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  • Programmatically open an email from a POP3 and extract an attachment

    - by Josh
    We have a vendor that sends CSV files as email attachments. These CSV files contain statuses that are imported into our application. I'm trying to automate the process end-to-end, but it currently depends on someone opening an email, saving the attachment to a server share, so the application can use the file. Since I cannot convince the vendor to change their process, such as offering an FTP location or a Web Service, I'm stuck with trying to automate the existing process. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically open an email from a POP3 account and extract an attachment? The preferred solution would reside on a Windows 2003 server, be written VB.NET and secure. The application can reside on the same server as the POP3 server, for example, we could setup the free POP3 server that comes with Windows Server and pull against the mail file stored on the file system. BTW, we are willing to pay for an off-the-shelf solution, if one exists. Note: I did look at this question but the answer points to a CodeProject solution that doesn't deal with attachments.

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  • Access Expression problem: it's too complex, so how do I turn it in to a function?

    - by Mike
    Access 2007 is telling me that my new expression is to complex. It used to work when we had 10 service levels, but now we have 19! Great! I've asked this question in SuperUser and someone suggested I try it over here. Suggestions are I turn it in to a function - but I'm not sure where to begin and what the function would look like. My expression is checking the COST of our services in the [PriceCharged] field and then assigning the appropriate HOURS [Servicelevel] when I perform a calculation to work out how much REVENUE each colleague has made when working for a client. The [EstimatedTime] field stores the actual hours each colleague has worked. [EstimatedTime]/[ServiceLevel]*[PriceCharged] Below is the breakdown of my COST to HOURS expression. I've put them on different lines to make it easier to read - please do not be put off by the length of this post, it's all the same info in the end. Many thanks,Mike ServiceLevel: IIf([pricecharged]=100(COST),6(HOURS), IIf([pricecharged]=200 Or [pricecharged]=210,12.5, IIf([pricecharged]=300,19, IIf([pricecharged]=400 Or [pricecharged]=410,25, IIf([pricecharged]=500,31, IIf([pricecharged]=600,37.5, IIf([pricecharged]=700,43, IIf([pricecharged]=800 Or [pricecharged]=810,50, IIf([pricecharged]=900,56, IIf([pricecharged]=1000,62.5, IIf([pricecharged]=1100,69, IIf([pricecharged]=1200 Or [pricecharged]=1210,75, IIf([pricecharged]=1300 Or [pricecharged]=1310,100, IIf([pricecharged]=1400,125, IIf([pricecharged]=1500,150, IIf([pricecharged]=1600,175, IIf([pricecharged]=1700,200, IIf([pricecharged]=1800,225, IIf([pricecharged]=1900,250,0)))))))))))))))))))

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  • How does a java web project architecture look like without EJB3 ?

    - by Hendrik
    A friend and I are building a fairly complex website based on java. (PHP would have been more obvious but we chose for java because the educational aspect of this project is important to us) We have already decided to use JSF (with richfaces) for the front end and JPA for the backend and so far we have decided not to use EJB3 for the business layer. The reason we've decided not to use EJB3 is because - and please correct me if I am wrong - if we use EJB3 we can only run it on a full blown java application server like jboss and if we don't use EJB3 we can still run it on a lightweight server like tomcat. We want to keep speed and cost of our future web server in mind. So far i've worked on two JEE projects and both used the full stack with web business logic factories/persistence service entities with every layer a seperate module. Now here is my question, if you dont use EJB3 in the business logic layer. What does the layer look like? Please tell what is common practice when developing java web projects without ejb3? Do you think business logic layer can be thrown out altogether and have business logic in the backing beans? If you keep the layer, do you have all business methods static? Or do you initialize each business class as needed in the backing beans in every session as needed?

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  • OAuth secrets in mobile apps

    - by Felixyz
    When using the OAuth protocol, you need a secret string obtained from the service you want to delegate to. If you are doing this in a web app, you can simply store the secret in your data base or on the file system, but what is the best way to handle it in a mobile app (or a desktop app for that matter)? Storing the string in the app is obviously not good, as someone could easily find it and abuse it. Another approach would be to store it on you server, and have the app fetch it on every run, never storing it on the phone. This is almost as bad, because you have to include the URL in the app. I don't believe using https is any help. The only workable solution I can come up with is to first obtain the Access Token as normal (preferably using a web view inside the app), and then route all further communication through our server, where a script would append the secret to the request data and communicates with the provider. Then again, I'm a security noob, so I'd really like to hear some knowledgeable peoples' opinions on this. It doesn't seem to me that most apps are going to these lengths to guarantee security (for example, Facebook Connect seems to assume that you put the secret into a string right in your app). Another thing: I don't believe the secret is involved in initially requesting the Access Token, so that could be done without involving our own server. Am I correct?

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  • Is it legal to have SOAP envelopes with different namespaces between the request and response?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    I'm new to SOAP and web services, and I'm getting an error I don't understand. Using soapUI, I'm sending the following request: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:doc="http://myproj.mycompany.com"> <soapenv:Header/> <soapenv:Body>... and getting this response: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope"> <soap:Body>... I know the service is getting the info, because things are happening properly down the line. However, my soapUI teststep fails. It has two active assertions: "SOAP Response" and "Not SOAP Fault." The failure marker is next to "SOAP Response," with the following message: line -1: Element Envelope@http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope is not a valid Envelope@http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/ document or a valid substitution. So far, I have tried modifying the URLs and namespaces of the messages to match each other, and adding the following line: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" substitutionGroup="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"/> Is this namespace mixing legal? Is my problem actually something else?

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  • How to map different UI views in a RESTful web application?

    - by MicE
    Hello, I'm designing a web application, which will support both standard UIs (accessed via browsers) and a RESTful API (an XML/JSON-based web service). User agents will be able to differentiate between these by using different values in the Accept HTTP header. The RESTful API will use the following URI structure (example for an "article" resource): GET /article/ - gets a list of articles POST /article/ - adds a new article PUT /article/{id} - updates an existing article based on {id} DELETE /article/{id} - deletes an existing article based on {id} The UI part of the application will however need to support multiple views, for example: a standard resource view a view for submitting a new resource a view for editing an existing resource a view for deleting an existing resource (i.e. display delete confirmation) Note that the latter three views are still accessed via GET, even though they are processed via overloaded POST. Possible solution: Introduce additional parameters (keywords) into URIs which would identify individual views - i.e. on top of the above, the application would support the following URIs (but only for Content-Type: text/html): GET /article/add - displays a form for adding a new article (fetched via GET, processed via POST) GET /article/123 - displays article 123 in "view" mode (fetched via GET) GET /article/123/edit - displays article 123 in "edit" mode (fetched via GET, processed via PUT overloaded as POST) GET /article/123/delete - displays "delete" confirmation for article 123 (fetched via GET, processed via DELETE overloaded as POST) A better implementation of the above might be to put the add/edit/delete keywords into a GET parameter - since they do not change the resource we're working with, it might be better to keep the base URI same for all of them. My question is: How would you map the above URI structure to UIs served to the regular user, considering that there can be several views per each resource, please? Do you agree with the possible solution detailed above, or would you recommend a different approach based on your experience? NB: we've already implemented an application which consists of a standalone RESTful API and a standalone web application. I'm currently looking into options for future projects where these two would be merged together (i.e. in order to reduce overhead). Thank you, M.

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  • Looping through a SimpleXML object, or turning the whole thing into an array.

    - by Coffee Cup
    I'm trying to work out how to iterate though a returned SimpleXML object. I'm using a toolkit called Tarzan AWS, which connects to Amazon Web Services (SimpleDB, S3, EC2, etc). I'm specifically using SimpleDB. I can put data into the Amazon SimpleDB service, and I can get it back. I just don't know how to handle the SimpleXML object that is returned. The Tarzan AWS documentation says this: Look at the response to navigate through the headers and body of the response. Note that this is an object, not an array, and that the body is a SimpleXML object. Here's a sample of the returned SimpleXML object: [body] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [QueryWithAttributesResult] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Item] = Array ( [0] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = message12413344443260 [Attribute] = Array ( [0] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = active [Value] = 1 ) [1] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = user [Value] = john ) [2] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = message [Value] = This is a message. ) [3] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = time [Value] = 1241334444 ) [4] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = id [Value] = 12413344443260 ) [5] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = ip [Value] = 10.10.10.1 ) ) ) [1] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = message12413346907303 [Attribute] = Array ( [0] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = active [Value] = 1 ) [1] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = user [Value] = fred ) [2] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = message [Value] = This is another message ) [3] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = time [Value] = 1241334690 ) [4] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = id [Value] = 12413346907303 ) [5] = SimpleXMLElement Object ( [Name] = ip [Value] = 10.10.10.2 ) ) ) ) So what code do I need to get through each of the object items? I'd like to loop through each of them and handle it like a returned mySQL query. For example, I can query SimpleDB and then loop though the SimpleXML so I can display the results on the page. Alternatively, how do you turn the whole shebang into an array? I'm new to SimpleXML, so I apologise if my questions aren't specific enough.

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  • Are there any ASP.NET MVC subscription-based starter kits or examples?

    - by Wayne M
    Basically something that handles the low-level "plumbing" code for a subscription-based service. I see a lot of things dealing with basic membership, but nothing that handles the subscription aspect (recurring billing, automated jobs for setting up billing, notification for billing, etc). This might be the one thing that keeps me from using ASP.NET MVC for my SaaS idea, since it would take a fair amount of development time to write my own; if I go with my other option, Ruby on Rails, I can buy a kit that does all of this for $250. I haven't found anything even remotely close to this for .NET - all of the SaaS sample apps I've seen are more like StackOverflow et all where you have one site that multiple people log on to, not the web application model where you have subscribers who are billed monthly, each of whom has users and other entities (e.g. Customers, Tasks, etc) for their own site. Is there anything similar for ASP.NET, or some kind of guidelines for writing my own if I have to, so I don't waste too much time? As a startup that means that I'm doing all the coding myself. I've found this, but it seems to only be for billing and didn't seem to have much (any?) documentation on exactly how to set it up.

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  • Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (104)

    - by user309670
    Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for multiplexing connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on their port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR?), which in the network context suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer'; or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? I use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right, but of course in series not parallel. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. Any ideas? I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind, GDB or much logging. Kindly help where you can.

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  • cakephp Activation Email Sending slow

    - by Michael
    Hi all, I have a simple email sender for user account activation. Depending on which email address I use, I get significantly different response times: University email - 1 minute, Gmail - 3-4 hours, Yahoo - 1 or 2 days -- which seems bizarre. Has anyone else seen this phenomenon? EDIT: There weren't many responses (even for a bounty), but I'll try to explain my problem more clearly. This probably isn't greylsting -- If I so a simple: php mail ($to, $subject, $body) // this delivers instantly. My cakephp code: function __sendActivationEmail($id) { $User = $this->User->read ( null, $id ); $this->set ( 'suffix_url', $User ['User'] ['id'] . '/' . $this->User->getActivationHash () ); $this->set ( 'username', $User ['User'] ['username'] ); $this->Email->to = $User ['User'] ['email']; $this->Email->subject = 'Test.com - ' . __ ( 'please confirm your email address', true ); $this->Email->from = '[email protected]'; $this->Email->template = 'user_confirm'; $this->Email->sendAs = 'text'; $this->Email->delivery = 'mail'; $this->Email->send (); } Causes delays from 13 minutes (ok; we'll deal with it) to 5-6 hours (less okay, since this is an activation email). For some of my users, it works instantly, but for other users (of the same service provider, i.e., gmail, it sees these delays). Any clues?

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  • Shared classes are build under VS2008 only but not under MSBuild.

    - by Vasiliy Borovyak
    We share our classes between silverlight 3.0 client and server as is it described here. Everything works fine under Visual Studio 2008 only. Using msbuild with following command line parameters: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\msbuild.exe FoobarApplication.sln /t:Rebuild /p:Configuration=Release /p:Platform="Any CPU" we get following error: Class1.cs(28,54): error CS0234: The type or namespace name 'WcfService' does not exist in the namespace 'Company.FoobarApplication' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Service References\geoServiceReference1\Reference.cs(24,81): error CS0234: The type or namespace name 'WcfService' does not exist in the namespace 'Company.FoobarApplication' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Done Building Project "C:\work\bov-tmp\FoobarApplication\SilverlightClassLibrary3\SilverlightClassLibrary3.csproj" (Rebuild target(s)) -- FAILED. Done Building Project "C:\work\bov-tmp\FoobarApplication\FoobarApplication.sln" (Rebuild target(s)) -- FAILED. I found exactly the same question here. There are 4 workarounds there, I tried first 3 of them and those did not worked out. The 4-th workaround is not the acceptable solution. Any thoughts how to build the solution?

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  • svcutil, XmlSerializer and xsd:list

    - by Dmitry Ornatsky
    I'm using svcutil to generate classes from service metadata. This XML schema <xsd:complexType name="FindRequest"> ... <xsd:attribute name="Significance" type="Significance" use="optional" /> </xsd:complexType> <xsd:simpleType name="Significance"> <xsd:list> <xsd:simpleType> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:int"> <xsd:enumeration value="1" /> <xsd:enumeration value="2" /> <xsd:enumeration value="3" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> </xsd:list> produces following code: public partial class FindRequest { ... private int significanceField; private bool significanceFieldSpecified; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAttributeAttribute()] public int Significance { get { return this.significanceField; } set { this.significanceField = value; } } [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnoreAttribute()] public bool SignificanceSpecified { get { return this.significanceFieldSpecified; } set { this.significanceFieldSpecified = value; } } } My questions are: Is it possible to make XmlSerializer understand this type of list: <FindRequest Significance="1 2 3"/> For example by using some kind of a flags-style enum: public enum EmployeeStatus { [XmlEnum(Name = "1")] One = 1, [XmlEnum(Name = "2")] Two = 2, [XmlEnum(Name = "3")] Three = 4 } If the answer is yes, Is it possible to make svcutil/xsd.exe generate classes that are serialized that way without changing the schema?

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  • Problem with JMX query of Coherence node MBeans visible in JConsole

    - by Quinn Taylor
    I'm using JMX to build a custom tool for monitoring remote Coherence clusters at work. I'm able to connect just fine and query MBeans directly, and I've acquired nearly all the information I need. However, I've run into a snag when trying to query MBeans for specific caches within a cluster, which is where I can find stats about total number of gets/puts, average time for each, etc. The MBeans I'm trying to access programatically are visible when I connect to the remote process using JConsole, and have names like this: Coherence:type=Cache,service=SequenceQueue,name=SEQ%GENERATOR,nodeId=1,tier=back It would make it more flexible if I can dynamically grab all type=Cache MBeans for a particular node ID without specifying all the caches. I'm trying to query them like this: QueryExp specifiedNodeId = Query.eq(Query.attr("nodeId"), Query.value(nodeId)); QueryExp typeIsCache = Query.eq(Query.attr("type"), Query.value("Cache")); QueryExp cacheNodes = Query.and(specifiedNodeId, typeIsCache); ObjectName coherence = new ObjectName("Coherence:*"); Set<ObjectName> cacheMBeans = mBeanServer.queryMBeans(coherence, cacheNodes); However, regardless of whether I use queryMBeans() or queryNames(), the query returns a Set containing... ...0 objects if I pass the arguments shown above ...0 objects if I pass null for the first argument ...all MBeans in the Coherence:* domain (112) if I pass null for the second argument ...every single MBean (128) if I pass null for both arguments The first two results are the unexpected ones, and suggest a problem in the QueryExp I'm passing, but I can't figure out what the problem is. I even tried just passing typeIsCache or specifiedNodeId for the second parameter (with either coherence or null as the first parameter) and I always get 0 results. I'm pretty green with JMX — any insight on what the problem is? (FYI, the monitoring tool will be run on Java 5, so things like JMX 2.0 won't help me at this point.)

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  • SQL Express under IIS 7.5

    - by fampinheiro
    I´m developing a web service that access a SQL Express database, it works very well in the Visual Studio host but when i deploy it to IIS 7.5 i get this exception. Please help me. Stack Trace: System.Data.EntityException: The underlying provider failed on Open. ---> System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.OpenStoreConnectionIf(Boolean openCondition, DbConnection storeConnectionToOpen, DbConnection originalConnection, String exceptionCode, String attemptedOperation, Boolean& closeStoreConnectionOnFailure) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.OpenStoreConnectionIf(Boolean openCondition, DbConnection storeConnectionToOpen, DbConnection originalConnection, String exceptionCode, String attemptedOperation, Boolean& closeStoreConnectionOnFailure) at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.Open() at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContext.EnsureConnection() at System.Data.Objects.ObjectQuery`1.GetResults(Nullable`1 forMergeOption) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectQuery`1.System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<T>.GetEnumerator() at System.Linq.Enumerable.FirstOrDefault[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at WSCinema.CinemaService.Movie() in D:\Documents\My Dropbox\Projects\sd.v0910\trab3\code\WSCinema\CinemaService.asmx.cs:line 46

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  • WS-Security using the ASMX file in ASP.NET 3.5

    - by Adam
    Basically I need to setup my ASMX file so that when I pull it up in a browser to display the WebMethod specification the Soap Header conforms to this format: <soap:Header> <wsse:Security> <wsse:UsernameToken wsu:Id='SecurityToken-securityToken'> <wsse:Username>Username</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password>Password</wsse:Password> <wsu:Created>Timestamp</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> </soap:Header> Back-story: I'm integrating with a client application that is already built (and owned by another company). Basically this client application already has their soap messages all set up from its past integrations with other companies. So we've opted to just build a web service using an ASMX file that matches the WSDL that they're already setup to consume. Is it possible to get WS-Security working on an ASMX file or is ASMX too simplistic and I have to upgrade to WFC (which I really don't want to do)?

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  • Yet Another crosdomain.xml question or: "How to interpret documentation correctly"

    - by cboese
    Hi! I have read a lot about the new policy-policy of flash player and also know the master policy file. Now image the following situation: There are two servers with services (http) running at custom ports servera.com:2222/websiteA serverb.com:3333/websiteB Now I open a swf from server a (eg. servera.com:2222/websiteA/A.swf) that wants to access the service of serverb. Of course I need a crossdomain.xml at the right place and there are multiple variations possible. I dont want to use a master policy file, as I might not have control over the root of both servers. One solution I found works with the following crossdomain: <?xml version="1.0"?> <cross-domain-policy> <allow-access-from domain="*"/> </cross-domain-policy> served at serverb.com:3333/websiteB/crossdomain.xml So now for my question: Is it possible to get rid of the "*" and use a proper (not as general as *) domainname in the allow-access-from rule? All my attempts failed, and from what I understand it should be possible.

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  • DIVS over flash movies in Internet Explorer

    - by drew
    The age old question... why the hell doesn't a div positioned over a flash object stay on top with z-index. I have found the answer in the past, but it's been so long, I can't seem to get it. My flash movie is in a div floating left: <div id="flash"> <object width="614" height="289"> <param name="movie" value="images/75.swf"> <param name="wmode" value="transparent"> <embed src="images/75.swf" width="614" height="289" wmode"transparent"> </embed> </object> </div> My css for the div that needs to be on top is: .menu ul li:hover ul li a:hover { background:#5a3f2d; color:#FFF; z-index: 9999; I cannot get it to show above the flash movie in ie6 or ie8. I know this is old school but I'm frustrated! Does my nav div need to have an absolute position? Is that why it doesn't work? Example is here. Hover over the first link on the right: "CUSTOMER SERVICE" Thanks all :)

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • Dispatch request to an Async Servlet from managed bean generate exception

    - by Thang Pham
    when a button click, I need to have stuff running in my background, so I have a async Servlet. From my managed bean, if I do redirect, it works great (meaning that it execute my run() method inside my class that extends Runnable correctly). Like this String url = externalContext.getRequestContextPath() + "/ReportExecutionServlet"; externalContext.redirect(url); But if I switch to dispatch, like this externalContext.redirect("/ReportExecutionServlet"); it fail when I try to obtain the AsyncContext AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); The error is below Caused By: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The async-support is disabled on this request: weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl Any idea how to fix this please? NOTE: This is how to execute my async servlet, just in case: AsyncContext aCtx = request.startAsync(request, response); //delegate long running process to an "async" thread aCtx.addListener(new AsyncListener() { @Override public void onComplete(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onComplete"); } @Override public void onTimeout(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.WARNING, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onTimeout"); } @Override public void onError(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onError"); } @Override public void onStartAsync(AsyncEvent event) throws IOException { logger.log(Level.INFO, "ReportExecutionServlet handle async request - onStartAsync"); } }); // Start another service ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor executor = new ScheduledThreadPoolExecutor(10); executor.execute(new AsyncRequestReportProcessor(aCtx));

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  • TimeoutException when WCF Host and Client are in the same process

    - by Pharao2k
    I've ran into a really weird problem. I am building a heavily distributed application where each app instance can either be a Host and/or Client to a WCF-Service (very p2p-like). Everything works fine, as long as the Client and the targeted Host (By which I mean the app, not the Host, since currently everything runs on a single computer (so no Firewall problems etc.)) are NOT the same. IF they are the same, then the app hangs for exactly 1 Minute and then throws a TimeoutException. WCF-Logging did not produce anything helpful. Here is a small app which demonstrates the Problem: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding(); var baseAddress = new Uri(@"net.tcp://localhost:4000/Test"); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(TestService), baseAddress); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITestService), binding, baseAddress); var debug = host.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceDebugBehavior>(); if (debug == null) host.Description.Behaviors.Add(new ServiceDebugBehavior { IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true }); else debug.IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true; host.Open(); var clientBinding = new NetTcpBinding(); var testProxy = new TestProxy(clientBinding, new EndpointAddress(baseAddress)); testProxy.Test(); } } [ServiceContract] public interface ITestService { [OperationContract] void Test(); } public class TestService : ITestService { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("foo"); } } public class TestProxy : ClientBase<ITestService>, ITestService { public TestProxy(NetTcpBinding binding, EndpointAddress remoteAddress) : base(binding, remoteAddress) { } public void Test() { Channel.Test(); } } What am I doing wrong? Regards, Pharao2k

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  • Generic list typecasting problem

    - by AJ
    Hello, I'm new to C# and am stuck on the following. I have a Silverlight web service that uses LINQ to query a ADO.NET entity object. e.g.: [OperationContract] public List<Customer> GetData() { using (TestEntities ctx = new TestEntities()) { var data = from rec in ctx.Customer select rec; return data.ToList(); } } This works fine, but what I want to do is to make this more abstract. The first step would be to return a List<EntityObject> but this gives a compiler error, e.g.: [OperationContract] public List<EntityObject> GetData() { using (TestEntities ctx = new TestEntities()) { var data = from rec in ctx.Customer select rec; return data.ToList(); } } The error is: Error 1 Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Collections.Generic.List<SilverlightTest.Web.Customer>' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityObject>'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) What am i doing wrong? Thanks, AJ

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  • CascadingDropDown taking two parameters...

    - by WeeShian
    I have a page with 3 dropdownlist, 2nd and 3rd dropdownlist are added with CascadingDropDown. 3rd dropdownlist will take parameters from 1st and 2nd dropdownlist. So, in current example for CascadingDropDown i have found from google, they are only passing one parameter to the WebService method. How can pass two parameters to the service method, so that my 3rd dropdownlist will based on the SelectedValue of 1st and 2nd dropdownlist? <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetTeams(ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim strConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("nerdlinessConnection").ConnectionString Dim sqlConn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(strConnection) Dim strTeamQuery As String = "SELECT * FROM TEAM WHERE conf_id = @confid" Dim cmdFetchTeam As SqlCommand = New SqlCommand(strTeamQuery, sqlConn) Dim dtrTeam As SqlDataReader Dim kvTeam As StringDictionary = CascadingDropDown.ParseKnownCategoryValuesString(knownCategoryValues) Dim intConfId As Integer If Not kvTeam.ContainsKey("Conference") Or Not Int32.TryParse(kvTeam("Conference"), intConfId) Then Return Nothing End If cmdFetchTeam.Parameters.AddWithValue("@confid", intConfId) Dim myTeams As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue) sqlConn.Open() dtrTeam = cmdFetchTeam.ExecuteReader While dtrTeam.Read() Dim strTeamName As String = dtrTeam("team_name").ToString Dim strTeamId As String = dtrTeam("team_id").ToString myTeams.Add(New CascadingDropDownNameValue(strTeamName, strTeamId)) End While Return myTeams.ToArray End Function This is the sample code i found! As you can see in the code, '@confid' will be passed from 2nd dropdownlist! So, hw do i modify this code to get the selected value from 1st dropdownlist as well??

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  • Calling ASP.NET Web API using JQuery ajax - cross site scripting issue

    - by SimonF
    I have a Web API which I am calling using the JQuery ajax function. When I test the service directly (using the Chrome RESTEasy extension) it works fine, however when I call it using the JQuery ajax function I get an error. I'm calling it on port 81: $.ajax({ url: "http://127.0.0.1:81/api/people", data: JSON.stringify(personToCreate), type: "POST", contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", statusCode: { 201: function (newPerson) { callback(newPerson); } }, success: function (newPerson) { alert("New person created with an Id of " + newPerson.Id); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error. '+textStatus+'. '+errorThrown); } }); ...but when I trace it using FireBug Lite the response comes from port 82: {"Message":"No HTTP resource was found that matches the request URI 'http://127.0.0.1:82/api/people'.","MessageDetail":"No action was found on the controller 'People' that matches the request."} I think the error is, effectively, due to cross-site scripting being blocked, but I'm not actually cross-site scripting, if you see what I mean. Has anyone else come across this and been able to fix it? Edit: Routing config (global.asax.vb) is: RouteTable.Routes.MapHttpRoute(name:="DefaultApi", routeTemplate:="api/{controller}/{id}", defaults:=New With {Key .id = System.Web.Http.RouteParameter.Optional}) Controller: Public Function PostValue(ByVal departmentid As Integer, ByVal emailaddress As String, ByVal firstname As String, ByVal lastname As String) As Guid Dim context As New WSMModelDataContext Dim bllPeople As New PeopleBLL(context) Return bllPeople.Create(firstname, lastname, emailaddress, departmentid) End Function When I debug it, it doesn't get as far as running the controller, although when calling it through RESTEasy it routes correctly and the controller executes successfully. The only difference seemes to be that wen called through RESTEasy it is (correctly) using http://127.0.0.1:81 but for some reason when called via JQuery/ajax it seems to be using http://127.0.0.1:82.

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  • How to make Facebook Authentication from Silverlight secure?

    - by SondreB
    I have the following scenario I want to complete: Website running some HTTP(S) services that returns data for a user. Same website is additionally hosting a Silverlight 4 app which calls these services. The Silverlight app is integrating with Facebook using the Facebook Developer Toolkit (http://facebooktoolkit.codeplex.com/). I have not fully decided whether I want Facebook-integration to be a "opt-in" option such as Spotify, or if I want to "lock" down my service with Facebook-only authentication. That's another discussion. How do I protect my API Key and Secret that I receive from Facebook in a Silverlight app? To me it's obvious that this is impossible as the code is running on the client, but is there a way I can make it harder or should I just live with the fact that third parties could potentially "act" as my own app? Using the Facebook Developer Toolkit, there is a following C# method in Silverlight that is executed from the JavaScript when the user has fully authenticated with Facebook using the Facebook Connect APIs. [ScriptableMember] public void LoggedIn(string sessionKey, string secret, int expires, long userId) { this.SessionKey = sessionKey; this.UserId = userId; Obvious the problem here is the fact that JavaScript is injection the userId, which is nothing but a simple number. This means anyone could potentially inject a different userId in JavaScript and have my app think it's someone else. This means someone could hijack the data within the services running on my website. The alternative that comes to mind is authenticating the users on my website, this way I'm never exposing any secrets and I can return an auth-cookie to the users after the initial authentication. Though this scenario doesn't work very well in an out-of-browser scenario where the user is running the Silverlight app locally and not from my website.

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  • IIS SMTP server (Installed on local server) in parallel to Google Apps

    - by sharru
    I am currently using free version of Google Apps for hosting my email.It works great for my official mails my email on Google is [email protected]. In addition I'm sending out high volume mails (registrations, forgotten passwords, newsletters etc) from the website (www.mydomain.com) using IIS SMTP installed on my windows machine. These emails are sent from [email protected] My problem is that when I send email from the website using IIS SMTP to a mail address [email protected] I don’t receive the email to Google apps. (I only receive these emails if I install a pop service on the server with the [email protected] email box). It seems that the IIS SMTP is ignoring the domain MX records and just delivers these emails to my local server. Here are my DNS records for domain.com: mydomain.com A 82.80.200.20 3600s mydomain.com TXT v=spf1 ip4: 82.80.200.20 a mx ptr include:aspmx.googlemail.com ~all mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx2.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx3.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx4.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 10 exchange: aspmx5.googlemail.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 1 exchange: aspmx.l.google.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 5 exchange: alt1.aspmx.l.google.com 3600s mydomain.com MX preference: 5 exchange: alt2.aspmx.l.google.com 3600s Please help! Thanks.

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