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• Google Chrome audit on caching

  - by Álvaro G. Vicario

  If I run an audit on my sites with Google Chrome, I get this message in the Leverage browser caching section: The following resources are missing a cache expiration. Resources that do not specify an expiration may not be cached by browsers: A list of all the pictures follows. I get a similar notice in Leverage proxy caching: Consider adding a "Cache-Control: public" header to the following resources: Apart from pictures, I also get a notice about HTML, CSS and JavaScript files: The following resources are explicitly non-cacheable. Consider making them cacheable if possible: Its funny because I've worked hard to cache all static contents (except for pictures, where I just left Apache's default settings). Firefox does indeed store all these items in cache. Is there anything I should improve in my HTTP headers? Here's the complete header set of some items as loaded after removing the browser caché. Pictures use default settings I didn't really check before, the rest should be cachéd for three hours. I can set headers with both .htaccess and PHP. PNG HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:14 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:54 GMT Etag: "c48024-230-4821a15d6c580" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 560 Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: image/png HTML HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:13 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:46:13 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Wed, 24 Mar 2010 20:30:36 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15 CSS HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/css JavaScript HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/x-javascript Update I've tested Jumby's suggestion and set my CSS's expire to 1 year: Cache-Control:max-age=31536000, s-maxage=31536000, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:4198 Content-Type:text/css Date:Mon, 02 Aug 2010 20:48:56 GMT Expires:Tue, 02 Aug 2011 20:48:56 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=5, max=99 Last-Modified:Thu, 18 Mar 2010 20:40:12 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 Vary:Accept-Encoding X-Powered-By:PHP/5.3.1 However, Chrome still claims "explicitly non-cacheable".

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• Visual Studio Express 2012 debug mode doesn't work

  - by user2350086

  I have a project in Visual Studio that I have been working on for a while, and I have used the debugger extensively. Recently I changed some settings and I have lost the ability to stop the program and step through code. I can't figure out what I had changed that might have affected this. If I put a breakpoint in my code and try to have the program stop there, it doesn't. The break point shows up white with a red outline. If I hover the mouse over it, it says "The breakpoint will not currently be hit. No executable code of the debugger's target code type is associated with this line. Possible causes include: conditional compilation, compiler optimizations, or the target architecture of this line is not supported by the current debugger code type." I know for a fact that the program executes the code where the breakpoint is because I put the breakpoint in the beginning of the InitializeComponent method. The program displays the window fine, but does not stop at the breakpoint. Yes, I am running in debug mode. It seems as though there is a disconnect between the compiled code and the source code displayed. Does anyone know what that would be, or know which compiler settings I should check to re-enable debugging? Here are the compiler options: /GS /analyze- /W3 /Zc:wchar_t /I"D:\dev\libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc\include" /Zi /Od /sdl /Fd"Debug\vc110.pdb" /fp:precise /D "WIN32" /D "_DEBUG" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /errorReport:prompt /WX- /Zc:forScope /Oy- /clr /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\mscorlib.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Data.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Drawing.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Windows.Forms.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Xml.dll" /MDd /Fa"Debug\" /EHa /nologo /Fo"Debug\" /Fp"Debug\Prog.pch" The linker options are: /OUT:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.exe" /MANIFEST /NXCOMPAT /PDB:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.pdb" /DYNAMICBASE "curllib.lib" "winmm.lib" "kernel32.lib" "user32.lib" "gdi32.lib" "winspool.lib" "comdlg32.lib" "advapi32.lib" "shell32.lib" "ole32.lib" "oleaut32.lib" "uuid.lib" "odbc32.lib" "odbccp32.lib" /FIXED:NO /DEBUG /MACHINE:X86 /ENTRY:"Main" /INCREMENTAL /PGD:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.pgd" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /ManifestFile:"Debug\Prog.exe.intermediate.manifest" /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT /NOLOGO /LIBPATH:"D:\dev\libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc\lib\Debug" /ASSEMBLYDEBUG /TLBID:1

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• find words in a hashset or treeset?

  - by icelated

  I am piping in a file and storing it into a treeset. I am trying to count unique words.. I am placing words that i dont want into a hashset. "a","the", "and" I want to check to see if the file contains those words, before i place them into the TreeSet.. i know i need some sort of if(word == find) ? i just dont know how to do it.. Sorry about formatting. its hard to get it correct after you paste. this is what i have.. import java.util.Scanner; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.TreeSet; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.HashSet; public class Project1 { public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner sc = new Scanner(System.in); String word; String grab; int count = 0; int count2 =0; int count3 =0; int count4 =0; int number; TreeSet<String> a = new TreeSet<String>(); HashSet<String> find = new HashSet<String>(); System.out.println("Project 1\n"); find.add("a"); find.add("and"); find.add("the"); while (sc.hasNext()) { word = sc.next(); word = word.toLowerCase(); for(int i = 0; i < word.length(); i++ ) { if(Character.isDigit(word.charAt(i))) { count3++; } } //if( a.contains("a") ) //|| word.matches("and") || word.matches("the")|| word.contains("$")) //{ // count2++; // } a.add(word); if (word.equals("---")) { break; } } System.out.println("a size"); System.out.println(a.size()); // count = count2 - count; System.out.println("unique words"); System.out.println(a.size() - count2 - count3); System.out.println("\nbye..."); } }

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• Contract developer trying to get outsourcing contract with current client.

  - by Mike

  I work for a major bank as a contract software developer. I've been there a few months, and without exception this place has the worst software practices I've ever seen. The software my team makes has no formal testing, terrible code (not reusable, hard to read, etc), minimal documentation, no defined development process and an absolutely sickening amount of waste due to bureaucratic overhead. Part of my contract is to maintain a group of thousands of very poorly written batch jobs. When one of the jobs fails (read: crashes), it's a developers job to look at the source, figure out what's wrong, fix it, and check it in. There is no quality assurance process or auditing of the results whatsoever. Once the developer says "it works" a manager signs off and it goes into production. What's disturbing is that these jobs essentially grab market data and put it into a third-party risk management system, which provides the bank with critical intelligence. I've discovered the disturbing truth that this has been happening since the 90s and nobody really has evidence the system is getting the correct data! Without going into details, an issue arose on Friday that was so horrible I actually stormed out of the place. I was ready to quit, but I decided to just get out to calm my nerves and possibly go back Monday. I've been reflecting today on how to handle this. I have realized that, in probably less than 6 months, I could (with 2 other developers) remake a large component of this system. The new system would provide them with, as primary benefits, a maintainable codebase less prone to error and a solid QA framework. To do it properly I would have to be outside the bank, the internal bureaucracy is just too much. And moreover, I think a bank is fundamentally not a place that can make good software. This is my plan. Write a report explaining in depth all the problems with their current system Explain why their software practices fail and generate a tremendous amount of error and waste. Use this as the basis for claiming the project must be developed externally. Write a high level development plan, including what resources I will require Hand 1,2,3 to my manager, hopefully he passes it up the chain. Worst case he fires me, but this isn't so bad. Convinced Executive decides to award my company a contract for the new system I have 8 years experience as a software contractor and have delivered my share of successful software products, but all working in-house for small/medium sized companies. When I read this over, I think I have a dynamite plan. But since this is the first time doing something this bold so I have my doubts. My question is, is this a good idea? If you think not, please spare no detail.

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• Should Application_End fire on an automatic App Pool Recycle?

  - by Laramie

  I have read this, this, this and this plus a dozen other posts/blogs. I have an ASP.Net app in shared hosting that is frequently recycling. We use NLog and have the following code in global.asax void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION STARTING\r\n\r\n"); } protected void Application_OnEnd(Object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION_OnEnd\r\n\r\n"); } void Application_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpRuntime runtime = (HttpRuntime)typeof(System.Web.HttpRuntime).InvokeMember("_theRuntime", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.GetField, null, null, null); if (runtime == null) return; string shutDownMessage = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownMessage", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); string shutDownStack = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownStack", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); ApplicationShutdownReason shutdownReason = System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.ShutdownReason; NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug(String.Format("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION END\r\n\r\n_shutDownReason = {2}\r\n\r\n _shutDownMessage = {0}\r\n\r\n_shutDownStack = {1}\r\n\r\n", shutDownMessage, shutDownStack, shutdownReason)); } void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nApplication_Error\r\n\r\n"); } Our log file is littered with "APPLICATION STARTING" entries, but neither Application_OnEnd, Application_End, nor Application_Error are ever fired during these spontaneous restarts. I know they are working because there are entries for touching the web.config or /bin files. We also ran a memory overload test and can trigger an OutOfMemoryException which is caught in Application_Error. We are trying to determine whether the virtual memory limit is causing the recycling. We have added GC.GetTotalMemory(false) throughout the code, but this is for all of .Net, not just our App´s pool, correct? We've also tried var oPerfCounter = new PerformanceCounter(); oPerfCounter.CategoryName = "Process"; oPerfCounter.CounterName = "Virtual Bytes"; oPerfCounter.InstanceName = "iisExpress"; logger.Debug("Virtual Bytes: " + oPerfCounter.RawValue + " bytes"); but don't have permission in shared hosting. I've monitored the app on a dev server with the same requests that caused the recycles in production with ANTS Memory Profiler attached and can't seem to find a culprit. We have also run it with a debugger attached in dev to check for uncaught exceptions in spawned threads that might cause the app to abort. My questions are these: How can I effectively monitor memory usage in shared hosting to tell how much my application is consuming prior to an application recycle? Why are the Application_[End/OnEnd/Error] handlers in global.asax not being called? How else can I determine what is causing these recycles? Thanks.

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• Perl Moose::Util::TypeConstraints bug ? what is this error about the name has invalid chars ?

  - by alex8657

  That has been hours i am tracking a Moose::Util::TypeConstraints exceptions, i don't understand where it gets to check a type and tells me that the name is incorrect. I tracked the error to a reduced example to try to locate the problem, and it just shows me that i do not get it. Did i get to a Moose::Util::TypeConstraints bug ? aoffice:new alex$ perl -c ../codesnippets/typeconstrainterror.pl ../codesnippets/typeconstrainterror.pl syntax OK aoffice:new alex$ perl -d ../codesnippets/typeconstrainterror.pl (...) DB<1> r Something::File::LocalFile=HASH(0x100d1bfa8) contains invalid characters for a type name. Names can contain alphanumeric character, ":", and "." at /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.10.1/darwin-multi-2level/Moose/Util/TypeConstraints.pm line 508 Moose::Util::TypeConstraints::_create_type_constraint('Something::File::LocalFile=HASH(0x100d1bfa8)', undef, undef, undef, undef) called at /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.10.1/darwin-multi-2level/Moose/Util/TypeConstraints.pm line 285 Moose::Util::TypeConstraints::type('Something::File::LocalFile=HASH(0x100d1bfa8)') called at ../codesnippets/typeconstrainterror.pl line 7 Something::File::is_slink('Something::File::LocalFile=HASH(0x100d1bfa8)') called at ../codesnippets/typeconstrainterror.pl line 33 Debugged program terminated. Use q to quit or R to restart, use o inhibit_exit to avoid stopping after program termination, h q, h R or h o to get additional info. Below, the code that crashes: package Something::File; use Moose; has 'type' =>(is=>'ro', isa=>'Str', writer=>'_set_type' ); sub is_slink { my $self = shift; return ( $self->type eq 'slink' ); } no Moose; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; package Something::File::LocalFile; use Moose; use Moose::Util::TypeConstraints; extends 'Something::File'; subtype 'PositiveInt' => as 'Int' => where { $_ >0 } => message { 'Only positive greater than zero integers accepted' }; no Moose; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; my $a = Something::File::LocalFile->new; # $a->_set_type('slink'); print $a->is_slink ." end\n";

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• Calling "Base-Getter" in Overriding Getter of Property

  - by scherand

  I have a base class "Parent" like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Parent { private int parentVirtualInt = -1; public virtual int VirtualProperty { get { return parentVirtualInt; } set { if(parentVirtualInt != value) { parentVirtualInt = value; } } } } } and a child class like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Child : Parent { public override int VirtualProperty { get { if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) { throw new ApplicationException("Dummy Ex"); } return base.VirtualProperty; } set { if(base.VirtualProperty != value) { base.VirtualProperty = value; } } } } } Note that the getter in Child is calling the getter of Parent (or at least this is what I intend). I now use the "Child" class by instantiating it, assigning a value (let's say 4) to its VirtualProperty and then reading the property again. Child c = new Child(); c.VirtualProperty = 4; Console.Out.WriteLine("Child.VirtualProperty: " + c.VirtualProperty); When I run this, I obviously get an ApplicationException saying "Dummy Ex". But if I set a breakpoint on the line if(base.VirtualProperty > 0) in Child and check the value of base.VirtualProperty (by hovering the mouse over it) before the exception can be thrown (I assume(d)), I already get the Exception. From this I convey that the statement base.VirtualProperty in the "Child-Getter calls itself"; kind of. What I would like to achieve is the same behavior I get when I change the definition of parentVirutalInt (in Parent) to protected and use base.parentVirtualInt in the Getter of Child instead of base.VirtualProperty. And I don't yet see why this is not working. Can anybody shed some light on this? I feel that overridden properties behave differently than overridden methods? By the way: I am doing something very similar with subclassing a class I do not have any control over (this is the main reason why my "workaround" is not an option). Kind regards

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• UIScrollView strange zoom behavior when content is a UIView subclass

  - by sigsegv

  Hi, I'm experiencing the following: I created a UIView subclass with a CATiledLayer as backing layer by overriding the layerClass method. The layer properties (delegate, tileSize, etc) are set in the initWithFrame: method of the subclass. +(Class)layerClass { return [CATiledLayer class]; } -(id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if(self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { renderer = [[MFPDFRenderer alloc]init]; tiledLayer = (CATiledLayer *)[self layer]; [tiledLayer setFrame:frame]; [tiledLayer setLevelsOfDetail:2]; [tiledLayer setLevelsOfDetailBias:3]; [tiledLayer setTileSize:CGSizeMake(512, 512)]; [tiledLayer setDelegate:renderer]; } return self; } Then I add an instance of said class as the content of an UIScrollView and set UIScrollView properties and implement the required delegate's methods. Everything works fine but when zooming the scroll view keep repositioning itself on its center. It's hardly noticeable when zooming in the center of the content, but unbearable otherwise. The same scroll view works fine when I use as (zoomable) content any other view such as an UIImageView or even a normal UIView with a CATiledLayer with the same properties and delegate of the subclass implementation as sublayer. When I check layer bounds and frame in the drawLayer:inContext: method of the delegate I get the following result as the zoom increase UIView with CATiledLayer as sublayer: 2010-04-03 21:05:33.499 Renderer[89293:4903] Layer: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 2010-04-03 21:05:33.500 Renderer[89293:4903] Bounds: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 2010-04-03 21:05:33.529 Renderer[89293:4903] Layer: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 2010-04-03 21:05:33.534 Renderer[89293:4903] Bounds: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 Custom subclass: 2010-04-03 21:04:15.969 Renderer[88957:4903] Layer: (0.000, 0.000) 657.910 x 945.746 2010-04-03 21:04:15.970 Renderer[88957:4903] Bounds: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 2010-04-03 21:04:17.428 Renderer[88957:4903] Layer: (-0.000, 0.000) 766.964 x 1102.510 2010-04-03 21:04:17.429 Renderer[88957:4903] Bounds: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 [...] 2010-04-03 21:19:10.388 Renderer[92573:4903] Layer: (-0.000, 0.000) 905.680 x 1301.916 2010-04-03 21:19:10.388 Renderer[92573:4903] Bounds: (0.000, 0.000) 320.000 x 460.000 I suppose that's the culprit or at least another symptom. I can add that I get the same erratic behavior if my subclass is built over a standard CALayer with the same renderer. Any suggestion will be appreciated!

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• VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

  - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham

  I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

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• How to detect if Asp.Net form is valid

  - by Hasan Gürsoy

  Hi, I have a form which is in an updatePanel and I have a span with hidden loading image, which I want to show when user clicks to submit button but I first need to check if page is valid on client side. Also I'm making loading span visible with jQuery. Here is my code: <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function showLoading() { $('#loader').show(); } </script> </head> <body> <asp:ScriptManager ID="smMain" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upForm" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:MultiView ID="mvContact" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vDefault" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="tEMail" runat="server" CssClass="input" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* required" Display="Dynamic" /> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="revEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* invalid" Display="Dynamic" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*" /> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Assets/Images/btnSubmit.png" ToolTip="Submit Form" style="margin:5px 5px 0 -5px" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="showLoading();" /> <span id="loader"><img src="Assets/Images/loader.gif" title="Sending..." /></span> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vResult" runat="server"> <div class="result"> <span id="lResult" runat="server">Your message is sent</span> </div> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </body></html>

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• wxPython ListCtrl Column Ignores Specific Fields

  - by g.d.d.c

  I'm rewriting this post to clarify some things and provide a full class definition for the Virtual List I'm having trouble with. The class is defined like so: from wx import ListCtrl, LC_REPORT, LC_VIRTUAL, LC_HRULES, LC_VRULES, \ EVT_LIST_COL_CLICK, EVT_LIST_CACHE_HINT, EVT_LIST_COL_RIGHT_CLICK, \ ImageList, IMAGE_LIST_SMALL, Menu, MenuItem, NewId, ITEM_CHECK, Frame, \ EVT_MENU class VirtualList(ListCtrl): def __init__(self, parent, datasource = None, style = LC_REPORT | LC_VIRTUAL | LC_HRULES | LC_VRULES): ListCtrl.__init__(self, parent, style = style) self.columns = [] self.il = ImageList(16, 16) self.Bind(EVT_LIST_CACHE_HINT, self.CheckCache) self.Bind(EVT_LIST_COL_CLICK, self.OnSort) if datasource is not None: self.datasource = datasource self.Bind(EVT_LIST_COL_RIGHT_CLICK, self.ShowAvailableColumns) self.datasource.list = self self.Populate() def SetDatasource(self, datasource): self.datasource = datasource def CheckCache(self, event): self.datasource.UpdateCache(event.GetCacheFrom(), event.GetCacheTo()) def OnGetItemText(self, item, col): return self.datasource.GetItem(item, self.columns[col]) def OnGetItemImage(self, item): return self.datasource.GetImg(item) def OnSort(self, event): self.datasource.SortByColumn(self.columns[event.Column]) self.Refresh() def UpdateCount(self): self.SetItemCount(self.datasource.GetCount()) def Populate(self): self.UpdateCount() self.datasource.MakeImgList(self.il) self.SetImageList(self.il, IMAGE_LIST_SMALL) self.ShowColumns() def ShowColumns(self): for col, (text, visible) in enumerate(self.datasource.GetColumnHeaders()): if visible: self.columns.append(text) self.InsertColumn(col, text, width = -2) def Filter(self, filter): self.datasource.Filter(filter) self.UpdateCount() self.Refresh() def ShowAvailableColumns(self, evt): colMenu = Menu() self.id2item = {} for idx, (text, visible) in enumerate(self.datasource.columns): id = NewId() self.id2item[id] = (idx, visible, text) item = MenuItem(colMenu, id, text, kind = ITEM_CHECK) colMenu.AppendItem(item) EVT_MENU(colMenu, id, self.ColumnToggle) item.Check(visible) Frame(self, -1).PopupMenu(colMenu) colMenu.Destroy() def ColumnToggle(self, evt): toggled = self.id2item[evt.GetId()] if toggled[1]: idx = self.columns.index(toggled[2]) self.datasource.columns[toggled[0]] = (self.datasource.columns[toggled[0]][0], False) self.DeleteColumn(idx) self.columns.pop(idx) else: self.datasource.columns[toggled[0]] = (self.datasource.columns[toggled[0]][0], True) idx = self.datasource.GetColumnHeaders().index((toggled[2], True)) self.columns.insert(idx, toggled[2]) self.InsertColumn(idx, toggled[2], width = -2) self.datasource.SaveColumns() I've added functions that allow for Column Toggling which facilitate my description of the issue I'm encountering. On the 3rd instance of this class in my application the Column at Index 1 will not display String values. Integer values are displayed properly. If I add print statements to my OnGetItemText method the values show up in my console properly. This behavior is not present in the first two instances of this class, and my class does not contain any type checking code with respect to value display. It was suggested by someone on the wxPython users' group that I create a standalone sample that demonstrates this issue if I can. I'm working on that, but have not yet had time to create a sample that does not rely on database access. Any suggestions or advice would be most appreciated. I'm tearing my hair out on this one.

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• How to create sliding drawer in both sides opposite to one another?

  - by janmejoy

  I have added the code that working for right to left sliding perfectly but i want sliding from left to right also so check the layout and help me out.Here i have mentioned the layout properly for right to left ,Is it possible to get the Slider window in both sides i mean left and right horizontally... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/bg" android:orientation="vertical" > <Button android:id="@+id/ship" android:layout_width="186dp" android:layout_height="23dp" android:layout_marginTop="49dp" android:background="@drawable/signup" android:text="Shipping Calculator" android:textColor="#ffffffff" android:layout_gravity="center" android:textStyle="bold" /> </LinearLayout> <SlidingDrawer android:id="@+id/drawer" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="horizontal" android:handle="@+id/handle" android:content="@+id/content"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/handle" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:src="@drawable/tag"/> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="@drawable/slidimage" android:orientation="vertical" android:padding="10dp" > <TextView android:id="@+id/text1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center" android:layout_marginTop="15dp" android:layout_marginLeft="51dp" android:text="SIGN-UP" android:textColor="#000000" android:textSize="28dp" android:textStyle="bold" /> </LinearLayout> </SlidingDrawer> <SlidingDrawer android:id="@+id/drawers" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:handle="@+id/handles" android:layout_gravity="left" android:scrollX="100dp" android:orientation="horizontal" android:content="@+id/contents"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/handles" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_gravity="left" android:src="@drawable/tag"/> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/contents" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_gravity="left" android:background="@drawable/slidimage" android:orientation="vertical" android:padding="10dp" > <TextView android:id="@+id/text1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center" android:layout_marginTop="15dp" android:layout_marginLeft="51dp" android:text="SIGN-UP" android:textColor="#000000" android:textSize="28dp" android:textStyle="bold" /> </LinearLayout> </SlidingDrawer> </FrameLayout>

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• Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

  - by Snorkpete

  We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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• XML Postback issue

  - by Mikey1980

  I have a script that is designed to parse XML postbacks from Ultracart, right now just dumps it into a MySQL table. The script works fine if I point it to a XML file on my localhost but using 'php://input' it doesn't seem to grabbing anything. My logs show apache returning 200 after the post so I have no idea what could be wrong or how to drill down the issue.. here's the code: $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->loadXML($page); $handle = fopen("test2/".time().".xml", "w+"); fwrite($handle,trim($page)); // it doesn't save this either :'( fclose(); require_once('includes/database.php'); $db = new Database('localhost', 'user', 'password', 'db_name'); $data = array(); $exports = $doc->getElementsByTagName("export"); foreach ($exports as $export) { $orders = $export->getElementsByTagName("order"); foreach($orders as $order) { $data['order_id'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("order_id")->item(0)->nodeValue; $data['payment_status'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("payment_status")->item(0)->nodeValue; $date_array = explode(" ",$order->getElementsByTagName("payment_date_time")->item(0)->nodeValue); if ($date_array[1] == 'JAN') { $date_array[1] = '01'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'FEB') { $date_array[1] = '02'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'MAR') { $date_array[1] = '03'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'APR') { $date_array[1] = '04'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'MAY') { $date_array[1] = '05'; } // converts Ultracart date to if ($date_array[1] == 'JUN') { $date_array[1] = '06'; } // MySQL date if ($date_array[1] == 'JUL') { $date_array[1] = '07'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'AUG') { $date_array[1] = '08'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'SEP') { $date_array[1] = '09'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'OCT') { $date_array[1] = '10'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'NOV') { $date_array[1] = '11'; } if ($date_array[1] == 'DEC') { $date_array[1] = '12'; } $data['payment_date'] = $date_array[2]."-".$date_array[1]."-".$date_array[0]; $data['payment_time'] = $date_array[3]; //... we'll skip this, there are 80 some elements $data['discount'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("discount")->item(0)->nodeValue; $data['distribution_center_code'] = $order->getElementsByTagName("distribution_center_code")->item(0)->nodeValue; } } } $db->insert('order_history',$data); } else die('ERROR: Token Check Failed!');

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• WMI: Editing the Registry Remotely

  - by Quanta

  I'm trying to use the following code (poorly written, but it's just a proof of concept) to edit the registry of a computer on a domain. I have a domain account, and I've verified that the domain admin group is present in the local admin group on the machines I'm attempting to affect. I've connected to these other machines to perform other administrative type tasks, so I'm sure that I have administrative privileges on these hosts. All of StdRegProv's "get" methods work fine (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa393664%28VS.85%29.aspx) but the "set" or "create" methods as well as check access all return "5" which is "Error_Access_Denied" according to winerror.h. So there's the problem: why do I get access denied when attempting to modify the registry? If anyone can help me figure this out, you'd have my utmost appreciation! I almost forgot, when I fire up Visual Studio in admin mode on my local machine and run the code against the local machine, it works flawlessly. If I don't start in admin mode on the local machine, the code fails, so I suspect there's a UAC problem maybe? using System; using System.Management; public class EditRemoteRegistry { public static void Main(string[] args) { ConnectionOptions options = new ConnectionOptions(); options.EnablePrivileges = true; options.Impersonation = ImpersonationLevel.Impersonate; options.Password = "password goes here"; //options.Authority = "my company's domain"; //options.Username = "Admin username"; ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope("\\\\arbitraryhost\\root\\default", options); scope.Connect(); ManagementClass mc = new ManagementClass("StdRegProv"); ManagementBaseObject inParams = mc.GetMethodParameters("CreateKey"); inParams["hDefKey"] = (UInt32)2147483650; inParams["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mc.InvokeMethod("CreateKey", inParams, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("CreateKey Method returned " + outParams["returnValue"]); //This chunk works fine ManagementBaseObject inParams5 = mc.GetMethodParameters("GetDWORDValue"); inParams5["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams5["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams5["sValueName"] = "testDWORDvalue"; ManagementBaseObject outParams5 = mc.InvokeMethod("GetDWORDValue", inParams5, null); Console.WriteLine("GetDWORDValue returned " + (UInt32)outParams5["returnValue"] + " "); Console.WriteLine((UInt32)outParams5["uValue"]); ManagementBaseObject inParams6 = mc.GetMethodParameters("SetStringValue"); inParams6["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams6["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams6["sValueName"] = "TestStringValue"; inParams6["sValue"] = "Hello World!"; ManagementBaseObject outParams6 = mc.InvokeMethod("SetStringValue", inParams6, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("SetStringValue returned " + outParams6["returnValue"]); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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• Lightbox image / link URL

  - by GSTAR

  Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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• LSP packet modify

  - by kellogs

  Hello, anybody care to share some insights on how to use LSP for packet modifying ? I am using the non IFS subtype and I can see how (pseudo?) packets first enter WSPRecv. But how do I modify them ? My inquiry is about one single HTTP response that causes WSPRecv to be called 3 times :((. I need to modify several parts of this response, but since it comes in 3 slices, it is pretty hard to modify it accordingly. And, maybe on other machines or under different conditions (such as high traffic) there would only be one sole WSPRecv call, or maybe 10 calls. What is the best way to work arround this (please no NDIS :D), and how to properly change the buffer (lpBuffers-buf) by increasing it ? int WSPAPI WSPRecv( SOCKET s, LPWSABUF lpBuffers, DWORD dwBufferCount, LPDWORD lpNumberOfBytesRecvd, LPDWORD lpFlags, LPWSAOVERLAPPED lpOverlapped, LPWSAOVERLAPPED_COMPLETION_ROUTINE lpCompletionRoutine, LPWSATHREADID lpThreadId, LPINT lpErrno ) { LPWSAOVERLAPPEDPLUS ProviderOverlapped = NULL; SOCK_INFO *SocketContext = NULL; int ret = SOCKET_ERROR; *lpErrno = NO_ERROR; // // Find our provider socket corresponding to this one // SocketContext = FindAndRefSocketContext(s, lpErrno); if ( NULL == SocketContext ) { dbgprint( "WSPRecv: FindAndRefSocketContext failed!" ); goto cleanup; } // // Check for overlapped I/O // if ( NULL != lpOverlapped ) { /*bla bla .. not interesting in my case*/ } else { ASSERT( SocketContext->Provider->NextProcTable.lpWSPRecv ); SetBlockingProvider(SocketContext->Provider); ret = SocketContext->Provider->NextProcTable.lpWSPRecv( SocketContext->ProviderSocket, lpBuffers, dwBufferCount, lpNumberOfBytesRecvd, lpFlags, lpOverlapped, lpCompletionRoutine, lpThreadId, lpErrno); SetBlockingProvider(NULL); //is this the place to modify packet length and contents ? if (strstr(lpBuffers->buf, "var mapObj = null;")) { int nLen = strlen(lpBuffers->buf) + 200; /*CHAR *szNewBuf = new CHAR[]; CHAR *pIndex; pIndex = strstr(lpBuffers->buf, "var mapObj = null;"); nLen = strlen(strncpy(szNewBuf, lpBuffers->buf, (pIndex - lpBuffers->buf) * sizeof (CHAR))); nLen = strlen(strncpy(szNewBuf + nLen * sizeof(CHAR), "var com = null;\r\n", 17 * sizeof(CHAR))); pIndex += 18 * sizeof(CHAR); nLen = strlen(strncpy(szNewBuf + nLen * sizeof(CHAR), pIndex, 1330 * sizeof (CHAR))); nLen = strlen(strncpy(szNewBuf + nLen * sizeof(CHAR), "if (com == null)\r\n" \ "com = new ActiveXObject(\"InterCommJS.Gateway\");\r\n" \ "com.lat = latitude;\r\n" \ "com.lon = longitude;\r\n}", 111 * sizeof (CHAR))); pIndex = strstr(szNewBuf, "Content-Length:"); pIndex += 16 * sizeof(CHAR); strncpy(pIndex, "1465", 4 * sizeof(CHAR)); lpBuffers->buf = szNewBuf; lpBuffers->len += 128;*/ } if ( SOCKET_ERROR != ret ) { SocketContext->BytesRecv += *lpNumberOfBytesRecvd; } } cleanup: if ( NULL != SocketContext ) DerefSocketContext( SocketContext, lpErrno ); return ret; } Thank you

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• Moving from Linear Probing to Quadratic Probing (hash collisons)

  - by Nazgulled

  Hi, My current implementation of an Hash Table is using Linear Probing and now I want to move to Quadratic Probing (and later to chaining and maybe double hashing too). I've read a few articles, tutorials, wikipedia, etc... But I still don't know exactly what I should do. Linear Probing, basically, has a step of 1 and that's easy to do. When searching, inserting or removing an element from the Hash Table, I need to calculate an hash and for that I do this: index = hash_function(key) % table_size; Then, while searching, inserting or removing I loop through the table until I find a free bucket, like this: do { if(/* CHECK IF IT'S THE ELEMENT WE WANT */) { // FOUND ELEMENT return; } else { index = (index + 1) % table_size; } while(/* LOOP UNTIL IT'S NECESSARY */); As for Quadratic Probing, I think what I need to do is change how the "index" step size is calculated but that's what I don't understand how I should do it. I've seen various pieces of code, and all of them are somewhat different. Also, I've seen some implementations of Quadratic Probing where the hash function is changed to accommodated that (but not all of them). Is that change really needed or can I avoid modifying the hash function and still use Quadratic Probing? EDIT: After reading everything pointed out by Eli Bendersky below I think I got the general idea. Here's part of the code at http://eternallyconfuzzled.com/tuts/datastructures/jsw_tut_hashtable.aspx: 15 for ( step = 1; table->table[h] != EMPTY; step++ ) { 16 if ( compare ( key, table->table[h] ) == 0 ) 17 return 1; 18 19 /* Move forward by quadratically, wrap if necessary */ 20 h = ( h + ( step * step - step ) / 2 ) % table->size; 21 } There's 2 things I don't get... They say that quadratic probing is usually done using c(i)=i^2. However, in the code above, it's doing something more like c(i)=(i^2-i)/2 I was ready to implement this on my code but I would simply do: index = (index + (index^index)) % table_size; ...and not: index = (index + (index^index - index)/2) % table_size; If anything, I would do: index = (index + (index^index)/2) % table_size; ...cause I've seen other code examples diving by two. Although I don't understand why... 1) Why is it subtracting the step? 2) Why is it diving it by 2?

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• Auto update the content in ASP.NET

  - by Zerotoinfinite

  I have to design a website where user can update their status, just like facebook and twitter and other social networking sites. Now my requirement is to refresh the feed with new user updates. Ex: when the new status comes facebook automatically add that on the top of the feed. on the other hand twitter shows the number of updates which is ready to be load. both ways are acceptable to me Now, I have to decide what is the best way to achieve this functionality. I am open to use ASP.NET. So I am confused that regular repeater control with timer and auto refresh or any other way? (I am wondering that if I set repeater for auto update and meanwhile if user is performing some action on any status it will lost). or do I need to change my framework from ASP.NET to ASP.NET MVC (I am little afraid with MVC as I have very less knowledge regarding it and I know it has a learning curve to master ajax/Jquery things) Any suggestion how I can I achieve it in a better and feasible way? EDIT1 I am not looking for a code but I want advice to achieve this. Supporting URL's would be appreciated. EDIT2 I am open to JQuery which can regularly check the database and fill the section. But my concern is this that if user is updating any comment and want to load/feed is automatically generated. his textbox text shouldn't be disappear (just like facebook, twitter or Linkedin) EDIT3 I have seen that on Stack overflow when any other user has modified the question/answer, I got notification like this question/answer is modified. and when I clicked on that notification only that section got reloaded. I am curious to know how to achieve this functionality. So that when user is commenting on a status/post and if meanwhile someone has updated the content then it would show the other user comment. Edit4 Could someone please recommend me an example of ASP.NET MVC 3+ which can do similar kind of activity (i.e. one input box and once user insert an text it will add the item in the list (with JQuery).

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• Mac OS - Built SVN from source, now Apache2 not loading sites

  - by Geuis

  This relates to another question I asked earlier today. I built SVN 1.6.2 from source. In the process, it has completely screwed up my dev environment. After I built SVN, Apache wasn't loading. It was giving me this error: Syntax error on line 117 of /private/etc/apache2/httpd.conf: Cannot load /usr/libexec /apache2/mod_dav_svn.so into server: dlopen(/usr/libexec/apache2/mod_dav_svn.so, 10): no suitable image found. Did find:\n\t/usr/libexec/apache2/mod_dav_svn.so: mach-o, but wrong architecture It appears that SVN over-wrote the old mod_dav_svn.so and I am not able to get it to build as FAT, and I can't recover whatever was originally there. I resolved this(temporarily?) by commenting out the line that was loading the mod_dav_svn.so and got Apache to start at this point. However, even though Apache is running I am now getting this error when trying to access my dev sites: Directory index forbidden by Options directive: /usr/share/tomcat6/webapps/ROOT/ I have Apache2 sitting in front of Tomcat6. I access my local dev site using the internal name "http://localthesite". I have had virtual directories set up that have worked until this SVN debacle. Tomcat is installed at /usr/local/apache-tomcat, and webapps is /usr/local/apache-tomcat/webapps. Our production servers deploy tomcat to /usr/share/tomcat6, so I have symlinks setup on my system to replicate this as well. These point back to the actual installation path. This has all been working fine as well. None of our configurations for Apache2, Tomcat, or .htaccess have changed. Over the weekend, I performed a "Repair Disk Permissions" on the system. This was before I discovered the mod_dav_svn.so problem. I have been reading up on this all morning and the most common answer is that there is an Options -Indexes set. We have this in a config file, but it was there before and when I removed it during testing, I still got the same errors from Apache. At this point, I'm assuming I either totally borked the native Apache2 installation on this Mac, or that there is a permissions error somewhere that I'm missing. The permissions error could be from the SVN installation, or from my repair process. Does anyone have any idea what could be the problem? I'm totally blocked right now and have no idea where to check next.

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• Android HttpsURLConnection and JSON for new GCM

  - by Ryan Gray

  I'm overhauling certain parts of my app to use the new GCM service to replace C2DM. I simply want to create the JSON request from a Java program for testing and then read the response. As of right now I can't find ANY formatting issues with my JSON request and the google server always return code 400, which indicates a problem with my JSON. http://developer.android.com/guide/google/gcm/gcm.html#server JSONObject obj = new JSONObject(); obj.put("collapse_key", "collapse key"); JSONObject data = new JSONObject(); data.put("info1", "info_1"); data.put("info2", "info 2"); data.put("info3", "info_3"); obj.put("data", data); JSONArray ids = new JSONArray(); ids.add(REG_ID); obj.put("registration_ids", ids); System.out.println(obj.toJSONString()); I print my request to the eclipse console to check it's formatting byte[] postData = obj.toJSONString().getBytes(); try{ URL url = new URL("https://android.googleapis.com/gcm/send"); HttpsURLConnection.setDefaultHostnameVerifier(new JServerHostnameVerifier()); HttpsURLConnection conn = (HttpsURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setDoOutput(true); conn.setDoInput(true); conn.setUseCaches(false); conn.setRequestMethod("POST"); conn.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/json"); conn.setRequestProperty("Authorization", "key=" + API_KEY); System.out.println(conn.toString()); OutputStream out = conn.getOutputStream(); // exception thrown right here. no InputStream to get InputStream in = conn.getInputStream(); byte[] response = null; out.write(postData); out.close(); in.read(response); JSONParser parser = new JSONParser(); String temp = new String(response); JSONObject temp1 = (JSONObject) parser.parse(temp); System.out.println(temp1.toJSONString()); int responseCode = conn.getResponseCode(); System.out.println(responseCode + ""); } catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("Exception thrown\n"+ e.getMessage()); } } I'm sure my API key is correct as that would result in error 401, so says the google documentation. This is my first time doing JSON but it's easy to understand because of its simplicity. Anyone have any ideas on why I always receive code 400? update: I've tested the google server example classes provided with gcm so the problem MUST be with my code.

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• SQL CLR Stored Procedure and Web Service

  - by Nathan

  I am current working on a task in which I am needing to call a method in a web service from a CLR stored procedure. A bit of background: Basically, I have a task that requires ALOT of crunching. If done strictly in SQL, it takes somewhere around 30-45 mins to process. If I pull the same process into code, I can get it complete in seconds due to being able to optimize the processing so much more efficiently. The only problem is that I have to have this process set as an automated task in SQL Server. In that vein, I have exposed the process as a web service (I use it for other things as well) and want the SQL CLR sproc to consume the service and execute the code. This allows me to have my automated task. The problem: I have read quite a few different topics regarding how to consume a web service in a CLR Sproc and have done so effectivly. Here is an example of what I have followed. http://blog.hoegaerden.be/2008/11/11/calling-a-web-service-from-sql-server-2005/ I can get this example working without any issues. However, whenever I pair this process w/ a Web Service method that involves a database call, I get the following exceptions (depending upon whether or not I wrap in a try / catch): Msg 10312, Level 16, State 49, Procedure usp_CLRRunDirectSimulationAndWriteResults, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. The UDP/UDF/UDT did not revert thread token. or Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure MyStoredProc , Line 0 A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyStoredProc': System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.EnvironmentPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. System.Security.SecurityException: at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.CredentialCache.get_DefaultCredentials() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean value) at MyStoredProc.localhost.MPWebService.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean Value) at MyStoredProclocalhost.MPWebService..ctor() at MyStoredProc.StoredProcedures.MyStoredProc(String FromPostCode, String ToPostCode) I am sure this is a permission issue, but I can't, for the life of me get it working. I have attempted using impersonation in the CLR sproc and a few other things. Any suggestions? What am I missing?

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• Javascript childNodes does not find all children of a div when appendchild has been used

  - by yesterdayze

  Alright, I am hoping someone can help me out. I apologize up front that this one may be confusing. I have included an example to try to help ease the confusion as this is better seen then heard. I have created a webpage that contains a group or set of groups. Each group has a subgroup. In a nutshell what is happening is this page will allow me to combine multiple groups containing subgroups into a new group. The page will give the chance to rename the old subgroups before they are combined into new groups in order to avoid confusion. When a group is renamed it will check to make sure there is not already a group with that name. If there is it will copy itself out of it's own group and into that group and then delete the original. If the group does not already exist it will create that group, copy itself in and then delete the original. Subgroups can also be renamed at which point they will move into the group with the same name if it exists, or create a new one if it doesn't. The page has a main div. The main div contains 'new sub group' divs. Inside each of those is another div containing the 'old sub group' divs. I use a loop through the child nodes of the 'new sub group' div when renaming a group in order to find each child node. These are then copied into a new div within the main div. The crux of the problem is this. If I loop through a DIV and copy all of the DIVs in it into a new or existing DIV all is well. When I then try to take that DIV and copy all of it's DIVs into another or new DIV it always skips one of the moved DIVs. For simplicity I have copied the entire working code below. To recreate the issue click the spot where the image should appear next to the name ewrewrwe and rename it to something else. All is well. Now click that new group the same way and name it something else. You will see it skip one each time. I have linked the page here: http://vtbikenight.com/test.html The link is clean, it is my personal website I use for a local motorycle group I am part of. Thanks for the help everyone!!! Please let me know if I can clarify on anything. I know the code is not the best right now, it is just demo code and my intent is to get the concept working then streamline it all.

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• AVFoundation buffer comparison to a saved image

  - by user577552

  Hi, I am a long time reader, first time poster on StackOverflow, and must say it has been a great source of knowledge for me. I am trying to get to know the AVFoundation framework. What I want to do is save what the camera sees and then detect when something changes. Here is the part where I save the image to a UIImage : if (shouldSetBackgroundImage) { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); // Create a bitmap graphics context with the sample buffer data CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(rowBase, bufferWidth, bufferHeight, 8, bytesPerRow, colorSpace, kCGBitmapByteOrder32Little | kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst); // Create a Quartz image from the pixel data in the bitmap graphics context CGImageRef quartzImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); // Free up the context and color space CGContextRelease(context); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); // Create an image object from the Quartz image UIImage * image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:quartzImage]; [self setBackgroundImage:image]; NSLog(@"reference image actually set"); // Release the Quartz image CGImageRelease(quartzImage); //Signal that the image has been saved shouldSetBackgroundImage = NO; } and here is the part where I check if there is any change in the image seen by the camera : else { CGImageRef cgImage = [backgroundImage CGImage]; CGDataProviderRef provider = CGImageGetDataProvider(cgImage); CFDataRef bitmapData = CGDataProviderCopyData(provider); char* data = CFDataGetBytePtr(bitmapData); if (data != NULL) { int64_t numDiffer = 0, pixelCount = 0; NSMutableArray * pointsMutable = [NSMutableArray array]; for( int row = 0; row < bufferHeight; row += 8 ) { for( int column = 0; column < bufferWidth; column += 8 ) { //we get one pixel from each source (buffer and saved image) unsigned char *pixel = rowBase + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); unsigned char *referencePixel = data + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); pixelCount++; if ( !match(pixel, referencePixel, matchThreshold) ) { numDiffer++; [pointsMutable addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(SCREEN_WIDTH - (column/ (float) bufferHeight)* SCREEN_WIDTH - 4.0, (row/ (float) bufferWidth)* SCREEN_HEIGHT- 4.0)]]; } } } numberOfPixelsThatDiffer = numDiffer; points = [pointsMutable copy]; } For some reason, this doesn't work, meaning that the iPhone detects almost everything as being different from the saved image, even though I set a very low threshold for detection in the match function... Do you have any idea of what I am doing wrong?

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• MVC 2 AntiForgeryToken - Why symmetric encryption + IPrinciple?

  - by Brad R

  We recently updated our solution to MVC 2, and this has updated the way that the AntiForgeryToken works. Unfortunately this does not fit with our AJAX framework any more. The problem is that MVC 2 now uses symmetric encryption to encode some properties about the user, including the user's Name property (from IPrincipal). We are able to securely register a new user using AJAX, after which subsequent AJAX calls will be invalid as the anti forgery token will change when the user has been granted a new principal. There are also other cases when this may happen, such as a user updating their name etc. My main question is why does MVC 2 even bother using symmetric encryption? Any then why does it care about the user name property on the principal? If my understanding is correct then any random shared secret will do. The basic principle is that the user will be sent a cookie with some specific data (HttpOnly!). This cookie is then required to match a form variable sent back with each request that may have side effects (POST's usually). Since this is only meant to protect from cross site attacks it is easy to craft up a response that would easily pass the test, but only if you had full access to the cookie. Since a cross site attacker is not going to have access to your user cookies you are protected. By using symmetric encryption, what is the advantage in checking the contents of the cookie? That is, if I already have sent an HttpOnly cookie the attacker cannot override it (unless a browser has a major security issue), so why do I then need to check it again? After having a think about it it appears to be one of those 'added layer of security' cases - but if your first line of defence has fallen (HttpOnly) then the attacker is going to get past the second layer anyway as they have full access to the users cookie collection, and could just impersonate them directly, instead of using an indirect XSS/CSRF attack. Of course I could be missing a major issue, but I haven't found it yet. If there are some obvious or subtle issues at play here then I would like to be aware of them.

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