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  • Dynamic TextBox on LinkButton click

    - by Alex Peta
    I am creating dynamic TextBoxes in a page by clicking a LinkButton. However, after that, if the page is submitted, I can't find the items created dynamically, thus, can't send the information to the database. protected void lbAddTag_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { for (int i = 0; i < 3;i++ ) { CreateTextBox("txtTag-" + i.ToString()); } } private void CreateTextBox(string ID) { TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = ID; txt.Width = Unit.Pixel(300); //txt.TextChanged += new EventHandler(OnTextChanged); txt.AutoPostBack = false; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(txt); Literal lt = new Literal(); lt.Text = "<br /><br />"; tagsPanel.Controls.Add(lt); } If I put: foreach (Control c in tagsPanel.Controls) { if (c is TextBox) { lblError.Text += c.ClientID + " , "; } } in the lbAddTag_Click method I can see the items, and they exist, but if I submit the page and try to insert the values in the database nothing... Any hint is much appreciated.

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  • C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

    - by acidzombie24
    -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

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  • rails not recognizing project

    - by tipu
    I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • Using HABTM relationships in cakephp plugins with unique set to false

    - by Dean
    I am working on a plugin for our CakePHP CMS that will handle blogs. When getting to the tags I needed to set the HABTM relationship to unique = false to be able add tags to a post without having to reset them all. The BlogPost model looks like this class BlogPost extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogPost'; var $actsAs = array('Core.WhoDidIt', 'Containable'); var $hasMany = array('Blog.BlogPostComment'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogTag' => array('unique' => false), 'Blog.BlogCategory'); } The BlogTag model looks like this class BlogTag extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogTag'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogPost'); } The SQL error I am getting when I have the unique = true setting in the HABTM relationship between the BlogPost and BlogTag is Query: SELECT `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`name`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`slug`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` FROM `blog_tags` AS `Blog`.`BlogTag` JOIN `blog_posts_blog_tags` AS `BlogPostsBlogTag` ON (`BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id` = 4 AND `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` = `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`) As you can see it is trying to set the blog_tags table to 'Blog'.'BlogTag. which isn't a valid MySQL name. When I remove the unique = true from the relationship it all works find and I can save one tag but when adding another it just erases the first one and puts the new one in its place. Does anyone have any ideas? is it a bug or am I just missing something? Cheers, Dean

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  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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  • Using the <h2> as the title after sent?

    - by Delan Azabani
    Currently, I have a semi-dynamic system for my website's pages. head.php has all the tags before the content body, foot.php the tags after. Any page using the main theme will include head.php, then write the content, then output foot.php. Currently, to be able to set the title, I quickly set a variable $title before inclusion: <?php $title = 'Untitled document'; include_once '../head.php'; ?> <h2>Untitled document</h2> Content here... <?php include_once '../foot.php'; ?> So that in head.php... <title><?php echo $title; ?> | Delan Azabani</title> However, this seems kludgy as the title is most of the time, the same as the content of the h2 tag. Is there a way I can get PHP to read the content of h2, track back and insert it, then send the whole thing at the end?

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  • Creating Actions from UIActionSheets help

    - by user337174
    I am using two UIAction sheets within my current project. I can get one to work perfectly fine but when i insert a second action sheet it runs the same arguements as the first. How do i define the actionsheets seperatly? -(IBAction) phoneButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Phone: %@",phone],nil]; actionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [actionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [actionSheet release]; } -(IBAction) mapButtonClicked:(id)sender { // open a dialog with just an OK button UIActionSheet *mapActionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:nil delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Map"],nil]; mapActionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [mapActionSheet showInView:self.view]; // show from our table view (pops up in the middle of the table) [mapActionSheet release]; } -(void)actionSheet:(UIActionSheet *)actionSheet clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if(buttonIndex == 0){ NSString *callPhone = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@",phone]; NSLog(@"Calling: %@", callPhone); [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:callPhone]]; } }

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  • Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

    - by hangy
    During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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  • Weird character at start of json content type

    - by Nek
    Hi, I'm trying to return json content read from MySQL server. This is supposed to be easy but, there is a 'weird' character that keeps appearing at start of the content. I have two pages for returning content: kcb433.sytes.net/as/test.php?json=true&limit=6&input=d this test.php is from a script written by Timothy Groves, which converts an array to json output http://kcb433.sytes.net/k.php?k=4 this one is supposed to do the same I tried to validate it here jsonformatter.curiousconcept.com but just page 1 gets validated, page 2 says that it does not contain JSON data. If accessed directly both pages has no problems. Then what is the difference, why both don't get validated? Then I found this page jsonformat.com and tried the same thing. Page 1 was ok and page 2 wasn't but, surprisingly the data could be read. At a glance, {"a":"b"} may look good but there is a character in front. According to a hex editor online, this is the value of the string above (instead of 9 values, there are 10): -- 7B 22 61 22 3A 22 62 22 7D The code to echo json in page 2 is: header("Content-Type: application/json"); echo "{\"a\":\"b\"}";

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  • Creating a global variable on the fly. [PHP ENCRYPTION]

    - by stormdrain
    Is there a way to dynamically create constant variables on the fly? The idea is that upon logging into the system, a user would be asked to upload a small text file that would be fread, and assigned to a var that would be accessible throughout the system. If this is possible, just to be clear, would this variable then only be accessible to that user and only while the session is alive? Security being the main concern here, would it be more practical to store the var in a session variable? The plan: Data in the db will be encrypted via mcrypt, and the key will be stored on USB thumbdrives. The user will insert the thumbdrive when going to access the system. Upon logging in, the app will prompt the user to upload the key. They will navigate to the thumbdrive and key. Via fopen and fread, the key will be assigned to a global var which will then allow access to encrypted data, and will be used to encrypt new info being entered to the db. When the user logs out, or session times out, the global var will become empty. Thanks!

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  • Excel 2007 UDF keeps failing, why?

    - by Zan
    I've been trying to browse info about this for a while now. The user defined functions in Excel 2007 just make no sense to me whatsoever. According to all the tutorials, it should be really simple. Just press alt + f11, insert a new module, and enter the VBA code there. At this point typing '=FUNCTIONNAME(parameters)' into any cell should make it work. It did, at first. Then upon closing and reopening the worksheet it stopped working. I checked to see that macros were enabled, but either way, that didn't help. Then I browsed the graphic UI from the function button to locate user defined functions. I found it there by name of 'MyExcelWorksheet.xls!FUNCTIONNAME.FUNCTIONNAME' and clicking that, it started working again. Now, a day later, I get back to working on this and it's broken, again. I just get #NAME? error or some "Function Arguments - Function doesn't use any arguments" -popup (translated from Finnish Excel, not sure what that msg is in English) when I select the function from the GUI. So what does it take to just create a function, and actually make it work and KEEP working? For the life of me I can't figure out why this has to be so difficult. :) I'm starting to think my company has some weird settings enabled or whatever, because judging by the lack of information I've found on the subject, this isn't supposed to happen.

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  • Receive JSON payload with ZEND framework and / or PHP

    - by kent3800
    I'm receiving a JSON payload from a webservice at my site's internal webpage at /asset/setjob. The following is the JSON payload being posted to /asset/setjob: [{"job": {"source_filename": "beer-drinking-pig.mpg", "current_step": "waiting_for_file", "encoding_profile_id": "nil", "resolution": "nil", "status_url": "http://example.com/api/v1/jobs/1.json", "id": 1, "bitrate": "nil", "current_status": "waiting for file", "current_progress": "nil", "remote_id": "my-own-remote-id"}}] This payload posts one time to this page. The page is not meant for viewing but parsing the JSON object for the id and current_status so that I can insert it into a database. I'm using Zend framework. HOW DO I receive this payload in Zend? Do I $_GET['json']? $_POST['job']? None of these seem to work. I essentially need to assign this payload to a php variable so that I can then manipulate it. I've tried: $jsonStrGet = var_dump($_GET); $jsonStrPost = var_dump($_POST); And I've tried: $response = $this-getResponse(); $body = $response-getBody(); Blockquote Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Hibernate collection mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • How to compare dictonary key with xml attribute value in xml using LINQ in c #?

    - by Pramodh
    Dear all, i've a dictonary " dictSample " which contains 1 data1 2 data2 3 data3 4 data4 and an xml file"sample.xml" in the form of: <node> <element id="1" value="val1"/> <element id="2" value="val2"/> <element id="3" value="val3"/> <element id="4" value="val4"/> <element id="5" value="val5"/> <element id="6" value="val6"/> <element id="7" value="val7"/> </node> i need to match the dictonary keys with the xml attribute id and to insert the matching id and the value of attribute"value" into another dictonary now i'm using like: XmlDocument XDOC = new XmlDocument(); XDOC.Load("Sample.xml"); XmlNodeList NodeList = XDOC.SelectNodes("//element"); Dictionary<string, string> dictTwo = new Dictionary<string, string>(); foreach (string l_strIndex in dictSample .Keys) { foreach (XmlNode XNode in NodeList) { XmlElement XEle = (XmlElement)XNode; if (dictSample[l_strIndex] == XEle.GetAttribute("id")) dictTwo.Add(dictSample[l_strIndex], XEle.GetAttribute("value").ToString()); } } please help me to do this in a simple way using LINQ

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  • .save puts NULL in id field in Rails

    - by mathee
    Here's the model file: class ProfileTag < ActiveRecord::Base def self.create_or_update(options = {}) id = options.delete(:id) record = find_by_id(id) || new record.id = id record.attributes = options puts "record.profile_id is" puts record.profile_id record.save! record end end This gives me the correct print out in my log. But it also says that there's a call to UPDATE that sets profile_id to NULL. Here's some of the output in the log file: Processing ProfilesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-28 18:20:54) [PUT] Parameter: {"commit"=>"Save", ...} ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Create (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mINSERT INTO `profile_tags` (`reputation_value`, `updated_at`, `tag_id`, `id`, `profile_id`, `created_at`) VALUES(0, '2010-05-29 01:20:54', 1, NULL, 4, '2010-05-29 01:20:54')?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (2.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0mCOMMIT?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Load (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mSELECT * FROM `profile_tags` WHERE (`profile_tags`.profile_id = 4) ?[0m ?[4;35;1mSQL (1.0ms)?[0m ?[0mBEGIN?[0m ?[4;36;1mProfileTag Update (0.0ms)?[0m ?[0;1mUPDATE `profile_tags` SET profile_id = NULL WHERE (profile_id = 4 AND id IN (35)) ?[0m I'm not sure I understand why the INSERT puts the value into profile_id properly, but then it sets it to NULL on an UPDATE. If you need more specifics, please let me know. I'm thinking that the save functionality does many things other than INSERTs into the database, but I don't know what I need to specify so that it will properly set profile_id.

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  • SQL Grouping with multiple joins combining results incorrectly

    - by Matt
    Hi I'm having trouble with my query combining records when it shouldn't. I have two tables Authors and Publications, they are related by Publication ID in a many to many relationship. As each author can have many publications and each publication has many Authors. I want my query to return every publication for a set of authors and include the ID of each of the other authors that have contributed to the publication grouped into one field. (I am working with mySQL) I have tried to picture it graphically below Table: authors Table:publications AuthorID | PublicationID PublicationID | PublicationName 1 | 123 123 | A 1 | 456 456 | B 2 | 123 789 | C 2 | 789 3 | 123 3 | 456 I want my result set to be the following AuthorID | PublicationID | PublicationName | AllAuthors 1 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 1 | 456 | B | 1,3 2 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 2 | 789 | C | 2 3 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 3 | 456 | B | 1,3 This is my query Select Author1.AuthorID, Publications.PublicationID, Publications.PubName, GROUP_CONCAT(TRIM(Author2.AuthorID)ORDER BY Author2.AuthorID ASC)AS 'AuthorsAll' FROM Authors AS Author1 LEFT JOIN Authors AS Author2 ON Author1.PublicationID = Author2.PublicationID INNER JOIN Publications ON Author1.PublicationID = Publications.PublicationID WHERE Author1.AuthorID ="1" OR Author1.AuthorID ="2" OR Author1.AuthorID ="3" GROUP BY Author2.PublicationID But it returns the following instead AuthorID | PublicationID | PublicationName | AllAuthors 1 | 123 | A | 1,1,1,2,2,2,3,3,3 1 | 456 | B | 1,1,3,3 2 | 789 | C | 2 It does deliver the desired output when there is only one AuhorID in the where statement. I have not been able to figure it out, does anyone know where i'm going wrong?

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  • Search dir using wildcard string, return filename, and loop.

    - by Charlie Murphy
    Hello all, I'm having some problems, and looking for some help. I'm trying to create a photo gallery in javascript, that will be able to 'update' it's self automatically. I need to be able to search a directory, and grab a file with a specific prefix. I need to output the followng HTML code: <li><a href="images/resize_FILENAME.ext"><img src="images/thumb_FILENAME.ext"></a></li> The 'resize_' and 'thumb_' use a timestamp to identify, so they have the same ending, just a different prefix. So, for example, if I search the directory for an image with a prefix of 'resize_', I need to insert that into the a tag, and then remove the '_resize' prefix, and add the '_thumb' prefix for the img tag. I then need to be able to do that for each image in the directory. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Oh, I should add: I'm assuming php would be easiest for this, but if an alternative exists that would work too. I'm also using jQuery if javascript would be better.

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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  • What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

    - by ZoFreX
    I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

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  • CodeIgniter and SimpleTest -- How to make my first test?

    - by Smandoli
    I'm used to web development using LAMP, PHP5, MySQL plus NetBeans with Xdebug. Now I want to improve my development, by learning how to use (A) proper testing and (B) a framework. So I have set up CodeIgniter, SimpleTest and the easy Xdebug add-in for Firefox. This is great fun because maroonbytes provided me with clear instructions and a configured setup ready for download. I am standing on the shoulders of giants, and very grateful. I've used SimpleTest a bit in the past. Here is a the kind of thing I wrote: <?php require_once('../simpletest/unit_tester.php'); require_once('../simpletest/reporter.php'); class TestOfMysqlTransaction extends UnitTestCase { function testDB_ViewTable() { $this->assertEqual(1,1); // a pseudo-test } } $test = new TestOfMysqlTransaction(); $test->run(new HtmlReporter()) ?> So I hope I know what a test looks like. What I can't figure out is where and how to put a test in my new setup. I don't see any sample tests in the maroonbytes package, and Google so far has led me to posts that assume unit testing is already functionally available. What do I do?

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  • LinqToSQL: Not possible to update PrimaryKey?

    - by Zuhaib
    I have a simple table (lets call it Table1) that has a NVARCHAR field as the PK. Table1 has no association with any other tables. When I update Table1's PK column using LinqToSQL it fails. If I update other column it succeeds. I could delete this row and insert new one in Table1, but I don't want to. There is a transaction table which has Table1's PK column as a column. When the PK of Table1 is changed I want no effect in the transaction table. But when the row from Table1 is deleted, I want the transaction rows to be deleted. The cascading is done via Trigger. As there is not association between these two tables, if I update the PK column of Table1 using normal SQL, it works and there is no effect on the transaction table as expected. When I delete the row the trigger deletes the rows from transaction table. For this reason I can't delete and then add new row in Table1. So what can be done to successfully update the PrimaryKey of the Table1?

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  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

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  • How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

    - by Evan Carroll
    I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

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