Search Results

Search found 22139 results on 886 pages for 'security testing'.

Page 781/886 | < Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >

  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Is there a more memory efficient way to search through a Core Data database?

    - by Kristian K
    I need to see if an object that I have obtained from a CSV file with a unique identifier exists in my Core Data Database, and this is the code I deemed suitable for this task: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity; entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"ICD9" inManagedObjectContext:passedContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *pred = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"uniqueID like %@", uniqueIdentifier]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:pred]; NSError *err; NSArray* icd9s = [passedContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&err]; [fetchRequest release]; if ([icd9s count] > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < [icd9s count]; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; NSString *name = [[icd9s objectAtIndex:i] valueForKey:@"uniqueID"]; if ([name caseInsensitiveCompare:uniqueIdentifier] == NSOrderedSame && name != nil) { [pool release]; return [icd9s objectAtIndex:i]; } [pool release]; } } return nil; After more thorough testing it appears that this code is responsible for a huge amount of leaking in the app I'm writing (it crashes on a 3GS before making it 20 percent through the 1459 items). I feel like this isn't the most efficient way to do this, any suggestions for a more memory efficient way? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

    - by dotnetrocks
    I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

    Read the article

  • Why is textbox.focus throwing the lostfocus event?

    - by cost
    I've seen a few similar questions on SO but nothing that seems to actually address the issue. Here's a simplified version of the function. Private Sub Check_Quantity(sender As System.Object, e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) _ Handles textbox_quantity.LostFocus Dim worked As Boolean = Integer.TryParse(textbox_quantity.Text, quantity) If Not worked Then MsgBox("Enter a valid number for the quantity") textbox_quantity.Focus() textbox_quantity.SelectAll() quantity = 0 End If End Sub It's important to note that this is WPF. What I want to do is very simple. When someone finishes with the textbox the program checks that what they entered is a number. If it does it sticks this in an integer. If not, it tells them to fix it and keeps the focus on the textbox. The issue is a few things, but what it comes down to is this function runs in an infinite loop. This same function works fine in WinForms, but not in WPF. On some other questions people have said that the messagebox appearing causes focus to be lost, but in testing this isn't true. It still loops regardless of if the messagebox is called or not. The problem is the call to textbox_quantity.Focus(). Without that it works fine. Regardless of whether it's there or not though, focus is not set to the textbox, though textbox_quantity.Focus() still returns a value of true. Any thought of what's going on and maybe how I could fix it?

    Read the article

  • SWIG: From Plain C++ to working Wrapper

    - by duckworthd
    Hi everyone. I've been trying to create a SWIG wrapper for this tiny little C++ class for the better part of 3 hours with no success, so I was hoping one of you out there could lend me a small hand. I have the following class: #include <stdio.h> class Example { public: Example(); ~Example(); int test(); }; #include "example.h" Along with the implementation: Example::Example() { printf("Example constructor called\n"); } Example::~Example() { printf("Example destructor called\n"); } int Example::test() { printf("Holy shit, I work!\n"); return 42; } I've read through the introduction page ( www.swig.org/Doc1.3/Java.html ) a few times without gaining a whole lot of insight into the situation. My steps were Create an example.i file Compile original alongside example_wrap.cxx (no linking) link resulting object files together Create a little java test file (see below) javac all .java files there and run Well steps 4 and 5 have created a host of problems for me, starting with the basic ( library 'example' not found due to not being in java's path ) to the weird ( library not found even unless LD_LIBRARY_PATH is set to something, even if it's nothing at all). I've included my little testing code below public class test2 { static { String libpath = System.getProperty("java.library.path"); String currentDir = System.getProperty("user.dir"); System.setProperty("java.library.path", currentDir + ":" + libpath); System.out.println(System.getProperty("java.library.path")); System.loadLibrary("example"); } public static void main(String[] args){ System.out.println("It loads!"); } } Well, if anyone has navigated these murky waters of wrapping, I could not be happier than if you could light the way, particularly if you could provide the example.i and bash commands to go along with it.

    Read the article

  • Work with AJAX response with DOM methods

    - by Stomped
    I'm retrieving an entire HTML document via AJAX - and that works fine. But I need to extract certain parts of that document and do things with them. Using a framework (jquery, mootools, etc) is not an option. The only solution I can think of is to grab the body of the HTML document with a regex (yes, I know, terrible) ie. <body>(.*)</body> put that into the current page's DOM in a hidden element, and work with it from there. Is there an easier/better way? Update I've done some testing, and inserting an entire HTML document into a created element behaves a bit differently across browsers I've tested. For example: FF3.5: keeps the contents of the HEAD and BODY tags IE7 / Safari4: Only includes what's between ... Opera 10.10: Keeps HEAD and everything inside it, Keeps contents of BODY The behavior of IE7 and Safari are ideal, but different browsers are doing this differently. Since I'm loading a predetermined HTML document I think I'm going to use the regEx to grab what I want and insert it into a DOM element - unless someone has other suggestions.

    Read the article

  • GET is not working for firstResource Rest example

    - by Anandan
    Hi, I am newbie to rest. I am using the following code example to understand the RESTlet. http://www.restlet.org/documentation/1.1/firstResource I am using RESTClient addon to firefox for testing. When i do GET on http://localhost/rest, i get a response "ok". But when i do GET on http://localhost/items, I get an error "404 Not found" Here's the sample code: public synchronized Restlet createRoot() { Router router = new Router(getContext()); router.attach("/items", ItemsResource.class); router.attach("/items/{itemName}", ItemResource.class); Restlet restlet = new Restlet() { @Override public void handle(Request request, Response response) { StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); stringBuilder.append("ok"); response.setEntity(new StringRepresentation(stringBuilder .toString(), MediaType.TEXT_HTML)); } }; router.attach("/rest", restlet); return router; } ItemResource is same as provided in the link. and I use tomcat to run the servlet. Why am I getting the "Not found" error? Am i missing something here? Thanks & Regards, Anandan

    Read the article

  • ExecuteNonQuery: Connection property has not been initialized

    - by 20151012
    I get an error in my code: The error point at dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery();. Code(connection) public admin_addemp() { InitializeComponent(); con = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\EMPS.accdb;Persist Security Info=True"); con.Open(); ds.Tables.Add(dt); ds.Tables.Add(dt2); } Code (Save button) private void save_btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { OleDbCommand check = new OleDbCommand(); check.Connection = con; check.CommandText = "SELECT COUNT(*) FROM employeeDB WHERE ([EmployeeName]=?)"; check.Parameters.AddWithValue("@EmployeeName", tb_name.Text); if (Convert.ToInt32(check.ExecuteScalar()) == 0) { dbcom2 = new OleDbCommand("SELECT EmployeeID FROM employeeDB WHERE EmployeeID='" + tb_id.Text + "'", con); OleDbParameter param = new OleDbParameter(); param.ParameterName = tb_id.Text; dbcom.Parameters.Add(param); OleDbDataReader read = dbcom2.ExecuteReader(); if (read.HasRows) { MessageBox.Show("The Employee ID '" + tb_id.Text + "' already exist. Please choose another Employee ID."); read.Dispose(); read.Close(); } else { string q = "INSERT INTO employeeDB (EmployeeID, EmployeeName, IC, Address, State, " + " Postcode, DateHired, Phone, ManagerName) VALUES ('" + tb_id.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_name.Text + "', '" + tb_ic.Text + "', '" + tb_add1.Text + "', '" + cb_state.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_postcode.Text + "', '" + dateTimePicker1.Value + "', '" + tb_hp.Text + "', '" + cb_manager.Text + "')"; dbcom = new OleDbCommand(q, con); dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("New Employee '" + tb_name.Text + "'- Successfuly Added."); } } else { MessageBox.Show("Employee name '" + tb_name.Text + "' already added into the database"); } ds.Dispose(); } I'm using Microsoft Access 2010 as my database and this is stand alone system. Please help me.

    Read the article

  • How do software projects go over budget and under-deliver?

    - by Carlos
    I've come across this story quite a few times here in the UK: NHS Computer System Summary: We're spunking £12 Billion on some health software with barely anything working. I was sitting the office discussing this with my colleagues, and we had a little think about. From what I can see, all the NHS needs is a database + middle tier of drugs/hospitals/patients/prescriptions objects, and various GUIs for doctors and nurses to look at. You'd also need to think about security and scalability. And you'd need to sit around a hospital/pharmacy/GPs office for a bit to figure out what they need. But, all told, I'd say I could knock together something with that kind of structure in a couple of days, and maybe throw in a month or two to make it work in scale. If I had a few million quid, I could probably hire some really excellent designers to make a maintainable codebase, and also buy appropriate hardware to run the system on. I hate to trivialize something that seems to have caused to much trouble, but to me it looks like just a big distributed CRUD + UI system. So how on earth did this project bloat to £12B without producing much useful software? As I don't think the software sounds so complicated, I can only imagine that something about how it was organised caused this mess. Is it outsourcing that's the problem? Is it not getting the software designers to understand the medical business that caused it? What are your experiences with projects gone over budget, under delivered? What are best practices for large projects? Have you ever worked on such a project?

    Read the article

  • How to set a static system date for one user or application--"Groundhog Day"

    - by aixylinux
    I have a vendor application on AIX which requires the system date to be set to an arbitrary value for QA testing purposes. The application gets its date from the system, and there is no possibility of changing it to get the date from a parameter. The application runs under a specific userid. I'd like to find a way to set the date for this application or user to a private value without affecting all the other users and applications on the system. So far the only thing I have been able to do is dedicate an LPAR to this application. Every day at midnight a root crontab job resets the date to the static value. This works, but it is wasteful of resources; and now I am faced the requirement to do this for other applications, which, of course, require different dates. Is there any clever solution to this? I need a way to create a sandboxed environment where the date returned from the system can be set to a private value. As I said, the OS is AIX, and that can't be changed for this application either.

    Read the article

  • Receiving UDP on different Android phones gives different results

    - by user1868982
    I am willing to create a server and client program on my android mobile devices. The devices communicate with each other on the same wifi network, therefore, some simple scanning mechanism must be implemented - The client phones search for a server phone through some kind of broadcast. What I did: My protocol - the client phone broadcasts a message port p on the wifi, the server listens on port p. when the server gets the broadcast message it sends a message back, therefore discovering itself to the client. My code - I have opened a broadcast socket on my app, it sends a broadcast message. Meanwhile there is a python script on my PC that listens and replies - I use python so that my testing will be easier - Wireshark on the PC and I can see everything. What happens: When I use one of my Galaxy S phones - it works and I get a response. When I use the other Galaxy S phone - it doesn't work. Now this is what I know: The phone that works actually has Nexus ROM on it Ver. 4.1.1 The phone that doesn't work has 2.3.3 regular galaxy ROM The python code says it receives both of the broadcasts sent from both phones, and replies to both of them without raising any exception. So far I was thought the problem may be 1. the older version'd phone. 2. the windows firewall 3. the router firewall So I have opened Wireshark, and Indeed I saw that both phones are sending their broadcasts - it was logged on Wireshark. But the python script only responded to the first one. So this is why 1 & 3 are irrelevant - if the router firewall was blocking my UDP I would have still seen the python server response, same with the older versioned phone. To get rid of 2 i just disabled the windows firewall - still same problem. Does anyone has a clue to why this effect might happen? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Update UITableView in Response to Button Press

    - by Kyle Begeman
    I have a completely custom view that holds a UITableView and a Custom Tab Bar (basically a UIView that contains 6 UIButtons). I am loading data from a plist file, and then I am sorting the data into multiple arrays based on categories (an array for misc items, and array for mail items, etc.) Each button in the tab bar represents a category, and when I press the button I call the custom function "miscSelected" and so on. How can I have the table view completely reload and then display the tableview based on the array selected (select the misc category and the tableview clears itself and loads the misc array data, same for any other category)? The method I have experimented with is created and NSString named "selection" and then in each button function I set selected to equal whatever section I am selecting. In my cellForRoxAtIndexPath method I have this: if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"All Items"]) { NSArray *mainDataArray = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; NSSortDescriptor *brandDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:brandDescriptor]; self.sortedData = [mainDataArray sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; } else if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"Misc Items"]){ self.sortedData = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; } cell.itemTitle.text = [[self.sortedData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; For the sake of example and testing I am simply displaying the same data, just one button displays it in alphabetical order and the other does not. This code works only when I start to scroll down and back up, but it does not actually update on button press. Calling myTable reloadData does not do anything either. Any help would be great, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Managing My Database in Source Control

    - by Jason
    As I am working with a new database project (within VS2008), and as I have never developed a database from scratch, I immediately began looking into how to manage a database within source control (in this case, Subversion). I found some information on SO, including this post: Keeping development databases in multiple environments in sync. One of the answers in particular pointed to a number of a links, all of which had good, useful information. I was reading a series of posts by K. Scott Allen which describe how he manages database change. From my reading (and please pardon the noobishness of my question), it seems as though the database itself is never checked into a repository. Rather, scripts that can build the database, along with test data (which is also populated from scripts) is checked into the repository. Ultimately, this means that, when a developer is testing his or her app, these scripts, which are part of the build process, are run. This ensures that the database is up-to-date, but is also run locally from every developer's machine. This makes sense to me (if I am indeed reading that correctly). However, if I am missing something, I would appreciate correction or additional guidance. In addition, another question I wanted to ask - does this also mean that I should NOT check in the mdf or ldf files that are created from Visual Studio? Thanks for any help and additional insight. Always appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Browser timing out attempting to load images

    - by notJim
    I've got a page on a webapp that has about 13 images that are generated by my application, which is written in the Kohana PHP framework. The images are actually graphs. They are cached so they are only generated once, but the first time the user visits the page, and the images all have to be generated, about half of the images don't load in the browser. Once the page has been requested once and images are cached, they all load successfully. Doing some ad-hoc testing, if I load an individual image in the browser, it takes from 450-700 ms to load with an empty cache (I checked this using Google Chrome's resource tracking feature). For reference, it takes around 90-150 ms to load a cached image. Even if the image cache is empty, I have the data and some of the application's startup tasks cached, so that after the first request, none of that data needs to be fetched. My questions are: Why are the images failing to load? It seems like the browser just decides not to download the image after a certain point, rather than waiting for them all to finish loading. What can I do to get them to load the first time, with an empty cache? Obviously one option is to decrease the load times, and I could figure out how to do that by profiling the app, but are there other options? As I mentioned, the app is in the Kohana PHP framework, and it's running on Apache. As an aside, I've solved this problem for now by fetching the page as soon as the data is available (it comes from a batch process), so that the images are always cached by the time the user sees them. That feels like a kludgey solution to me, though, and I'm curious about what's actually going on.

    Read the article

  • Procesing 16bit sample audio

    - by user2431088
    Right now i have an audio file (2 Channels, 44.1kHz Sample Rate, 16bit Sample size, WAV) I would like to pass it into this method but i am not sure of any way to convert the WAV file to a byte array. /// <summary> /// Process 16 bit sample /// </summary> /// <param name="wave"></param> public void Process(ref byte[] wave) { _waveLeft = new double[wave.Length / 4]; _waveRight = new double[wave.Length / 4]; if (_isTest == false) { // Split out channels from sample int h = 0; for (int i = 0; i < wave.Length; i += 4) { _waveLeft[h] = (double)BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i); _waveRight[h] = (double)BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i + 2); h++; } } else { // Generate artificial sample for testing _signalGenerator = new SignalGenerator(); _signalGenerator.SetWaveform("Sine"); _signalGenerator.SetSamplingRate(44100); _signalGenerator.SetSamples(16384); _signalGenerator.SetFrequency(5000); _signalGenerator.SetAmplitude(32768); _waveLeft = _signalGenerator.GenerateSignal(); _waveRight = _signalGenerator.GenerateSignal(); } // Generate frequency domain data in decibels _fftLeft = FourierTransform.FFTDb(ref _waveLeft); _fftRight = FourierTransform.FFTDb(ref _waveRight); }

    Read the article

  • own drawImage / drawLine in OpenGL

    - by Chrise
    I'm implementing some native 2D-draw functions in my graphics engine for android, but now there's another question coming up, when I observe the performance of my program. At the moment I'm implementing a drawLine/drawImage function. In summary, there are following different values for drawing each different line / image: the color the alpha value the width of the line rotation (only for images) size/scale (also for images) blending method (subrtract, add, normal-alpha) Now, when an imageLine is drawn, I put the CPU-calculated vertex-positions and uv-values for 6 vertices (2 triangles), into a Floatbuffer and draw it immediately with drawArrays, after passing information for drawing (color,alpha, etc.) via uniforms to the shader. When I draw an image, the pre-set VBO is directly drawn after passing information. The first fact I recognized, is: of course drawing Images is much faster, than imagelines (beacuse of VBOs), but also: I cannot pre-put vertex-data into a VBO for imageLines, because imageLines have no static shape like normal images (varying linelength, varying linewidth and the vertex positions of x1,y1 and x2,y2 change too often) That's why I use a normal Floatbuffer, instead of a VBO. So my question is: What's the best way for managing images, and other 2D-graphics functions. For me it's some kind of important, that the user of the engine is able to draw as many images/2D graphics as possible, without loosing to much performance. You can find the functions for drawing images, imagelines, rects, quads, etc. here: https://github.com/Chrise55/LLama3D/blob/master/Llama3DLibrary/src/com/llama3d/object/graphics/image/ImageBase.java Here an example how it looks with many images (testing artificial neural networks), it works fine, but already little bit slow with that many images... :(

    Read the article

  • FTP exception 501 "pathname" more than 8 characters

    - by BigMac66
    I am trying to access a file via a URI using the FTP protocol. For obvious security reasons I had to make some changes but this is where the problems seem to be coming from. My URI is as follows: ftp://user:[email protected]/u/Bigpathname/XYZ/ABC/BigPathname/bigpathname/xyz/abc/MY_LOG.LOG And I see this exception: sun.net.ftp.FtpProtocolException: CWD Bigpathname:501 A qualifier in "Bigpathname" is more than 8 characters This is really confusing as I can access the file from a Windows 7 command line with the CD command just fine. Both one directory at a time and as a full path. I found one article mentioning that MVS file names must be 8 or fewer characters but this does not explain how I can get to these same files from my command line! They do exist there is data there that I can download manual but I can not get there via a URI in Java. PS I use .toURL().openStream() to get files on my local machine just fine, it only fails when I try to get them from my server. EDIT October 1st I am able to access files on the MVS host using FileZilla and the basic FTP client from the Windows 7 command line - but I still cannot get them from a URI/URL. I downloaded a very basic Java built FTP client and tried accessing the same file in my program from there and the path works but because my file name has a dot in it "MY_LOG.LOG" I am getting File does not exist 501 Invalid data set name "MY_LOG.LOG". Use MVS Dsname conventions. I am utterly perplexed by this...

    Read the article

  • Executing a process in windows server 2003 and ii6 from code - permissions error

    - by kurupt_89
    I have a problem executing a process from our testing server. On my localhost using windows XP and iis5.1 I changed the machine.config file to have the line - I then changed the login for iis to log on as local system account and allow server to interact with desktop. This fixed my problem executing a process from code in xp. When using the same method on windows server 2003 (using iis6 isolation mode) the process does not get executed. Here is the code to execute the process (I have tested the inputs to iecapt through the command line and an image is generated) - public static void GenerateImageToDisk(string ieCaptPath, string url, string path, int delay) { url = FixUrl(url); ieCaptPath = FixPath(ieCaptPath); string arguments = @"--url=""{0}"" --out=""{1}"" --min-width=0 --delay={2}"; arguments = string.Format(arguments, url, path, delay); ProcessStartInfo ieCaptProcessStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(ieCaptPath + "IECapt.exe"); ieCaptProcessStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.Arguments = arguments; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WorkingDirectory = ieCaptPath; Process ieCaptProcess = Process.Start(ieCaptProcessStartInfo); ieCaptProcess.WaitForExit(600000); ieCaptProcess.Close(); }

    Read the article

  • performance issue: difference between select s.* vs select *

    - by kamil
    Recently I had some problem in performance of my query. The thing is described here: poor Hibernate select performance comparing to running directly - how debug? After long time of struggling, I've finally discovered that the query with select prefix like: select sth.* from Something as sth... Is 300x times slower then query started this way: select * from Something as sth.. Could somebody help me, and asnwer why is that so? Some external documents on this would be really useful. The table used for testing was: SALES_UNIT table contains some basic info abot sales unit node such as name and etc. The only association is to table SALES_UNIT_TYPE, as ManyToOne. The primary key is ID and field VALID_FROM_DTTM which is date. SALES_UNIT_RELATION contains relation PARENT-CHILD between sales unit nodes. Consists of SALES_UNIT_PARENT_ID, SALES_UNIT_CHILD_ID and VALID_TO_DTTM/VALID_FROM_DTTM. No association with any tables. The PK here is ..PARENT_ID, ..CHILD_ID and VALID_FROM_DTTM The actual query I've done was: select s.* from sales_unit s left join sales_unit_relation r on (s.sales_unit_id = r.sales_unit_child_id) where r.sales_unit_child_id is null select * from sales_unit s left join sales_unit_relation r on (s.sales_unit_id = r.sales_unit_child_id) where r.sales_unit_child_id is null Same query, both uses left join and only difference is with select.

    Read the article

  • jQuery hide all table rows which contain a hidden field matching a value

    - by Famous Nerd
    Though I don't doubt this has been answered I cannot find a great match for my question. I have a table for which I'd like to filter rows based on whether or not they contain a hidden field matching a value. I understand that the technique tends to be "show all rows", "filter the set", "show/hide that filtered set" I have the following jquery but I'm aweful with filter and my filtered set seems to always contain no elements. my table is the usual <table> <tr><td>header></td><td>&nbsp;</tr> <tr> <td>a visible cell</td><td><input type='hidden' id='big-asp.net-id' value='what-im-filtering-on' /> </td> </tr> </table> My goal is to be able to match on tr who's descendent contains a hidden input containing either true or false. this is how I've tried the selector (variations of this) and I'm not even testing for the value yet. function OnFilterChanged(e){ //debugger; var checkedVal = $("#filters input[type='radio']:checked").val(); var allRows = $("#match-grid-container .tabular-data tr"); if(checkedVal=="all"){ allRows.show(); } else if(checkedVal=="matched"){ allRows.show(); allRows.filter(function(){$(this).find("input[type='hidden'][id~='IsAutoMatchHiddenField']")}).hide(); } else if(checkedVal=="unmatched"){ } } Am I way off with the filter? is the $(this) required in the filter so that i can do the descendant searching? Thanks kindly

    Read the article

  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

    Read the article

  • Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

    - by DZittersteyn
    I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

    Read the article

  • PHP variable equals true no matter what the value, even 0

    - by kaigoh
    This is the var_dump: object(stdClass)#27 (8) { ["SETTING_ID"]=> string(2) "25" ["SETTING_SOURCE"]=> string(2) "XV" ["SETTING_FLEET"]=> string(3) "313" ["SETTING_EXAM"]=> string(1) "A" ["SETTING_HIDE"]=> string(1) "0" ["SETTING_THRESHOLD"]=> string(1) "0" ["SETTING_COUNT"]=> string(8) "POSITIVE" ["SETTING_USAGE"]=> string(7) "MILEAGE" } The variable I am testing is SETTING_HIDE. This is being pulled from MySQL using the Code igniter framework. I don't know if it is just me being thick after a rather long day at work or what, but no matter what value the variable holds, any if statement made against it returns true, even when typecast as a boolean or a direct string comparison, ie. == "0" or == "1". Anyone with a fresh pair of eyes care to make me feel silly!?! :) Just to clarify: Have tried the following: if($examSetting->SETTING_HIDE == "1") { $showOnABC = "checked=\"checked\""; } if((bool)$examSetting->SETTING_HIDE) { $showOnABC = "checked=\"checked\""; } if($examSetting->SETTING_COUNT == "POSITIVE") further on in my code works perfectly.

    Read the article

  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

    - by Gareth D
    We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >