insert the values in the database nothing... Any hint is much appreciated.

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• String or binary data would be truncated -- Heisenberg problem

  - by harpo

  When you get this error, the first thing you ask is, which column? Unfortunately, SQL Server is no help here. So you start doing trial and error. Well, right now I have a statement like: INSERT tbl (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) SELECT A, B * 2, C, D, E, q.F, G FROM tbl ,othertable q WHERE etc etc Note that Some values are modified or linked in from another table, but most values are coming from the original table, so they can't really cause truncation going back to the same field (that I know of). Eliminating fields one at a time eventually makes the error go away, if I do it cumulatively, but — and here's the kicker — it doesn't matter which fields I eliminate. It's as if SQL Server is objecting to the total length of the row, which I doubt, since there are only about 40 fields in all, and nothing large. Anyone ever seen this before? Thanks. UPDATE: I have also done "horizontal" testing, by filtering out the SELECT, with much the same result. In other words, if I say WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100: Error WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 50: No error WHERE id BETWEEN 50 AND 100: No error I tried many combinations, and it cannot be limited to a single row.

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• Show values in TDropDownList in PRADO.

  - by Muhammad Sajid

  I m new to PRADO, I have a file Home.page with code: <%@ Title="Contact List" %> <h1>Contact List</h1> <a href="<%= $this->Service->constructUrl('insert')%>">Create New Contact</a> <br/> <com:TForm> <com:TDropDownList ID="personInfo"> <com:TListItem Value="value 1" Text="item 1" /> <com:TListItem Value="value 2" Text="item 2" Selected="true" /> <com:TListItem Value="value 3" Text="item 3" /> <com:TListItem Value="value 4" Text="item 4" /> </com:TDropDownList> </com:TForm> & Home.php with code <?php class Home extends TPage { /** * Populates the datagrid with user lists. * This method is invoked by the framework when initializing the page * @param mixed event parameter */ public function onInit($param) { parent::onInit($param); // fetches all data account information $rec = ContactRecord::finder()->findAll(); } } ?> the $rec contain array of all values. Now I want to show all name in Dropdown list. I tried my best but fail. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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• [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

  - by pbean

  I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

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• convert date error when retrieving data in twig page through doctrine

  - by user201892

  I just find this error when I retrieve all my records on twig page from the database through doctrine here is my twig code : {% extends "gestionConferenceApplicationBundle::layout.html.twig" %} {% block title "Hello " ~ name %} {% block content %} je suis un debutant <table border=2 > <th>Numéro</th> <th>Titre</th> <th>Ville</th> <th>Lieu</th> <th>Date de début</th> <th>Date de fin</th> {% for item in conferences %} <tr> <td>{{ item.id }}</td> <td>{{ item.titre }}</td> <td>{{ item.ville }}</td> <td>{{ item.lieu }}</td>* <td>{{ item.dateDebut }}</td> <td>{{ item.dateFin }}</td> </tr> {% endfor %} </table> {% endblock %} the error in the date : here it is : An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Catchable Fatal Error: Object of class DateTime could not be converted to string in C:\wamp\www\Symfony\app\cache\dev\twig\3c\dd\40a703549de9b8769fa40b82230e.php line 72") in gestionConferenceApplicationBundle:acceuil:acceuil.html.twig at line 19. do you have any idea how to convert this date or any other things in the MySql I have dateTime field and in doctrine I have : /** * @var \DateTime $dateDebut * * @ORM\Column(name="date_debut", type="datetime", nullable=false) */ private $dateDebut;

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• What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

  - by Rupert

  Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

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• PHP Transferring Photos From One Oracle Database Table to Another

  - by Jonathan Swift

  I am attempting to transfer a set of photos (blobs) from one table to another across databases. I'm nearly there, except for binding the photo parameter. I have the following code: $conn_db1 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db1'); $conn_db2 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db2'); $parse_db1_select = oci_parse($conn_db1, "SELECT REF PID, BINARY_OBJECT PHOTOGRAPH FROM BLOBS"); $parse_db2_insert = oci_parse($conn_db2, "INSERT INTO PHOTOGRAPHS (PID, PHOTOGRAPH) VALUES (:pid, :photo)"); oci_execute($parse_db1_select); while ($row = oci_fetch_assoc($parse_db1_select)) { $pid = $row['PID']; $photo = $row['PHOTOGRAPH']; oci_bind_by_name($parse_db2_insert, ':pid', $pid, -1, OCI_B_INT); // This line causes an error oci_bind_by_name($parse_db_insert, ':photo', $photo, -1, OCI_B_BLOB); oci_execute($parse_db2_insert); } oci_close($db1); oci_close($db2); But I get the following error, on the error line commented above: Warning: oci_execute() [function.oci-execute]: ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel Process ID: 0 Session ID: 790 Serial number: 118 Does anyone know the right way to do this?

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• Streaming content to JSF UI

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello, I was quite happy with my JSF app which read the contents of MQ messages received and supplied them to the UI like this: <rich:panel> <snip> <rich:panelMenuItem label="mylabel" action="#{MyBacking.updateCurrent}"> <f:param name="current" value="mylog.log" /> </rich:panelMenuItem> </snip> </rich:panel> <rich:panel> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <rich:insert content="#{MyBacking.log}" highlight="groovy" /> </a4j:outputPanel> </rich:panel> and in MyBacking.java private String logFile = null; ... public String updateCurrent() { FacesContext context=FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); setCurrent((String)context.getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("current")); setLog(getCurrent()); return null; } public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(log); msgBody = receiveMsg(moreargs); logFile = msgBody; } public String getLog() { return logFile; } until the contents of one of the messages was too big and tomcat fell over. Obviously, I thought, I need to change the way it works so that I return some form of stream so that no one object grows so big that the container dies and the content returned by successive messages is streamed to the UI as it comes in. Am I right in thinking that I can replace the work I'm doing now on a String object with a BufferedOutputStream object ie no change to the JSF code and something like this changing at the back end: private BufferedOutputStream logFile = null; public void setLog(String log) { sendMsg(args); logFile = (BufferedOutputStream) receiveMsg(moreargs); } public String getLog() { return logFile; }

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• What's the next steps for moving from appengine to full django?

  - by tomcritchlow

  Hey guys, I'm super new to programming and I've been using appengine to help me learn python and general coding. I'm getting better quickly and I'm loving it all the way :) Appengine was awesome for allowing me to just dive into writing my app and getting something live that works (see http://www.7bks.com/). But I'm realising that the longer I continue to learn on appengine the more I'm constraining myself and locking myself into a single system. I'd like to move to developing on full django (since django looks super cool!). What are my next steps? To give you a feel for my level of knowledge: I'm not a unix user I'm not familiar with command line controls (I still use appengine/python completely via the appengine SDK) I've never programmed in anything other than python, anywhere other than appengine I know the word SQL, but don't know what MySQL is really or how to use it. So, specifically: What are the skills I need to learn to get up and running with full django/python? If I'm going to host somewhere else I suppose I'll need to learn some sysadmin type skills (maybe even unix?). Is there anywhere that offers easy hosting (like appengine) but that supports django? I hear such great things about heroku I'm considering switching to RoR and going there I appreciate that I'm likely not quite ready to move away from appengine just yet but I'm a fiercely passionate learner (http://www.7bks.com/blog/179001) and would love it if I knew all the steps I needed to learn so I could set about learning them. At the moment, I don't even know what the steps are I need to learn! Thank you very much. Sorry this isn't a specific programming question but I've looked around and haven't found a good how-to for someone of my level of experience and I think others would appreciate a good roadmap for the things we need to learn to get up and running. Thanks, Tom PS - if anyone is in London and fancies showing me the ropes in person that would be super awesome :)

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• LinqToSQL: Not possible to update PrimaryKey?

  - by Zuhaib

  I have a simple table (lets call it Table1) that has a NVARCHAR field as the PK. Table1 has no association with any other tables. When I update Table1's PK column using LinqToSQL it fails. If I update other column it succeeds. I could delete this row and insert new one in Table1, but I don't want to. There is a transaction table which has Table1's PK column as a column. When the PK of Table1 is changed I want no effect in the transaction table. But when the row from Table1 is deleted, I want the transaction rows to be deleted. The cascading is done via Trigger. As there is not association between these two tables, if I update the PK column of Table1 using normal SQL, it works and there is no effect on the transaction table as expected. When I delete the row the trigger deletes the rows from transaction table. For this reason I can't delete and then add new row in Table1. So what can be done to successfully update the PrimaryKey of the Table1?

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• How can I prevent the "... has stopped working" window on my Server 2008 R2 dev box?

  - by serialhobbyist

  I'm using a Windows Server 2008 x64 R2 machine as a development box. Amongst many other things I've got Visual Studio 2008 SP1 installed on it. When I'm working on a project, I sometimes need to use Debug Start without Debugging (Ctrl + F5). If the program throws an exception, I get a new R2-style window appear. I'm pretty sure I didn't see this on my XP box - this is the first time I've developed directly on a server. Is there any way to avoid this - it's really beginning to bug me? E.g. my current project is accessing a WCF service - I'm using Ctrl+F5 to start a console program client. I run it and get the window. The title is the name of the project I've just started and it contains: [insert-project-name-here] has stopped working Windows can check online for a solution to the problem. --> Check online for a solution and close the program --> Close the program --> Debug the program V View problem details. Clicking on "Close the program" will actually close the window and the exception message appears in the console, which is what I want (but without the extra window-faffing). How can I avoid this annoyance?

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• prolog recursion

  - by AhmadAssaf

  am making a function that will send me a list of all possible elemnts .. in each iteration its giving me the last answer .. but after the recursion am only getting the last answer back .. how can i make it give back every single answer .. thank you the problem is that am trying to find all possible distributions for a list into other lists .. the code test :- bp(3,12,[7, 3, 5, 4, 6, 4, 5, 2], Answer), format("Answer = ~w\n",[Answer]). bp(NB,C,OL,A):- addIn(C,OL,[[],[],[]],A); bp(NB,C,_,A). addIn(_,[],Result,Result). addIn(C,[Element|Rest],[F|R],Result):- member( Members , [F|R]), sumlist( Members, Sum), sumlist([Element],ElementLength), Cap is Sum + ElementLength, (Cap =< C, append([Element], Members,New), insert( Members, New, [F|R], PartialResult), addIn(C,Rest,PartialResult,Result)). by calling test .. am getting back all the list of possible answers .. now if i tried to do something that will fail like bp(3,11,[8,2,4,6,1,8,4],Answer). it will just enter a while loop .. more over if i changed the bp(NB,C,OL,A):- addIn(C,OL,[[],[],[]],A); bp(NB,C,_,A). to and instead of Or .. i get error : ERROR: is/2: Arguments are not sufficiently instantiated appreciate the help .. Thanks alot @hardmath

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• After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

  - by Brandi

  I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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• rails not recognizing project

  - by tipu

  I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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• Two entities with @ManyToOne should join the same table

  - by Ivan Yatskevich

  I have the following entities Student @Entity public class Student implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Teacher @Entity public class Teacher implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Task @Entity public class Task implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "student_id") }) private Student author; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "teacher_id") }) private Teacher curator; //getters and setters } Consider that author and curator are already stored in DB and both are in the attached state. I'm trying to persist my Task: Task task = new Task(); task.setAuthor(author); task.setCurator(curator); entityManager.persist(task); Hibernate executes the following SQL: insert into student_task (teacher_id, id) values (?, ?) which, of course, leads to null value in column "student_id" violates not-null constraint Can anyone explain this issue and possible ways to resolve it?

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