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• C++ Multi Monitor - Find All Visible/Open Windows

  - by Paul

  I'm trying to find all the windows of ANY kind that are open (and have a taskbar 'button'). I have no problems finding the list processes/hWnd's, and then cycling through those, but how do I determine if a process/hwnd has a window open? (even if minimized). I've tried doing different combinations of the window parameters (such as WS_POPUP etc) but none of the parameters (or combinations of parameters) that I could find would give me all the open windows without some sort of false positives. As an example of a false positive was the fact that it gives me two 'windows' for google talk (even though one was open). Another false positive is considering the start menu as an open window. Any ideas? Solutions? I've been working on this for a while and its been driving me a bit insane. Note: I'm doing this for windows 7 (at this point). I'm not sure if there's any difference between how you would do this between XP and 7, but I thought it might be relevant.

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• Social Networking & Network Affiliations

  - by Code Sherpa

  Hi. I am in the process of planning a database for a social networking project and stumbled upon this url which is a (crude) reverse engineered guess at facebook's schema: http://www.flickr.com/photos/ikhnaton2/533233247/ What is of interest to me is the notion of "Affiliations" and I am trying to fully understand how they work, technically speaking. Where I am somewhat confused is the NetworkID column in the FacebookGroups", "FacebookEvent", and "Affiliations" tables (NID in Affiliations). How are these network affiliations interconnected? In my own project, I have a simple profile table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Profiles]( [profileid] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [username] [varchar](255) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL, [applicationname] [varchar](255) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL, [isanonymous] [bit] NULL, [lastactivity] [datetime] NULL, [lastupdated] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK__Profiles__1DB06A4F] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [profileid] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [PKProfiles] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [username] ASC, [applicationname] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] One profile can have many affiliations. And one affiliation can have many profiles. And I would like to design it in such a way that relationships between affiliations tells me something about the associated profiles. In fact, based on the affiliations that users select, I would like to know how to infer as many things as possible about that person. My question is, how should I be designing my network affiliation tables and how do they operate per my above requirements? A rough SQL schema would be appreciated in your response. Thanks in advance...

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• Background loading javascript into iframe without using jQuery/Ajax?

  - by user210099

  I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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• Processing a resultset to look up foriegn keys (and poulate a new table!)

  - by Gilly

  Hi, I've been handed a dataset that has some fairly basic table structures with no keys at all. eg {myRubishTable} - Area(varchar),AuthorityName(varchar),StartYear(varchar),StartMonth(varcha),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(Money) there are other tables that use the Area and AuthorityName columns as well as a general use of Month and Years so I I figured a good first step was to pull Area and Authority into their own tables. I now want to process the data in the original table and lookup the key value to put into my new table with foreign keys which looks like this. (lookup Tables) {Area} - id (int, PK), name (varchar(50)) {AuthorityName} - id(int, PK), name(varchar(50) (TargetTable) {myBetterTable} - id (int,PK), area_id(int FK-Area),authority_name_id(int FK-AuthorityName),StartYear (varchar),StartMonth(varchar),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(money) so row one in the old table read MYAREA, MYAUTHORITY,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 and I want to populate the new table with 1,1,1,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 where the first '1' is the primary key and the second two '1's are the ids in the lookup tables. Can anyone point me to the most efficient way of achieving this using just SQL? Thanks in advance Footnote:- I've achieved what I needed with some pretty simple WHERE clauses (I had left a rogue tablename in the FROM which was throwing me :o( ) but would be interested to know if this is the most efficient. ie SELECT [area].[area_id], [authority].[authority_name_id], [myRubishTable].[StartYear], [myRubishTable].[StartMonth], [myRubishTable].[EndYear], [myRubishTable].[EndMonth], [myRubishTable].[Amount] FROM [myRubishTable],[Area],[AuthorityName] WHERE [myRubishTable].[Area]=[Area].[name] AND [myRubishTable].[Authority Name]=[dim_AuthorityName].[name] TIA

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• Apache mod_rewrite : How to REWRITE (or whatever) child directories to parent?

  - by ????

  Actually i am trying to make a PHP MVC like application. A basic one. The current milestone i am reaching already includes: Basic RESTful Routing Means, if i type: www.example.com/items/book/8888 .. it properly just stays there as it is and i can already slice out the URL by slashes / and loads the responsible Controllers .... etc from the top single index.php file. I mean, so it is OK for the backend PHP. But the only problem is, it still CAN NOT process the REWRITES properly. For example, the CSS & JS are BROKEN as if i VIEW PAGE SOURCE of the page www.example.com/items/book/8888, the asset files are being called as: www.example.com/items/book/8888/css/main.css www.example.com/items/book/8888/js/jquery.js .. which really are PROBLEMS because in the code is like: <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" media="all" href="css/main.css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> So the question is: How can i use Apache REWRITE (or whatever approach) to make sure every ASSET FILES to be correctly being called from the DOCROOT. For example, if i am in the URL: www.example.com/items/book/8888 My ASSET FILES should still be called as: www.example.com/css/main.css www.example.com/js/jquery.js Or is there any other methods i need to follow? Please kindly help suggest. Thank you.

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• please suggest mysql query for this

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• android app doesn't show on the emulator

  - by Anna Finela Constantino

  I made an android application using eclipse and it is working fine when I started developing my app. But then as I continue to develop the app the emulator seems to be not updating the application prior to the changes I have made on the code. So I tried deleting my avd and create a new one every time I run my app, and that seems to have worked. Now my problem is that my emulator doesn't show my app. It says "Failed to install *.apk on device 'emulator-5554': An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine". I searched for ways to solved it but none of it seems to have worked. I tried killing the adb process (as most my searches would say) on the task manager but still my app doesn't show on the emulator. The emulator is running and all but my icon is nowhere to be found. Am I misssing out something? Is the problem connected to the first problem i had before? As I said, I started developing android app recently, so please bear with me. :) I appreciate all your help.Thanks in advance.

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• Automated browser testing: How to test JavaScript in web pages?

  - by Dave

  I am trying to write an application that will test a series of web-pages programmatically. The web pages being tested have JavaScript embedded within them which alter the structure of the HTML when they complete execution. It is then the goal to take the final HTML (post-execution of the embedded JavaScript) and compare it against a known output. Essentially, the Input --- Output for the test application is: URL ---[retrieve HTML]--- HTML ---[execute JS, then compare]--- PASS/FAIL Here is the challenge: I have been unable to find a solution that is able to take the HTML I retrieve from the URL and process the JavaScript, as a browser would, and generate the final HTML a user might see from "View Source" on the same page within the browser. It would be very surprising if this sort of approach has not been made before, so I'm hoping someone out there knows of a fitting solution for this application/problem? If at all possible, I'm hoping for a solution that integrates with .NET (I've tried using the WebBrowser, with no luck). However, if there is an existing 3rd party application that can do exactly this, that would be quite acceptable. Thanks in advance for the suggestions! Dave

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• Migrate from Oracle to MySQL

  - by Cassy

  Hi together. We ran into serious performance problems with our Oracle database and we would like to try to migrate to a MySQL-based database (either MySQL directly or, more preferrable, Infobright). The thing is, we need to let the old and the new system overlap for at least some weeks if not months, before we actually know, if all features of the new database match our needs. So, here is our situation: The Oracle database consists of multiple tables with each millions of rows. During the day, there are literally thousands of statements, which we cannot stop for migration. Every morning, new data is imported into the Oracle database, replacing some thousands of rows. Copying this process is not a problem, so we could, in theory, import in both databases in parallel. But, and here lies the challenge, for this to work, we need to have an export from the Oracle database with a consistent state from one day. (We cannot export some tables on Monday and some others on Tuesday, etc.) This means, that at least the export should be finished in less than one day. Our first thought was to dump the schema, but I wasn't able to find a tool to import an Oracle dump file into mysql. Exporting tables in CSV files might work, but I'm afraid it could take too long. So my question now is: What should I do? Is there any tool to import Oracle dump files into MySQL? Does anybody have any experience with such a large-scale migration? Thanks in advance, Cassy PS: Please, don't suggest performance optimization techniques for Oracle, we already tried a lot :-)

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• How can I save a file on an http server using just http requests and javascript?

  - by user170902

  hi all, I'm trying to understand some of the basics of web servers/html/javasacript etc. I'm not interested in any of the various frameworks like php/asp, i'm just trying to get a low level look at things (for now). At the moment I'm trying to understand how data can be sent to/saved on the backend, but i must admit that i'm getting a bit lost under the various specs/technical stuff on w3 at the moment! If I have some data, say xml, that I want to save on the backend how do I go about it? I assume that I would have to use something like an HTTP PUT or POST Request to an html doc that contains some javascript that in turn would process the data, e.g. save it somewhere. Now from googling around I can see that this doesn't seem to be the case, so my assumptions are completely wrong! So how is it done? Can it be done, or do I have to use something like php or asp? TIA. bg

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• Accessing "pseudo-globals" by their name as a string

  - by rob

  I am now in the process of removing most globals from my code by enclosing everything in a function, turning the globals into "pseudo globals," that are all accessible from anywhere inside that function block. (function(){ var g = 1; var func f1 = function () { alert (g); } var func f2= function () { f1(); } })(); (technically this is only for my "release version", where I append all my files together into a single file and surround them with the above....my dev version still has typically one global per js file) This all works great except for one thing...there is one important place where I need to access some of these "globals" by string name. Previously, I could have done this: var name = "g"; alert (window[name]); and it did the same as alert(g); Now -- from inside the block -- I would like to do the same, on my pseudo-globals. But I can't, since they are no longer members of any parent object ("window"), even though are in scope. Any way to access them by string? Thanks...

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• Problem with inherited classes in C#

  - by Unniloct

  I have a class called "Entity," with two child classes: "Creature" and "Item." (I'm making a game.) Creature has two functions called "Attack," one for attacking Creatures, and one for attacking Items. So far, everything works well. Now I'm working on the shooting bit, so I have a function called SelectTarget(). It takes all of the Entities (both Creatures and Items) in the player's view that the player can shoot and lets the player choose one. So here lies the problem: SelectTarget() returns an Entity, but I need some code to figure out whether that Entity is a Creature or an Item, and process it appropriately. Since this question looks kind of empty without any code, and I'm not 100% sure my explanation is good enough, here's where I'm at: if (Input.Check(Key.Fire)) { Entity target = Game.State.SelectTarget.Run(); this.Draw(); if (target != null) { //Player.Attack(target); // This won't work, because I have: // Player.Attack((Creature)Target) // Player.Attack((Item)Target) // but nothing for Entity, the parent class to Creature and Item. return true; } } (If the way the game is laid out seems weird, it's a roguelike.)

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• Need for J2me source code

  - by tikamchandrakar

  For J2me It strikes me as odd that you need an extra "api key" and so on. But actually, what I really want is NOT create an extra facebook application that needs to be registered on Facebook. I don't want to create any extra configuration effords necessary for the user of my application to undergo. All my user should need is his well-known login data for facebook. Everything else should be completely transparent to him. So, I thought maybe would u can do the login process, creating a request to the REST server via http. I know this would provide me with an XML. I hope that the this API will somehow automatically transform that XML into an intuitive object model that represents the facebook user data of the respective user. So, I would expect something like userData = new FacebookData(new FacebookConnection("user_name", "password")). Done. If you get, what I mean. No api key. No secret key. Just the well-known login data. Practically, the equivalent to thunderbird webmail, which allows you to access your MSN hotmail account via Thunderbird. Thunderbird webmail will automatically converts the htmls obtained from a hotmail browser login into the data structure usually passed on to a mail client. Hope you get what I mean. I was expecting the equilalent for the your API.

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• Huge burst of memory in c# service, what could be the cause?

  - by Daniel

  I'm working on a c# service application and i have this problem where out of no where and for no obvious reason, the memory for the process will climb from 150mb to almost 2gb in about 5 seconds and then back to 150mb. But nothing in our system should be using any where near that amount of memory (so its probably a bug somewhere). It might be a tight while true loop somewhere but the cpu usage at the time was very low so i thought i'd look for other ideas. Now the weirder thing is when i compile the service for 64bit, the same massive burst will occur except it exceeded 10gb of ram (paging most of it) and it just caused lots of problems with the computer and everything running on it. After a while it shuts down but it looks like windows is still willing to give it more memory. Would you have any ideas or tools that i can use in order to find this? Yes it has lots of logging however nothing in the logs stand out as to why this is happening. I can run the service in a console app mode, so my next test was going to be running it in visual studio debugger and see if i can find anything. It only happens occasionally but usually about 10-20 minutes after startup. On 32bit mode it cleans up and continues on like normally. 64bit mode it crashes after a while and uses stupid amounts of memory. But i'm really stumped as to why this is happening!!!

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• The cross-thread usage of "HttpContext.Current" property and related things

  - by smwikipedia

  I read from < Essential ASP.NET with Examples in C# the following statement: Another useful property to know about is the static Current property of the HttpContext class. This property always points to the current instance of the HttpContext class for the request being serviced. This can be convenient if you are writing helper classes that will be used from pages or other pipeline classes and may need to access the context for whatever reason. By using the static Current property to retrieve the context, you can avoid passing a reference to it to helper classes. For example, the class shown in Listing 4-1 uses the Current property of the context to access the QueryString and print something to the current response buffer. Note that for this static property to be correctly initialized, the caller must be executing on the original request thread, so if you have spawned additional threads to perform work during a request, you must take care to provide access to the context class yourself. I am wondering about the root cause of the bold part, and one thing leads to another, here is my thoughts: We know that a process can have multiple threads. Each of these threads have their own stacks, respectively. These threads also have access to a shared memory area, the heap. The stack then, as I understand it, is kind of where all the context for that thread is stored. For a thread to access something in the heap it must use a pointer, and the pointer is stored on its stack. So when we make some cross-thread calls, we must make sure that all the necessary context info is passed from the caller thread's stack to the callee thread's stack. But I am not quite sure if I made any mistake. Any comments will be deeply appreciated. Thanks. ADD Here the stack is limited to user stack.

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• What goes into the "Controller" in "MVC"?

  - by P72endragon

  I think I understand the basic concepts of MVC - the Model contains the data and behaviour of the application, the View is responsible for displaying it to the user and the Controller deals with user input. What I'm uncertain about is exactly what goes in the Controller. Lets say for example I have a fairly simple application (I'm specifically thinking Java, but I suppose the same principles apply elsewhere). I organise my code into 3 packages called app.model, app.view and app.controller. Within the app.model package, I have a few classes that reflect the actual behaviour of the application. These extends Observable and use setChanged() and notifyObservers() to trigger the views to update when appropriate. The app.view package has a class (or several classes for different types of display) that uses javax.swing components to handle the display. Some of these components need to feed back into the Model. If I understand correctly, the View shouldn't have anything to do with the feedback - that should be dealt with by the Controller. So what do I actually put in the Controller? Do I put the public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) in the View with just a call to a method in the Controller? If so, should any validation etc be done in the Controller? If so, how do I feedback error messages back to the View - should that go through the Model again, or should the Controller just send it straight back to View? If the validation is done in the View, what do I put in the Controller? Sorry for the long question, I just wanted to document my understanding of the process and hopefully someone can clarify this issue for me!

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• how can I make a "downstream only" copy of a file in TFS

  - by jcollum

  I've got this SQL script that needs to exist in two places in source control. I want to have only one real copy of this file and keep a virtual copy of the file in the other solution. One is needed for a unit test and the other for a development tool. The files, should, by definition, always be the same. If they have differences then there's a problem with our process. In Sourcegear I could make a virtual copy of a specific version of a file and keep it somewhere else in the source tree. That doesn't seem to be possible in TFS. Is it possible in SVN? So what are my options here? Branching/merging -- which is what the TFS team says I should be doing here -- means just another step that I have to remember to do. Plus it isn't automatic and I would prefer that this be automated. Is there some way to run an exe on checkin of a specific file? I'm thinking if I could do that then I could do a checkout-edit-checkin of the downstream copy of the file.

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• Filter design for audio signal.

  - by beanyblue

  What I am trying to do is simple. I have a few .wav files. I want to remove noise and filter out specific frequencies. I don't have matlab and I intend to write my own code for all the filters. Right now, I have a way to read the .wav file and dump out the structure into a text file. My questions are the following: Can I directly apply the digital filters on this sampled data?{ ie, can I directly do a convolution between my input samples and h(n) for the filter function that i choose?). How do I choose the number of coefficients for the Window function? I have octave, so if someone can point me to anything that gives me some idea on how to process the .wav file using octave, that would be great too. I want to be able to filter out the frequency and then listen to the sound again. Is this possible with octave? I'm just a beginner with these kinds of things, so please bear with me if my questions are too naive. Any help will be great.

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• What is the best way to structure those jquery call backs?

  - by user518138

  I am new to jquery and recently have been amazed how powerful those call backs are. But here I got some logic and I am not sure what the best way is. Basically, I got a bunch of tables in web sql database in chrome. I will need to go through say table A, table B and table C. I need to submit each row of the table to server. Each row represents a bunch of complicated logic and data url and they have to be submitted in the order of A - B - C. The regular java way would be: TableA.SubmitToServer() { query table A; foreach(row in tableA.rows) { int nRetID = submitToServer(row); do other updates.... } } Similar for tableB and table C. then just call: TableA.SubmitToServer(); TableB.SubmitToServer(); TableC.SubmitToServer(); //that is very clear and easy. But in JQuery, it probably will be: db.Transaction(function (tx){ var strQuery = "select * from TableA"; tx.executeSql(strQuery, [], function (tx, result){ for(i = 0 ; i < result.rows.length; i++) { submitTableARowToServer(tx, result.rows.getItem(i), function (tx, result) { //do some other related updates based on this row from tableA //also need to upload some related files to server... }); } }, function errorcallback....) }); As you can see, there are already enough nested callbacks. Now, where should I put the process for TableB and tableC? They all need to have similar logic and they can only be called after everything is done from TableA. So, What is the best way to do this in jquery? Thanks

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• NHibernate / ORM - Child Update over Web Service

  - by tyndall

  What is the correct way to UPDATE a child object with NHibernate but not have to "awake" the parent object. Lets say you would like to try to avoid this because the parent object is large or expensive to initiate. Lets assume classes are called Author(parent) and Book(child). (still, trying to avoid instantiating Author) Book comes back over a web service as XML. It gets deserialized back into a CLR object. Book has an AuthorId property which allows this to happen. But it also has a Author property. Problem, comes when you try to SaveOrUpdate() Book and the author_id in the database gets wiped out because the Author was null when the object gets deserialized. This seems like this would be a common problem. What is the workaround? Also, if you instantiate the Author and it has a Books property. The book you are trying to update is already one of these books (List<Book>). We have also run into the "a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session" problems. What is the standard process to update a child over a web service?

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• Update MySQl table onDrop?

  - by dougvt

  Hi all. I am writing a PHP/MySQL application (using CodeIgniter) that uses some jQuery functionality for dragging table rows. I have a table in which the user can drag rows to the desired order (kind of a queue for which I need to preserve the rank of each row). I've been trying to figure out how to (and whether I should) update the database each time the user drops a row, in order to simplify the UI and avoid a "Save" button. I have the jQuery working and can send a serialized list back to the server onDrop, but is it good design practice to run an update query this often? The table will usually have 30-40 rows max, but if the user drags row 1 far down the list, then potentially all the rows would need to be updated to update the rank field. I've been wondering whether to send a giant query to the server, to loop through the rows in PHP and update each row with its own Update query, to send a small serialized list to a stored procedure to let the server do all the work, or perhaps a better method I haven't considered. I've read that stored procedures in MySQL are not very efficient and use a separate process for each call. Any advice as to the right solution here? Thanks very much for your help!

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• run two thread at the same time in java

  - by user1805005

  i have used timertask to schedule my java program. now when the run method of timertask is in process, i want to run two threads which run at the same time and do different functions. here is my code.. please help me.. import java.util.Calendar; import java.util.Date; import java.util.Timer; import java.util.TimerTask; public class timercheck extends TimerTask{ // my first thread Thread t1 = new Thread(){ public void run(){ for(int i = 1;i <= 10;i++) { System.out.println(i); } } }; // my second thread Thread t2 = new Thread(){ public void run(){ for(int i = 11;i <= 20;i++) { System.out.println(i); } } }; public static void main(String[] args){ long ONCE_PER_DAY = 1000*60*60*24; Calendar calendar = Calendar.getInstance(); calendar.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, 12); calendar.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 05); calendar.set(Calendar.SECOND, 00); Date time = calendar.getTime(); TimerTask check = new timercheck(); Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.scheduleAtFixedRate(check, time ,ONCE_PER_DAY); } @Override // run method of timer task public void run() { t1.start(); t2.start(); } }

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• Make UIViewController outside Navigation Controller

  - by user1447316

  i have a question for you. I'm working on this app that has a walkthrough/tutorial screens and also login ones. On each of this screens there is a button to skip this part and go directly to use the app, without completing the registration (you know, so that people can test it before signing-in). As you can see i'm using Storyboards. The NowPlaying04 ViewController is actually the app itself. Obviously, when the user will be a registered one, i should also be able to jump right back to that screen, skipping the walkthrough and signin process. The first question is: how is the best way to structure this? The second quesion is: how i can make a ViewController outside that Navigation controller. Cause as you can see now, the NowPlaying04 ViewController inherits the top navigation bar. Which is a thing that i don't want. I don't need that. I hope that you have understood my question. I'll appreciate any help. Programmatically or by dragging stuff around, i'm ok with all the solutions. The important thing is that it works correctly! :-)

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• jQuery jPicker colorpicker: How to convert from 8 digit (w Transparency) to standard 6 digit hex?

  - by Scott B

  I've got a jPicker installed and running fine; its a pretty sweet script. However, the value it returns to my input box is 8 digit hex. I need it to return 6 digit hex. Rather than post-process the 8 digit into 6, I'd rather just hack into the script and force 6 digit. Alternately, I'd be ok with hooking into the change event of the jPicker to intercept the value its sending to the input element and doing the conversion there just before it updates the input with the hex. Here's my code: $(function() { $('#myThemeColor').jPicker(); /* Bind jPicker to myThemeColor input */ $("#carousel").jCarouselLite({ btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, speed: 700 }); And here's the code I'm working with to intercept the myThemeColor input's change event, but its not firing at all. $('#myThemeColor').change(function() { alert(this.val()); /* does not fire on any action */) if($(this).val().length == 8) { $(this).val(function(i, v) { return v.substring(0, 6); }); } });

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• Scientific Data processing (Graph comparison and interpretation)

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hi stackoverflow friends, I'm trying to write a program to automate one of my more boring and repetitive work tasks. I have some programming experience but none with processing or interpreting large volumes of data so I am seeking your advice (both suggestions of techniques to try and also things to read to learn more about doing this stuff). I have a piece of equipment that monitors an experiment by taking repeated samples and displays the readings on its screen as a graph. The input of experiment can be altered and one of these changes should produce a change in a section of the graph which I currently identify by eye and is what I'm looking for in the experiment. I want to automate it so that a computer looks at a set of results and spots the experiment input that causes the change. I can already extract the results from the machine. Currently they results for a run are in the form of an integer array with the index being the sample number and the corresponding value being the measurement. The overall shape of the graph will be similar for each experiment run. The change I'm looking for will be roughly the same and will occur in approximately the same place every time for the correct experiment input. Unfortunately there are a few gotchas that make this problem more difficult. There is some noise in the measuring process which mean there is some random variation in the measured values between different runs. Although the overall shape of the graph remains the same. The time the experiment takes varies slightly each run causing two effects. First, the a whole graph may be shifted slightly on the x axis relative to another run's graph. Second, individual features may appear slightly wider or narrower in different runs. In both these cases the variation isn't particularly large and you can assume that the only non random variation is caused by the correct input being found. Thank you for your time, Pinky

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