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  • passing in javascript values into iframe tag

    - by Cedar Jensen
    What's the best way to pass in the value held in a javascript variable into an iframe call on the same html page? I'm trying to improve my site's page response times by moving ad serving javascript code (the typical document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="..") into a separate iframe. (Based on this posting) The request to the ad server typically require a seed variable declared once per site and incremented each time page is loaded by the client. What I want to do is pass in the seed variable into the document invoked by my iframe section. The seed variable is initialized in the 'head' tag of my main html document: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- custom_seed=1; //--> </script> </head> Later in the html document, I make the request through an iframe which returns the html necessary to invoke the ad server. <body> <!-- a bunch of html to display the page --> <iframe src="somepage.html" width="100%" height="100%"> <p>No support for iframe</p> </iframe> </body> The html returned in the 'somepage.html' has a script used to call the ad server and needs to use the earlier declared seed variable as a parameter: <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="http://ad.server.net/...seed='+ custom_seed +'?"></script>'); custom_seed++; </script> What's a good way to achieve this?

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  • Binding type variables that only occur in assertions

    - by Giuseppe Maggiore
    Hi! I find it extremely difficult to describe my problem, so here goes nothing: I have a bunch of assertions on the type of a function. These assertions rely on a type variable that is not used for any parameter of the function, but is only used for internal bindings. Whenever I use this function it does not compile because, of course, the compiler has no information from which to guess what type to bind my type variable. Here is the code: {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances, FlexibleContexts, EmptyDataDecls, ScopedTypeVariables, TypeOperators, TypeSynonymInstances #-} class C a a' where convert :: a -> a' class F a b where apply :: a -> b class S s a where select :: s -> a data CInt = CInt Int instance S (Int,String) Int where select (i,_) = i instance F Int CInt where apply = CInt f :: forall s a b . (S s a, F a b) => s -> b f s = let v = select s :: a y = apply v :: b in y x :: Int x = f (10,"Pippo") And here is the generated error: FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4: No instances for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) arising from a use of `f' at FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4-17 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) In the expression: f (10, "Pippo") In the definition of `x': x = f (10, "Pippo") Failed, modules loaded: none. Prelude>

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  • Redirect to default action in Struts 2

    - by topher-j
    I have an action with an empty string for name defined in the root namespace, and I want to redirect to that action from another action if a certain result is found, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's the default action <action name="" class="com.example.actions.HomeAction"> <result name="success" type="freemarker">freemarker/home.ftl</result> </action> And I'm defining the redirect in the global-results for the package: <global-results> <result name="sendToRouting" type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName"></param> <param name="namespace">/</param> </result> </global-results> I've tried taking out the actionName parameter, but that doesn't work. If I put a name in for the HomeAction and reference it by name in the global-results it works, so I'm assuming the problem is lack of action name for the redirect. Any thoughts?

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  • Getting the Access Token from a Facebook Open Graph response in Ruby

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm trying to implement single sign-on using facebook in my ruby sinatra app. So far, I've been following this tutorial: http://jaywiggins.com/2010/05/facebook-oauth-with-sinatra/ I am able to send a request for a user to connect to my application but I'm having trouble actually "getting" the access token. The user can connect without trouble and I receive a response with the "code" parameter, which I'm supposed to use to exchange an Access Token - but its here where I get stuck. So I submit a url with the following parameters: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token/{client_id}&{client_secret}&{code}&{redirect_uri} The words in the curly brackets above are obviously replaced by the values. I submit this using the following code: response = open(url) This doesn't seem to return anything of use in the way of an access token (it has a @base_uri which is the url I submitted above and few other parameters, though nothing useful looking). However, if I take that url I submitted and paste it into a browser, I receive back an access token. Can anyone tell me how I can get the request back from facebook and pull out the access token? Thanks.

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  • Unit test complex classes with many private methods

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've got a class with one public method and many private methods which are run depending on what parameter are passed to the public method so my code looks something like: public class SomeComplexClass { IRepository _repository; public SomeComplexClass() this(new Repository()) { } public SomeComplexClass(IRepository repository) { _repository = repository; } public List<int> SomeComplexCalcualation(int option) { var list = new List<int>(); if (option == 1) list = CalculateOptionOne(); else if (option == 2) list = CalculateOptionTwo(); else if (option == 3) list = CalculateOptionThree(); else if (option == 4) list = CalculateOptionFour(); else if (option == 5) list = CalculateOptionFive(); return list; } private List<int> CalculateOptionOne() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionTwo() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionThree() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFour() { // Some calculation } private List<int> CalculateOptionFive() { // Some calculation } } I've thought of a few ways to test this class but all of them seem overly complex or expose the methods more than I would like. The options so far are: Set all the private methods to internal and use [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo()] Separate out all the private methods into a separate class and create an interface. Make all the methods virtual and in my tests create a new class that inherits from this class and override the methods. Are there any other options for testing the above class that would be better that what I've listed? If you would pick one of the ones I've listed can you explain why? Thanks

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  • how to do these in visio 2007?

    - by user285825
    I am very annoyed with this software. I am unable to do many things with this software. In the book 'UML distilled' many features of UML are discussed which I am not sure how to accomplish with visio 2007. For instance, 1) I can't find the unary association. In the UML static structure under shapes panel on left, there are a lot of components like package, class, blah, blah, binary association, blah, blah, association class. But where is unary association. 2) For sequence diagram, I created a message (any of sync, async, call type message, ordinary message). The I tried to incorporate some parameter information. I went to the properties. There were a category called arguments. But selecting that shows a table where arguments are supposed to be shown. But all are diasbled. 3) For sequence diagram, there is no component delete (the big X) in the UML Sequence. 4) For class diagram, there is supposed to be a comment compartment where comments like mentioning the responsibilities are allowed using a comment prefixed with "--". But I am not sure how to accomplish them. 5) there is also supposed to be a way to indicate static properties of a class. But I am not sure how to do that in visio. 6) there is supposed to be a stereotype for class <. But in the stereotype drop down there is no stereotype. 7) where is the ball and socket component?

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  • Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

    - by erlord
    Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

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  • .NET MVC custom routing with empty parameters

    - by user135498
    Hi All, I have a .net mvc with the following routes: routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}/{firstname}/{middlename}/{lastname}/{city}/{state}/{address}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = (string)null, middlename = (string)null, lastname = (string)null, city = (string)null, state = (string)null, address = (string)null, SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "" }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.Add(new Route( "Lookups/{searchtype}/{inputtype}", new RouteValueDictionary( new { controller = "Lookups", action = "Search", firstname = "", middlename = "", lastname = "", city = "", state = "", address = "", SearchType = SearchType.PeopleSearch, InputType = InputType.Name }), new MvcRouteHandler()) ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Account", action = "LogOn", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); The following request works fine: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john/w/smith/seattle/wa/123 main This request does not work: http://localhost:2608/Lookups/PeopleSearch/Name/john//smith//wa/ Not all requests will have all paramters and I would like empty parameters to be passed to the method as empty string or null. Where am I going wrong? The method: public ActionResult Search(string firstname, string middlename, string lastname, string city, string state, string address, SearchType searchtype, InputType inputtype) { SearchRequest r = new SearchRequest { Firstname = firstname, Middlename = middlename, Lastname = lastname, City = city, State = state, Address = address, SearchType = searchtype, InputType = inputtype }; return View(r); }

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  • Hibernate: Check if object exists/changed

    - by swalkner
    Assuming I have an object Person with long id String firstName String lastName String address Then I'm generating a Person-object somewhere in my application. Now I'd like to check if the person exists in the database (= firstname/lastname-combination is in the database). If not = insert it. If yes, check, if the address is the same. If not = update the address. Of course, I can do some requests (first, try to load object with firstname/lastname), then (if existing), compare the address. But isn't there a simpler, cleaner approach? If got several different classes and do not like to have so many queries. I'd like to use annotations as if to say: firstname/lastname = they're the primary key. Check for them if the object exists. address is the parameter you have to compare if it stayed the same or not. Does Hibernate/JPA (or another framework) support something like that? pseude-code: if (database.containsObject(person)) { //containing according to compound keys if (database.containsChangedObject(person)) { database.updateObject(person); } } else { database.insertObject(person); }

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

    - by smayers81
    This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures not working with SELECT (basic question)

    - by TMG
    Hello, I am using a platform (perfectforms) that requires me to use stored procedures for most of my queries, and having never used stored procedures, I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The following statement executes without error: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.test_proc// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc() SELECT 'foo'; // DELIMITER ; But when I try to call it using: CALL test_proc(); I get the following error: #1312 - PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc can't return a result set in the given context I am executing these statements from within phpmyadmin 3.2.4, PHP Version 5.2.12 and the mysql server version is 5.0.89-community. When I write a stored procedure that returns a parameter, and then select it, things work fine (e.g.): DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.get_sum// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.get_sum(out total int) BEGIN SELECT SUM(field1) INTO total FROM test_db.test_table; END // DELIMITER ; works fine, and when I call it: CALL get_sum(@t); SELECT @t; I get the sum no problem. Ultimately, what I need to do is have a fancy SELECT statement wrapped up in a stored procedure, so I can call it, and return multiple rows of multiple fields. For now I'm just trying to get any select working. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • Delphi App has "No Debug Info" when Debugging

    - by James L.
    We have built an application that uses packages and components. When we debug the application, the "Event Log" in the IDE often shows the our BPLs are being loaded without debug information ("No Debug Info"). This doesn't make sense because all our packages and EXEs are built with debug. _(each project) | Options | Compiling_ [ x ] Assertions [ x ] Debug information [ x ] Local symbols Symbol reference info = "Reference info" [ ] Use debug .dcus [ x ] Use imported data references _(each project) | Options | Linking_ [ x ] Debug information Map file = Detailed We have 4 projects, all built with runtime pacakges: Core.bpl Components.bpl Plugin.bpl (uses both #1 & #2) MainApp.exe (uses #1) Problems Observed 1) Many times when we debug, the Components.bpl is loaded with debug info, but all values in the "Local Variables" window are blank. If you hover your mouse over a variable in the code, there is no popup, and Evaluate window also shows nothing (the "Result" pane is always blank). 2) Sometimes the Event Log shows "No Debug Info" for various BPLs. For instance, if we activate the Plugin.bpl project and set it's Run | Parameter's Host Application to be the MainApp.exe, and then press F9, all modules seems to load with "Has Debug Info" except for the Plugin.bpl module. When it loads, the Event Log shows "No Debug Info". However, if we close the app and immediately press F9, it will run it again without recompiling anything and this time Plugin.bpl is loaded with debug ("Has Debug Info"). Questions 1) What would cause the "Local Variables" window to not display the values? 2) Why are BPLs sometimes loaded without debug info when the BPL was complied with debug and all the debug files (dcu, map, etc.) are available?

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  • Why is OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) causing an OCR running error?

    - by Ian Wells
    Hi folks, I am using MODI to read tiff images and do what I need to do with the text. Some images work fine and then other tiff images always cause the method, OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) to fail. I have researched this and tried different variations such as 'false','false' in the parameter list. I have also tried SYSDEFAULT instead of English but I still get the error. Can anyone please tell me why it would fail on some tiff images and not on others? I have done some research and found this answer: One possible cause is MODI trying to process a file without any recognisable text. A blank document, or one which has only drawings/scribbles and is effectively blank, will cause this exception. Obviously this is not good enough as there is no way I can have an app that decides to OCR some images and not others. I handle the exception, but the OCR object is not then initalised so I can't do what I need to do from there. This is a bloody nightmare! Why can't the method just do it's bloody job and if the image has some unreadable pages then just ignore them? I am using Windows 7 Ultimate and Office 2007 Ultimate. Visual Studio version is 2008 Thanks, IW

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  • Use AJAX to reload captcha

    - by arik-so
    Hello! This question may have been asked already - but unfortunately, I could not find any satisfactory answers. I will just ask it for my concrete case and ask the admins not to delete the question for at least a few days so I can try it out... I have a page. It uses a captcha. Like so: <?php session_start(); // the captcha saves the md5 into the session ?> <img src="captcha.php" onclick="this.src = this.src" /> That was my first code. It did not work, because the browser condsidered it useless to reload an image if the source is the same. My current solution is to pass a get parameter: onclick="this.src = 'captcha.php?randomNumber='+ranNum" The JavaScript variable var ranNum is generated randomly every time the onclick event fires. It works fine, still, I don't like the possibility, if the - though improbable - case of two numbers being the same twice in a row. Although the random number varies between -50,000 and 50,000 - I still do not like it. And I don't think the method is right. I would like to know the 'righter' method, by means of AJAX. I know it's possible. I hope you know how it's possible ^^ In that case, please show me. Thanks in advance! By the way - if I spell cap(t)cha differently, never mind, the reference to the PHP file is right in my code: I use randomImage.php

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  • How to parameterize a path in ANT?

    - by strelokstrelok
    I have the following defined in a file called build-dependencies.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="artifacts/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="artifacts/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> I include it at the top of my build.xml file. Now I need to make the artifacts folder a parameter so it can be changed during execution of different targets. Having this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="build-dependencies"> ... <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="${artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> ... </project> ...and defining an "artifacts" property (and changing it) in the target does not work because it seems that the property substitution happens when the path is defined in build-dependencies.xml How can I solve this? One way I was thinking was to have a parameterized macro and call that before the path is actually used, but that seems not elegant. Something like this: <macrodef name="create-common-jars"> <attribute name="artifacts"/> <sequential> <path id="common-jars"> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-1/jar/some*.jar" /> <fileset file="@{artifacts}/project-2/jar/someother*.jar" /> </path> </sequential> </macrodef>

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  • OpenCV and iPhone

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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  • How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

    - by OG Dude
    Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

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  • ajax to php to curl and back..

    - by pfunc
    I am trying to make an ajax call to a php script. The php script calls an rss feed using curl, gets the data, and returns the data to the funciton. I keep getting an error "Warning: Wrong parameter count for curl_error() in" .... Here is my php code:1 $ch = curl_init() or die(curl_error()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $feed); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); echo $data1; and the ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "getSingleFeed.php", type: "POST", data: "feedURL=" + window.feedURL, success: function(feed){ alert(feed); }}); I tested all the variables, they are being passed correctly, I can echo them out. But this line: $data1 = curl_exec($ch) or die(curl_error()); is what is giving me the error. I am doing the same thing with curl on other pages, just without ajax, and it is working fine. Is there anything special I need to do with ajax to do this?

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  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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  • Printing is not working in tomcat, when i start server with services.msc(From client side we could not print )

    - by maya
    I am using JasperReports 1.3.1 to print the report. I am sing eclipse and tomcat for development purpose. In eclipse, when i run the application, the below code will show the listed printer devices and print button. If i click the print button, the report is printing by selected device. PrintRequestAttributeSet printRequestAttributeSet = new HashPrintRequestAttributeSet(); printRequestAttributeSet.add(MediaSizeName.ISO_A5); PrintServiceAttributeSet printServiceAttributeSet = new HashPrintServiceAttributeSet(); JRPrintServiceExporter exporter = new JRPrintServiceExporter(); exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.JASPER_PRINT, jasperPrint); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.PRINT_REQUEST_ATTRIBUTE_SET, printRequestAttributeSet); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.PRINT_SERVICE_ATTRIBUTE_SET, printServiceAttributeSet); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.DISPLAY_PAGE_DIALOG, Boolean.FALSE); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.DISPLAY_PRINT_DIALOG, Boolean.TRUE); exporter.exportReport(); Here I am passing jasperPrint as a parameter which i manually construted.Its working good My problem is: I created war file and pasted in tomcat Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps directory and started the tomcat by using services.msc. At this point, its not displaying the listed printer details and also not printing. I put some logger, I found that, the code is hanging with exporter.exportReport(); after this line code is not executing . Please suggest me for how to print from client side using jasper

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  • How to implement custom JSF component for drawing chart?

    - by Roman
    I want to create a component which can be used like: <mc:chart data="#{bean.data}" width="200" height="300" /> where #{bean.data} returns a collection of some objects or chart model object or something else what can be represented as a chart (to put it simple, let's assume it returns a collection of integers). I want this component to generate html like this: <img src="someimg123.png" width="200" height="300"/> The problem is that I have some method which can receive data and return image, like: public RenderedImage getChartImage (Collection<Integer> data) { ... } and I also have a component for drawing dynamic image: <o:dynamicImage width="200" height="300" data="#{bean.readyChartImage}/> This component generates html just as I need but it's parameter is array of bytes or RenderedImage i.e. it needs method in bean like this: public RenderedImage getReadyChartImage () { ... } So, one approach is to use propertyChangedListener on submit to set data (Collection<Integer>) for drawing chart and then use <o:dynamicImage /> component. But I'd like to create my own component which receives data and draws chart. I'm using facelets but it's not so important indeed. Any ideas how to create the desired component? P.S. One solution I was thinking about is not to use <o:dynamicImage/> and use some servlet to stream image. But I don't know how to implement that correctly and how to tie jsf component with servlet and how to save already built chart images (generating new same image for each request can cause performance problems imho) and so on..

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  • ASP.NET MVC unit testing

    - by Simon Lomax
    Hi, I'm getting started with unit testing and trying to do some TDD. I've read a fair bit about the subject and written a few tests. I just want to know if the following is the right approach. I want to add the usual "contact us" facility on my web site. You know the thing, the user fills out a form with their email address, enters a brief message and hits a button to post the form back. The model binders do their stuff and my action method accepts the posted data as a model. The action method would then parse the model and use smtp to send an email to the web site administrator infoming him/her that somebody filled out the contact form on their site. Now for the question .... In order to test this, would I be right in creating an interface IDeliver that has a method Send(emailAddress, message) to accept the email address and message body. Implement the inteface in a concrete class and let that class deal with smtp stuff and actually send the mail. If I add the inteface as a parameter to my controller constructor I can then use DI and IoC to inject the concrete class into the controller. But when unit testing I can create a fake or mock version of my IDeliver and do assertions on that. The reason I ask is that I've seen other examples of people generating interfaces for SmtpClient and then mocking that. Is there really any need to go that far or am I not understanding this stuff?

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  • a selective dual command binding converter in WPF?

    - by Jippers
    I'll start off and say I am not using the MVVM pattern for my WPF app. Please forgive me. Right now I have a data template with two buttons, each binds to a different command on the CLR object this data template represents. Both use the same command parameter. Here's an example of the buttons. <Button x:Name="Button1" Command="{Binding Path=Command1}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> <Button x:Name="Button2" Command="{Binding Path=Command2}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> I would like to refactor this into a single button that can perform either command based on a user setting like a boolean in Settings.settings. I don't have access to refactoring the CLR object itself. Also this is a Data Template there isn't codebehind for me to work with. My take is that a converter would be the best bet, but I don't know how I would put that together. The converter would need to take in the CommandParameter, as well as the DataContext so it knows which object to execute the Commands on. Can someone lend me a hand with this? Thanks in advance.

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